Week 10 pt 1 highlights Flashcards

(78 cards)

1
Q

Define category 3 tracings

A

Absent FHR variability
AND
Recurrent late decelerations
Recurrent variable decelerations
Sustained Bradycardia
OR
Sinusoidal Pattern (>20min)

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2
Q

What includes Everything not in category 1 or 3 tracings?

A

Category 2 tracings

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3
Q

What is Predictive of abnormal fetal acid-base status at time of observation?

A

Category 3 tracings

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4
Q

What determines fetal acid/base status during labor?

A

Fetal Scalp Blood Sampling

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5
Q

What are the requirements for Fetal Scalp Blood Sampling?

A

Membranes must (already) be ruptured, and cervix dilated 2-3cm to perform

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6
Q

Normal scalp pH is what?

A

7.25-7.35

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7
Q

Define false labor

A

Uterine contractions (regular or irregular) that DO NOT cause dilation and effacement of the cervix
(aka Braxton Hicks contractions)

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8
Q

T/F: Braxton hicks contractions are are normal during 3rd trimester of pregnancy

A

True

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9
Q

What 3 things generally cause braxton hicks contractions to resolve?

A

Ambulation, hydration or analgesia

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10
Q

Factors that Contribute to Normal Labor include what 3 things?

A

1) Power (uterine contractions)
2) Passenger
3) Passage

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11
Q

Power: Each uterine contraction must generate >_____mmHg of peak pressure and at least ___ contractions in a 10min interval.

A

25mmgHg; 3

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12
Q

Montevideo units must be at least _______ MVU for adequate labor progression during the active phase.

A

200

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13
Q

Passenger:
1) If fetus’ weight > 4,000-4,500g, there’s an increased risk of what 2 things?
2) What presentation requires a c-section?

A

1) Shoulder dystocia and fetopelvic disproportion
2) Face presentation (or breech)

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14
Q

Give an example of passage

A

Cephalopelvic disproportion (CPD)

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15
Q

How do you inspect effacement?

A

Digital vaginal exam

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16
Q

List 3 terms that describe the position of the fetal head

A

1) Position
2) Engagement
3) Station

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17
Q

Engagement [of the fetal head] occurs when the biparietal diameter is at or below the inlet of the _______ pelvis.

A

true

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18
Q

List 3 terms that assess position

A

1) Attitude
2) Lie
3) Presentation

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19
Q

The normal fetal attitude when labor begins is with all joints in __________

A

flexion

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20
Q

The initial examination of the patient’s abdomen may be accomplished using ____________ maneuvers

A

Leopold

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21
Q

Leopold maneuvers: A series of four palpations of the uterus and fetus through the abdominal wall that helps accurately determine what 3 things?

A

fetal lie, presentation, and position.

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22
Q

Define the 4 main parts of Leopold’s maneuvers

A
  1. Determining what occupies the fundus.
  2. Determining location of small parts.
  3. Identifying descent of the presenting part.
  4. Identifying the cephalic prominence.
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23
Q

What 3 things does the cervix do in true labor?

A

1) Soften: Tip of nose > softest part of cheek
2) Thin: 2-3cm > paper-thin
May cause “bloody show”
3) Dilate: Closed > 10 cm

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24
Q

Patients should be instructed to contact their health care provider and/or go to L&D for any of what 4 reasons?

A

1) If their contractions occur approximately every 5 minutes for at least 1 hour
2) If there is a sudden gush of fluid or a constant leakage of vaginal fluid
3) If there is any significant vaginal bleeding
4) If there is significant decrease in fetal movement.

