VTNE Questions from powerpoints Flashcards by Maureen Maguire

Neonatal animals are less tolerant of some drugs than older animals because in neonates the drugs are:

Biotransformed more slowly—the neonatal liver is not equipped to deal efficiently with the biotransformation of most drugs until approximately 1 month of age

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Pharmacodynamics may be defined as:

The method by which the function of the living body is affected by the drug

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The generic name for a drug is also called

The nonproprietary name—generic and nonproprietary names are interchangeable; no one company owns the right to these types of names.

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Intradermal injections are used primarily for:

Allergy testing

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Most biotransformation occurs in which organ?

Liver

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Repository forms of parenteral drugs

Are formulated to prolong absorption

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What liquid form of drug is most commonly administered intravenously?

Solution

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When a drug is said to have a narrow therapeutic range, it means what?

Its effective and toxic doses are close to each other.

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A drug given by which route reaches its peak plasma concentration the fastest?

Intravenously

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Cholinergic agents do all of the following except: (slow heart rate, increase blood flow to tintestinal tract, decrease diameter of bronchioles, cause peripheral dilation)

Cause peripheral dilation—cholinergic agents (parasympathetic) have minimal effect on peripheral vessels

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Pain receptors are called

Nociceptors

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Epinephrine does what?

Increases the heart rate

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What drug is contraindicated in the treatment of glaucoma?

Atropine—a mydriatic that is used to examine the eye which results in dilatation of the pupil

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Norepinephrine, epinephrine, and dopamine are the primary neurotransmitters for the Parasympathetic nervous system Sympathetic nervous system Central nervous system Peripheral nervous system

Sympathetic nervous system

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Atropine is often used as a pre-anesthetic agent. It is classified as an anti-cholinergic drug and will produce what effects:

Increased HR, decreased salivation, decreased GI motility.

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T/ F Xylazine is an example of an Alpha 2 agonist.

True

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T/F Doxapram is a respiratory stimulant.

True

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If using a regular disposable-type, which of the following drugs must not be preloaded and left for a period of time?

Diazepam

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The benzodiazepine derivative diazepam is often administered in combination with

Ketamine (i.e., KetVal)

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Acepromazine maleate causes

Hypotension

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Xylazine provides some analgesia. True or False?

True

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A 50-lb dog is to be given a 1 mg/kg dose of diazepam. How many mg’s will he receive?

22.7 mg

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A dog was given a sedative which resulted in its HR=50 bpm (n=60-120). Which drug was likely used to sedate this dog?

Dexmedetomidine (DexDomitor)

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Acepromazine should be avoided in patients with a history of seizures. True or False?

True

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What is not a potential side effect of the phenothiazine antiemetics

Diarrhea

Which of the following drugs does not have an antiemetic action? (Pheothiazines, Metoclopramide, Antihistamines, Apomorphine)

Apomorphine

Butorphanol is an antitussive. True or False?

True

Butorphanol is an agonist/antagonist. True or False?

True

An opioid analgesic often used in transdermal patches to control postsurgical pain is

Fentanyl

The reversal agent used for opioid toxicity is

Naloxone (Narcan)

Loperamide, an opioid, is not a controlled substance. True or False?

True

Thiobarbiturates should be administered with care or not at all to:

Greyhounds—sight hounds have minimal body fat so the drug remains in circulation at high levels

What is absolutely necessary when terminating anesthesia when nitrous oxide was used?

Oxygenate for 5 to 10 minutes

After receiving an analgesic dose of morphine, a cat will likely demonstrate all of the following except:

Elevated respiratory rate

You observe a post-op cat patient with wide-open, unblinking eyes; salivating profusely; and rigid, extended limbs. Which anesthetic was likely used for this cat’s surgery?

Ketaset

What gas anesthesia demands the greatest degree of patient monitoring because of rapid depth changes?

Sevoflurane (SevoFlo)

Cats given ketamine for anesthesia may show what side effects?

Apneustic breathing

Which of the following drugs is the most common active ingredient in euthanasia drugs? (Phenobarbital, Methohexital, Pentobarbital, Thipental)

Pentobarbital

Propofol must not be returned to the refrigerator for future use if the bottle has been opened for more than six hours because:

Bacteria will readily grow in propofol and will produce endotoxins

Loop diuretics such as furosemide

May cause hypokalemia with chronic use

A chronotropic agent affects the

Rate of a contraction

Which type of drugs would you use to treat a cat with an aortic thromboembolism?

