Flashcards in Week 3 part 2 Deck (100):
1
What kind of nerves are involved in pelvic floor muscle contraction e.g. during sneezing?
Somatic motor
2
Uterine cramping/menstruation and contraction involve what types of nerve?
Sympathetic/parasympathetic
3
What carries pain from pelvic part of vagina and from perineum?
Pelvic vagina - visceral afferents
Perineal vagina - somatic sensory
4
Pain runs alongside what fibres in inferior aspect of pelvic organs (not touching perititneum) and in what fibres when touching the peritoneum?
Inferior - parasympathetic fibres
Superior - sympathetic fibres
5
Name two structures crossing from pelvis to perineum?
Urethra
Vagina
6
What fibres deal with pain sensation above levator ani (pelvis)
Patasympathetic
7
What fibres deal with pain sensation below levator ani (perineum)?
Pudendal nerve
S2-4
8
Visceral afferents for pain travel back to T11-L2 from pelvic organs which touch the peritoneum. Give three of these structures? (sympathetic)
Uterine tubes
uTERUS
Ovaries
9
In the cervix and superior vagina where do pain sensation visceral afferents travel back to?
S2-S4
10
In relation to spinal and epidural anaesthetic: at what level does s[inal cord become cauda equina?
L2 vertebra
11
When does subarachnoid space end?
Level of S2
12
In relation to spinal and epidural anaesthetic: what region is anaesthetic injected into?
L3-L4 region (L4 spinous process at most superior point on iliac crest)
13
Where does needle pass through for spinal anaesthetic?
supraspinous ligament
interspinous ligament
ligamentum flavum
epidural space (fat and veins)
dura mater
arachnoid mater
finally reaches subarachnoid space (contains CSF)
14
What does needle pass through for epidural?
supraspinous ligament
interspinous ligament
ligamentum flavum
epidural space (fat and veins)
15
What do all spinal nerves and their named nerves contain?
Sympathetic fibres
16
How do you know if spinal anaesthetic is working?
Blockade of sympahtetic tone to all arterioles leading to vasodilation. Skin of lower limbs looks flushed, warm and reduced sweating
HYPOTENSION
17
The pudendal nerve exits pelvis via ... It passes posterior to ... ligament. It reenters via ... It travels in pudendal canal (passageway within ... with ... artery and vein), also nerve to obturator internus
Greater sciatic foramen
Sacrospinous ligament
Lesses sciatic foramen
Obturator fascia
Internal pudendal artery
18
What landmark is used for administration of pudendal nerve block?
Ischial spines
19
During labour damage to what nerve and muscle could occur?
Pudendal nerve stretched
Excternal anal spincter muscle torn when weakened
Faecal incontinence
20
In an episiotomy - where is the mediolateral incision made into?
Ischioanal fossa (fat filled)
21
What triggers male/female differentiation?
Germ cells
22
What is the origin of male duct system?
Mesonephric
23
What is origin of female duct system?
Paramesonephric
24
What controls descent of the testis?
Gubernaculum
25
What do the paramesonephric ducts fuse to create?
Broad ligament of the uterus
26
Name three methods of doing a DNA or chromosome test on baby in utero?
Placenta - chorionic villus biopsy (good tissue)
Skin/urine cells - amniocentesis (poor tiossue)
Blood - fetal blood sampling (good tissue)
27
When can chorionic villus biopsy and amniocentesis be performed?
CVS - 12 weeks
Amniocentesis - 15 weeks
28
When can fetal blood samplimg be done?
18+ weeks
29
fetal blood sampling miscarriage risk?
2%
30
What fetal DNA method of testing has a risk of confined placental mosaicism?
CVS
31
When can fetal DNA from maternal blood test be done?
8+ weeks (stable tissue)
32
A method to analyse whole genome?
Array CGH
33
A method to analyse targeted genome?
FISH
34
If ther eis high risk of chromosomal trisomyt on screening, fetal abnormality on scanning, and balanced chromosomal rearrangement in parent what should be done?
Array CGH or chromosome analysis
35
Name a method of non-invasibe prenatal testing (currently - sex determination and trisomy testing)?
Free fetal DNA in maternal circulation
36
Trisomy 13
Patau syndrome
37
45 X
Neck webbing
Oedema
Turner syndrome
38
Bilateral cleft lip
Postaxial polydactyly
Patau syndrome trisomy 13
39
What is a robertsonian translocation?
Two acrocentric chromosomes stick end to end
40
Robertsian translocation trisomy 14
Misscarriage
41
What are the two broad catagoeries for the small baby?
1. Pre term delivery
2. Small for gestational age (intra uterine growth restriction/constitutionally small)
42
Definition of preterm birht?
Delivery between 24 and 36.6 weeks
43
What are survival rates for pre-term borht at 24 weeks and 32 weeks?
24 - 20/30%
32 - greater than 95%
44
Give two causes of over distension that can lead to pre-term birht?
Multipel pregnanyc
Polyhydramnios
45
Give a vascular cause of pre-term birht?
Placental abruption
46
If you've had a pre term labour once before what is riks and what is risk if twice before?
Once - 20%
Twice - 40%
multiple pregnancies - 50% risk
47
What is a pregnant women who has uterine anomalies, is a teenager, smokes, does cocaine and is skinny have an increased risk of?
Pre term birth
48
Infant with a birthweight that is less than 10th centile for gestation corrected for maternal height, weight, fetal sex and birth order.
Small for Gestational Age
49
Give three fetal factors for poor growth?
1. Infection e.g. rubella, CMV, toxoplasma
2. Congenital anomalies e.g. absent kidneys
3. Chromosomal abnormalities e.g. Downs
50
What are placental factors causing poor growth often secondary to?
Hypertension
51
describe symmetrical IUGR?