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25
1) Define the first stage of labor 2) Define the second stage of labor
1) Onset of true contractions through complete dilation and effacement of the cervix. 2) Onset with complete dilation and effacement and ends with delivery of baby
26
1) Define the third stage of labor 2) Define the fourth stage of labor
1) Begins with birth of baby and ends with delivery of the placenta -give Pitocin (Oxytocin) 2) The 2hrs immediately following the delivery of the placenta. -high risk for mom
27
Which stages of labor are highest risk for mom?
Third and fourth
28
What is the highest risk stage of labor for mom?
Fourth stage
29
When are 3 different situations in which rupture of membranes (ROM) may occur?
1) Prelabor/premature Rupture of Membranes (PROM) 2) Preterm Prelabor/premature Rupture of Membranes (PPROM) 3) OR may occur as part of the labor process
30
Define amniotomy
Amniotic sac deliberately ruptured to cause a release of amniotic fluid (amniotomy/artificial ROM)
31
When is amniotomy contraindicated?
Contraindicated unless fetal head is engaged
32
What is more likely if presenting part not engaged, malpresentation, if polyhydramnios present, and multiparity?
Umbilical Cord Prolapse
33
What is the Tx for umbilical cord prolapse?
Prompt delivery by C/S Pressure must be kept off cord
34
What are the 3 kinds of breech?
Frank Complete Incomplete (footling)
35
Name 1 thing breech is associated with
prematurity
36
Breech presentation: What are the 2 treatments?
1) External cephalic version 2) C-section
37
1) Define Meconium Staining of the Fluid 2) How common is it? 3) What are 2 causes? 4) What is needed before first breath?
1) Baby has moved its bowels in utero 2) 12% of live births 3) Post-dates gestation or fetal response to stress before or during labor 4) Aggressive suctioning
38
Give 4 examples of invasive pain mgmt in labor
1) Epidural (infusion of local anesthetic through a catheter in the epidural space) 2) Spinal (single injection, lasts ~2hrs) 3) Local block (ie pudendal block) 4) General anesthesia
39
1) What occurs when the biparietal diameter is at or below the pelvic inlet? 2) What allows for the smaller diameters of the fetal head to present?
1) Engagement 2) Flexion of the head
40
When does engagement occur days to weeks prior to labor?
1st child
41
As the fetal head engages and descends, it assumes an occiput _____________ position
transverse
42
When is the greatest rate of descent?
Latter portions of the first stage of labor and during the second stage
43
With further descent, after transverse orientation. the occiput rotates anteriorly, and the fetal head assumes an ___________ orientation.
oblique
44
The curve of the hollow of the sacrum favors ____________ of the fetal head as further descent occurs.
extension q
45
Define restitution
When the fetal head returns to its transverse position
46
1) What occurs rapidly after restitution? 2) What maneuver?
1) Delivery of the body (expulsion) 2) Modified Ritgen maneuver
47
___________ is performed to enlarge the birth outlet and facilitate delivery of the fetus. 
Episiotomy
48
True or false: There is NO evidence-based indication for routine episiotomy.
True
49
Episiotomies are “neater” and easier to repair, but ___________ heal better
lacerations
50
True or false: Immediately after the baby’s delivery, the cervix and vagina must be inspected for lacerations requiring surgical repair
True
51
True or false: Episiotomies must be repaired.
True
52
Delivery Of The Placenta generally, delivers within ______ minutes with no intervention
15
53
What should you not do during stage 3 of labor?
Do not pull on the cord; gentle traction ideal.
54
What should you do to prevent uterine atony during stage 3 of labor?
IV oxytocin
55
Why should you inspect the placenta?
To make sure that it is all there; can cause life-threatening hemorrhage if piece left
56
Stage 4 of labor: 1) Once the placenta has been expelled, you must assess what? 2) Why? 3) What must you do after you assess?
1) Uterine tone. 2) Uterus MUST contract or patient will bleed to death due to post-partum hemorrhage. 3) Fundal massage + oxytocin
57
Primary cause of postpartum uterine atony (immediate or delayed) is what?
Bladder distention
58
Dystocia (difficult labor) is characterized by what?
Abnormally slow progress in labor
59
What is the Most common cause of C/S in US?
Dystocia (difficult labor)
60
Dystocia (difficult labor) may occur because of what 3 things?
Issues with power, passenger, or passage
61
1) Give 2 maternal causes for shoulder dystocia 2) Give 1 fetal causes
1) Gestational diabetes; previous shoulder dystocia, 2) Increased birth weight
62
McRoberts maneuver is for what?
Hyperflexion of legs to mother's abdomen (can cause shoulder dystocia)
63
Brachial plexus palsy (Erb’s Palsy) is a potential complication of what?
Shoulder dystocia
64
1) Arrest Patterns in Labor are possibly associated with what? What should you do if diagnosed? 2) What do arrest patterns signal?
1) Cephalopelvic disproportion (CPD); c-section 2) The likelihood that a bony impediment exists.
65
Prolonged active phase and prolonged second stage are associated with _______________, which is associated with Erb's palsy
shoulder dystocia
66
What are 2 labor disorders of the first stage of labor?
1) Prolonged latent phase 2) Prolonged active phase
67
Protraction disorder may occur in what stage of labor?
Stage 2
68
_____________ is used for all protraction and arrest disorders (per ACOG) (amniotomy is also an option)
Oxytocin
69
If contractions are weak or irregular, use _____________ augmentation
Oxytocin (Pitocin)
70
List 6 important contraindications to oxytocin
1) Significant cephalopelvic disproportion 2) Unfavorable fetal positions or presentations 3) Obstetric emergencies that favor surgery 4) Fetal distress where delivery is not imminent 5) Partial/complete placenta previa 6) Prematurity
71
Arrest of Labor: What is a crucial question to ask before you Dx?
Is she having an arrest of labor or has she never been IN labor?
72
Prior to diagnosing an arrest of labor, uterine contraction pattern should exceed ______ Montevideo units >2 hrs without _________ change
200; cervical
73
What is the most common cause of shoulder dystocia?
Vacuum/ forceps use
74
C-sections are nearly always done with a __________ uterine incision to minimize future risk of uterine rupture
low transverse
75
What is the anesthesia of choice for c-sections?
Epidural
76
What are the criteria for VBAC?
1) Only one previous low-transverse cesarean delivery 2) Presence of a clinically adequate pelvis 3) No other uterine scars or previous rupture 4) Physician immediately available 5) Continuous electronic fetal heart rate monitoring 6) Availability of anesthesia and personnel for emergency cesarean delivery. 7) Availability of a 24-hour blood bank and capability for massive transfusion
76
76
T/F: VBAC has an increased neonatal morbidity and mortality
True