Fibrinolytic drugs

The diuretic drug used most commonly in patients with congestive heart failure is

Furosemide

Digoxin is

A negative chronotrope and a positive inotrope

The drug of choice for the treatment of a surgical patient in cardiac arrest is:

Epinephrine

Which drug is used to treat feline hypertension?

Amolodipine (Norvasc). It is a Calcium-Channel Blocker

ACE inhibitors have what effects on the body?

Decreased preload and afterload on the heart

Nitroglycerin is given primarily to achieve what effects?

Vasodilation (venodilator)

Which of the following are calcium channel blockers used to relax the heart of patients with HCM? (Procainamide, Diltiazem, Lidocaine, Digoxin)

Diltiazem

Lidocaine is used to control which of the following abnormalities? (Atrial bradyarrhythmias, Ventricular tachyarrhythmias, Hpertenstion, Excessive urine output)

Ventricular tachyarrhythmias

Which of the following drugs is classified as an osmotic diuretic used to reduce intracranial pressure or treat oliguric renal failure? (Furosemide, Propranolol, Mannitol, Bethanechol)

Mannitol

Hyperthyroid cats have heart rates over 200 bpm which poses an anesthetic risk. What drug would be used to slow the heart rate in patients with this condition?

Propranolol. Because it is a Beta1 receptor blocker

Drugs classified as ACE inhibitors have what effect on the body?

Vasodilation

Captopril is an example of a(n):

Vasodilator

Heartgard contains ivermectin, which

Is used to prevent heartworm infection

The active drug in ProHeart is moxidectin, a member of the drug class

Avermectin

Most OTC wormers contain which of the following drugs: Pyrantel pamoate (Nemex) Piperazine (Pipa-tabs) Fenbendazole (Panacur) Ivermectin (Ivomec)

Piperazine

If a drug package insert states that the drug is a coccidiostat, against which group of parasites is this effective? Ascarids (Toxacara, Toxascaris) Tapeworms (Taenia) Protozoa (Eimeria, Isospora) Flukes (liver fluke, lung fluke)

Protozoa

T/F Organophosphates have relatively few side effects.

False

Which drug is used to treat a heartworm positive dog? Melarsomine (Immiticide) Ivermectin (Heartgard) Milbemycin (Interceptor) Moxidectin (ProHeart)

Melarsomine (Immiticide)

Dogs with heartworm disease are treated with aspirin because it

Decreases the risk of clot formation

What is the treatment of choice for organophosphate toxicity (dips, powders, sprays)?

Atropine

What insecticide is effective in treating demodectic mange?

Amitraz

All of the following drugs are antagonists, used to reverse the effects of another drug except: Yohimbine Detomidine Atipamazole Naloxone

Detomidine (Dormosedan)

As compared to horses, when using xylazine in cattle, you must Use adequate doses because cattle seem to be resistant to the effects of this drug Always use it with a barbiturate to achieve adequate analgesia Not use xylazine because it is contraindicated in cattle Use it at 1/10th the equine dose

Use it at 1/10th the equine dose

Atropine is often used as a pre-anesthetic agent. It is classified as an anti-cholinergic drug and will produce the following effects: A. Increase Heart rate, decrease salivation, decrease GI motility B. Increase Heart rate, Increse salivation, increase GI motility C. Increase heart rate, decrease salivation, decrease GI motility D. Decrease heart rate, increase salivation, increase GI motility

Becase it is an anti-choliergic drug it will Increase Heart rate, decrease salivatin, decrease GI motility

A 10-kg dog was inadvertantly given a dose of xylazine appropriate for a 30-kg dog. Which drug would you use to reverse the xylazine? Atipamezole Yohimbine Atropine Noradrenalin

Yohimbine

T/F Propofol can be given in incremental doses?