Small head
Small abdomen
52
describe asymmetrical IUGR
Normal head
Small abdomen
53
What four things are done to assess fetal wellbeing?
1. Assessment of growth
2. Cardiotocography
3. Biophysical assessment
4. Ultrasound (umbilical arterial dioppler)
54
Are accelerations on CTG good or bad?
Good - indicates good reflex reactivity of the fetal circulation
55
Normal doppler ultrasound in pregnancy will show what?
Continuous high forward flow at the end of diastole
56
Is IUGR a public health concern?
Yes
57
What can monochorionic twin pregnancy, fetal anomaly, maternal diabetes, hydrops fetalis all cause which leads to large for dates pregnancy?
Polyhydramnios
58
Discomfort
Labour
Membrane Rupture
Cord prolapse
Polyhydramnios
Diagnose with ultrasound
59
Are Monochorionic / monozygous twins at higher risk of pregnancy complications ?
Yes
60
Lamda sign on US?
Diachorionic twins
61
Exaggerated pregnancy symptoms e.g. excessive sickness
High AFP
Large for dates uterus
Multiple pregnancy
62
Give three consequences of maternal diabetes?
1. Overgrowth of insulin sensitive tissues and macrosomia
2. hYPOXIC STATE in utero
3. Fetal metabolic reprogramming leading to long term diabetes and obesity risk
63
What is diagnosis of Gestation diabetes based on?
GTT at 28 weeks
Fasting greater than 5.1
2 hours greater than 8.5
64
In mother with diabetes in pregnancy what scan is offered at 18 weeks?
Fetal anomaly
65
What is the transformation zone of cervix?
Squamo-columnar junctioj between ectocervical squamous and endocervical columnar epithelia
66
Exposure of delicate endocervical epithelium to acid environment of vagina leads to physiological squamous metaplasia.
Cervical erosion or ectropion
67
What occurs sometimes when when stratified squamous epithelium of the ectocervix (toward the vagina) grows over the simple columnar epithelium of the endocervix (toward the uterus)?
Nabothian follicles
68
sub epithelial reactive lymphoid follicles present in cervix.
Follicular cervicitis
69
Is a cervical polyp pre malignant?
No
70
Give the two major types of cervical cancer?
Squamous carcinoma
Adenocarcinoma
71
What do HPV 16 and 18 cause?
Cervical cancer
72
What triples the risk of cervical cancer?
Smoking
73
Vulnerability of SC junction in early reproductive age can increase risk for cervical cancer - name three?
1. Age at first intercourse
2. Long term oral contraceptive use
3. Non-use of barrier contraception
74
What types of HPV cause genital warts?
6 and 11
75
What causes condyloma acuminatum?
Thickened papillomatous squaous epithelium with cytoplasmic vacuolation (koilocytosis) - HPV
76
wHAT DOES HIGH RISK hpv TYPES 16 and 18 lead to?
Cervical Intraepithelial Neoplasia
77
What is detected in cervical smears to indicate cervical intraepithelial neoplasia?
Infected epithelium remains flat, but shows koilocytosis
78
What is the time line for HPV infection causing high grade CIN
6 months - 3 years
79
What is the time line for high grade CIN causing invasive cance?
5-20 years
80
What is the preinvasive stage of cervical cancer?
Cervical Intraepithelial Neoplasia
81
Where does CIN occur?
At transformation zone
82
What three things are assessed in histology of CIN?
1. Delay in maturation/differentiation (immature basal cells occupy)
2. Nuclear abnormalities (hyperchromasia, increased NC ration, pleomorphism)
3. Excess mitotic activity (above basal layers, abnormal mitotic forms)
83
What stage of CIN is: basal 1/3 of epithelium occupied by abnormal cells, raised mitotic figures in lower 1/3, surface cells quite mature but nuclei slightly abnormal?
CIN I
84
What stage of CIN is: abnormal cells extend to middle 1/3, mitoses in middle 1/3, abnormal mitotic figures?
CIN II
85
What stage of CIN is: Abnormal cells occupy full thickness of epithelium, mitoses, often abnormal in upper 1/3?
CIN III
86
What are 75-95% of malignant cervica tumours? and the 2nd commonest female cancer worldside?
Invasive Squamous Carcinoma
87
What does invasive squamous carcinoma develop from ?
Pre-existing CIN, therefore most cases preventable by screening
88
Stage IB ISC?
Confined to cervix
89
Name some symptoms of invasive carcinoma of cervix?
1. Abnormal bleeding
2. Pelvic pain
3. Haematuria/UTI
4. Ureteric obstructin
90
Give some types of abnormal bleeding in Invasive carfcinoma of cervix?
Post coital
Post menopausal
Brownish or blood stained vaginal discharve
Contact bleeding - friable epithelium
91
Where does Cervical Glandular Intraepithelial Neoplasia (CGIN) originate from?
Endocervical epithelium
92
What is the preinvasive phase of endocervical adenocarcinoma?
Cervical Glandular Intraepithelial Neoplasia (CGIN)
93
5-25% of cervical cancers?
Endocervical adenocarcinoma - worse prognosis than squamopuse carcinoma
94
Higher S.E. Class
Later onset of sexual activity
Smoking
HPV again incriminated, particularly HPV18.
Adenocarcinoma
95
What disease is associated with vulvar intraepithelial neoplasia?
Pagets disease
96
Young women: often multifocal, recurrent or persistent causing treatment problems.
Vulvar Intraepithelial neoplasia
97
Older women: greater risk of progression to invasive squamous carcinoma.
Vulvar intraepithelial neoplasia
98
Who usually gets Vulvar Invasive Squamous Carcinoma
Elderly women, ulcer or exophytic mass
99
what are verrucous an extremely well differentiated type of?
Vulvar Invasive Squamous Carcinoma
100