True

Thiobarbiturates should be administered with care or not at all to which of the following (Collies, Greyhounds, Rottweilers, Spaniels)

Greyhounds (sight hounds have minimal body fat so the drug remains in teh circulation at high levels)

A dog was given a sedative which resulted in its HR=50 bpm (n=60-120). Which drug was likely used to sedate this dog? Acepromazine (Promace) Ketamine (Ketaset) Diazepam (Valium) Dexmedetomidine (DexDomitor)

Dexmedetomidine (DexDomitor)

Which of the following drugs would you not use in a patient with seizures? Diazepam Thiopental Acepromazine Fentanyl

Acepromazine

The NSAID that is extremely toxic to cats is: Aspirin Carprofen Acetaminophen Flunixin

Acetaminophen—while technically not an NSAID, it is commonly grouped with them

Aspirin may safely be used in cats as an NSAID, but it should be noted that its half-life in this species approximates: 2 hours 8 hours 15 hours 30 hours

30 hours

What is not a short-term effect of corticosteroid therapy? Polyuria Polyphagia Delayed healing Osteoporosis

Osteoporosis is a long-term effect

A common effect of antihistamine drugs such as diphenhydramine is Polyuria Sedation Pruritus Panting

Sedation

Parenteral administration of phenylbutazone should be via which route only? SC injection IM injection SC or IM injection IV injection

IV injection

Chronic use of moderate-to-high doses of glucocorticoids may cause: Addison’s Disease Cushing’s Disease Diabetes mellitus Insulinoma

Cushing’s Disease—when the glucocorticoids are exogenous, the cause is iatrogenic

Glucocorticoids are often used in veterinary medicine for treatment of all the following except: Allergies Musculoskeletal problems Infections Immune-mediated disease

Infections

Which of the following glucocorticoids has the shortest duration of activity? Hydrocortisone Prednisone Dexamethasone Triamcinolone

Hydrocortisone

What drug is not an NSAID? Prednisone Flunixin Phenylbutazone Aspirin

Prednisone

Flunixin Meglumine (Banamine) is an NSAID most commonly used In dogs for the treatment of chronic osteoarthritis In horses for the treatment of colic In horses for reducing fever In dogs for its anticoagulant activity

In horses for the treatment of colic

The most common side effect of NSAIDs is Polyuria Gastrointestinal ulceration Diarrhea Constipation

Gastrointestinal ulceration

Which statement is most accurate pertaining to insect growth regulators (ie. fenoxycarb, methoprene)? The prevent the female from laying eggs They effectively kill all adult stages They are insecticidal with very low risk of toxic effects in mammals They are neurotoxic to mammals

They are insecticidal with very low risk of toxic effects in mammals

The regulatory agency that oversees the development and approval of animal topical pesticides is the FDA EPA USDA DEA

EPA

What breed of dog has a blood-brain barrier that allows ivermectin to reach toxic concentrations within the brain more readily than other breeds? German Shepherd Collie Schnauzer Cocker Spaniel

Collie

Guaifenesin is an example of Expectorant Antitussive Bronchodilator Mucolytic agent

Expectorant

Which of these drugs is available over the counter as an antitussive? Codeine Dextromethorphan Hydrocodone Butorphanol

Dextromethorphan

Which of these drugs is used to stimulate puppies who are breathing poorly after a C-section? Theophylline (Theo-Dur) Albuterol Doxapram HCl (Dopram) Terbutaline

Doxapram HCl (Dopram)

The type of drug that would be effective for a patient with a productive cough is: Antitussive Antihistamine Expectorant Analgesic

Expectorant

Which of the following drugs decrease gastric acid by blocking histamine receptors (H2) in the stomach? Famotidine (Pepcid) Sucralfate (Carafate) Omeprazole (Prilosec) Erythropoietin

Famotidine (Pepcid)

All of the following drugs are used in the treatment of chronic renal failure except: Famotidine (Pepcid) Amlodipine (Norvasc) Furosemide (Lasix) Erthropoietin (Epogen)

Furosemide (Lasix)

Amphogel and Basaljel are drugs in the general category of: Potassium supplements Antihypertensives Urinary acidifiers Phosphate binders

Phosphate binders

A stool softener often helpful in patients recovering from anal surgery: Docusate sodium succinate (DSS, Colace) Magnesium hydroxide Mineral oil Bran

Docusate sodium succinate (DSS, Colace)

The most widely used antiemetics used in dogs and cats to prevent motion sickness: Antispasmodics Antihistamines Phenothiazines Anticholinergics

Phenothiazines

The emetic of choice in cats is Syrup of ipecac Xylazine Apomorphine Hydrogen peroxide

Xylazine

The emetic of choice in dogs is Syrup of ipecac Xylazine Apomorphine Hydrogen peroxide

Apomorphine

Fleet enemas are contraindicated in what species? Horses Ruminants Cats Pigs

Cats—Sodium phosphate enemas cause lethal electrolyte shifts in cats. Saline enemas are safe to use however.

A coating agent that forms an ulcer-adherent complex at the ulcer site is Kaopectate Sucralfate Cimetidine Misoprostol

Sucralfate

A progestin that was once used for inappropriate elimination in cats but is not now used due to potential serious side-effects is: Megestrol acetate (Ovaban) Oxazepam (Serax) Amitriptyline (Elavil) Fluoxetine (Prozac)

Megestrol acetate (Ovaban)

A 12-yr old spayed Golden Retriever is presented with a history of waking up in her bed in a puddle of urine. Physical and lab exams are normal. The medication dispensed for her condition is PPA (phenylpropanolamine). Why? It treats bladder atony by increasing bladder tone It treats urinary incontinence by decreasing urethral sphincter tone It treats urinary incontinence by increasing urethral sphincter tone It treats bladder atony by decreasing bladder tone

It treats urinary incontinence by increasing urethral sphincter tone

A cat diagnosed with hyperthyroidism may be offered the following treatment options except: Radioactive Iodine--I131 treatment Fenbendazole (Panacur) medical management Thyroidectomy surgery Methimazole (Tapazole) medical management

Fenbendazole (Panacur) medical management

A veterinarian prescribes erythropoietin (Epogen) for use in a dog in renal failure. Why was this drug prescribed? For its fibrinolytic activity For its immunosuppressive activity For its ability to stimulate red blood cell production and release For its ability to reduce hypertension

For its ability to stimulate red blood cell production and release

Resuspension of NPH insulin is done by: Gently rolling the bottle Vigorous shaking of the bottle Gently heating of the bottle in warm water Refrigeration of the bottle

Gently rolling the bottle

Altrenogest, which is used for estrus synchronization in female animals, is a synthetic: Estrogen Androgen Progestin Follicle stimulating hormone (FSH)

Progestin

Serious potential side effects of estrogen administration include: Hemorrhage and thromboembolism Bone marrow suppression and pyometra Cardiac arrhythmias and pulmonary edema Renal failure and gastric ulcers

Bone marrow suppression and pyometra

What drug is used to return a mare to proestrus from diestrus through lysis of the corpus luteum? Progesterone Estrogen Prostaglandin Gonadotropin

Prostaglandin

The drug most commonly used in treating animals with hypothyroidism is: Thyroid stimulating hormone (TSH) Thyroid extract Synthetic levothyroxine (T4) Synthetic liothyronine (T3)

Synthetic levothyroxine (T4)

Which of the following statements about drugs used for cancer chemotherapy is true? They are usually given by mouth They usually have low (narrow) margins of safety They are available over the counter They are all nephrotoxic

They usually have low (narrow) margins of safety

Which of the following side effects is commonly seen with many cancer chemotherapeutic drugs? Hyperglycemia Immunosuppression Constipation Hyperphagia

Immunosuppression

Oral hypoglycemic drugs such as glipizide (Glucotrol) are used to treat Diabetic keto-acidosis Non-insulin-dependent diabetes Hypoglycemia Pancreatitis

Non-insulin-dependent diabetes

Which class of drugs generally poses the greatest potential health threat to those handling the medication? Antibiotics Antineoplastics Antinematodals Antiprotozoals

Antineoplastics

Pharmacodynamics may be defined as:

The method by which the function of the living body is affected by the drug

The generic name for a drug is also called:

The nonproprietary name—generic and nonproprietary names are interchangeable; no one company owns the right to these types of names.

Intradermal injections are used primarily for: A. Insulin injections B. Antibiotic injections C. Vaccinations D. Allergy testing

Allergy testing

Most biotransformation occurs in the Liver Kidney Lungs Spleen

Liver

Repository forms of parenteral drugs Contain a special coating that protects the drug from the harsh, acidic environment of the stomach Are formulated to prolong absorption Are composed of plant or animal parts as opposed to manufactured chemicals Are extremely irritating to the tissues

Are formulated to prolong absorption

What liquid form of drug is most commonly administered intravenously? Emulsion Solution Suspension Elixir

Solution

When a drug is said to have a narrow therapeutic range, it means that A. It must be dosed frequently B. It may be used for a few disorders only C. Its effective and toxic doses are close to each other D. It must be given in greater concentrations to be effective

Its effective and toxic doses are close to each other

A drug given by which route reaches its peak plasma concentration the fastest? A. Orally B. Intramuscularly C. Subcutaneously D. Intravenously

Intravenously