11.13 Landing Gear Flashcards by John Watts

What are the three Main Landing Gear (MLG) arrangements in use?

A) Tail wheel, Tricycle-type, Tandem
B) Single wheel, Dual wheel, Quad wheel
C) Forward wheel, Rear wheel, Side wheel

A) Tail wheel, Tricycle-type, Tandem

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Where is the main gear located in a tail wheel configuration?
A. Forward of the aircraft’s Centre of Gravity (CG)
B. Directly under the aircraft’s Centre of Gravity (CG)
C. Behind the aircraft’s Centre of Gravity (CG)

A. Forward of the aircraft’s Centre of Gravity (CG)

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How is steering achieved in a tail wheel configuration?
A. Differential braking or rudder pedals
B. Using only the throttle
C. By manually adjusting the tail wheel

A. Differential braking or rudder pedals

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What is the most commonly used landing gear arrangement?
A. Tail wheel
B. Tandem
C. Tricycle-type

C. Tricycle-type

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Where is the aircraft CG positioned in a tricycle-type landing gear?
A. Behind the main wheels
B. Directly above the main wheels
C. Ahead of the main wheels

C. Ahead of the main wheels

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What advantage does a tricycle-type landing gear provide during braking?
A. It prevents nosing over when brakes are applied forcefully
B. It reduces forward drag during taxiing
C. It improves visibility when the aircraft is stationary

A. It prevents nosing over when brakes are applied forcefully

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What is a “bogie” in the context of tricycle-type landing gear?
A. A single nose wheel configuration
B. Multiple wheels on the main gear
C. Additional gear supporting the tail

B. Multiple wheels on the main gear

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Why does the tricycle-type landing gear provide stability during take-off and landing?
A. The CG is behind the main gear, stabilizing the aircraft
B. The CG is in front of the main gear, preventing ground looping
C. The CG is directly above the nose gear

B. The CG is in front of the main gear, preventing ground looping

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Why is retractable landing gear preferred on higher-speed aircraft?
A. To reduce in-flight drag
B. To increase landing stability
C. To simplify maintenance

A. To reduce in-flight drag

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Which of the following lists only components of a typical Main Landing Gear (MLG) assembly?
A. Shock strut, side strut, drag brace, downlock assembly, uplock assembly, trunnion, actuator, torsion link, wheel and tyre assemblies
B. Wing flap, rudder, elevator, aileron, engine mount
C. Fuel tank, cockpit instruments, avionics, propeller

A. Shock strut, side strut, drag brace, downlock assembly, uplock assembly, trunnion, actuator, torsion link, wheel and tyre assemblies

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What is the function of the trunnion link in the Main Landing Gear (MLG) assembly?
A. Connects the top of the leg to the wing and allows the leg to rotate in and out of the landing gear bay
B. Connects the wheel to the brake system
C. Supports the tail wheel

A. Connects the top of the leg to the wing and allows the leg to rotate in and out of the landing gear bay

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What does the shock strut in the Main Landing Gear (MLG) contain?
A. Hydraulic oil and nitrogen
B. Air and fuel
C. Electrical wiring

A. Hydraulic oil and nitrogen

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What do the upper and lower torsion links in the shock strut do?
A. Connect the inner and outer cylinders, allow extension, limit maximum extension, and keep wheel alignment
B. Control the aircraft’s speed
C. Operate the landing lights

A. Connect the inner and outer cylinders, allow extension, limit maximum extension, and keep wheel alignment

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What does the gear down-lock mechanism do?
A. Prevents the two parts of the landing gear from folding together when extended
B. Controls the wheel speed
C. Operates the landing lights

A. Prevents the two parts of the landing gear from folding together when extended

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What prevents inadvertent retraction of the landing gear when the aircraft is on the ground?
A. Ground lock pin fitted into a receptacle on the downlock strut
B. Manual lock operated by the pilot
C. Automatic brake system

A. Ground lock pin fitted into a receptacle on the downlock strut

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What is the purpose of the shimmy damper in the Main Landing Gear assembly?
A. To counteract wheel shimmy and provide stability
B. To inflate the tires automatically
C. To assist in braking during landing

A. To counteract wheel shimmy and provide stability

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Why is a shortening mechanism used on some aircraft landing gears?
A. To shorten the gear during retraction because of limited space in the gear bay
B. To lengthen the landing gear during take-off
C. To inflate the tires automatically

A. To shorten the gear during retraction because of limited space in the gear bay

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How many wheels does the Nose Landing Gear (NLG) on jet aircraft typically have?
A. Two wheels
B. One wheel
C. Four wheels

A. Two wheels

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Where does the nose gear retract on a jet aircraft?
A. Forward into the fuselage
B. Backwards into the wing
C. Sideways into the tail

A. Forward into the fuselage

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What does the centring cam do in the nose landing gear assembly?
A. Aligns the nose wheels in preparation for retraction
B. Inflates the tires
C. Controls the nose wheel brakes

A. Aligns the nose wheels in preparation for retraction

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What is a wheel shimmy and what causes it?
A. Rapid oscillation of the wheel caused by uneven tire pressure, wear, or runway surface
B. A brake failure due to overheating
C. A slow rotation of the wheel due to low speed

A. Rapid oscillation of the wheel caused by uneven tire pressure, wear, or runway surface

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Does the Nose Landing Gear (NLG) on jet aircraft have brakes?
A. No, it has no brakes
B. Yes, it has brakes on both wheels
C. Yes, it has brakes on one wheel only

A. No, it has no brakes

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What part of the nose gear helps to counteract wheel shimmy?
A. Torque link damper (shimmy damper)
B. Brake caliper
C. Hydraulic actuator

A. Torque link damper (shimmy damper)

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What are the two main classes of shock absorbers based on the type of spring used?
A. Solid (steel or rubber) and oleo-pneumatic (fluid with gas or oil)
B. Hydraulic and electric
C. Mechanical and magnetic

A. Solid (steel or rubber) and oleo-pneumatic (fluid with gas or oil)

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What are the two telescopic cylinders in a shock strut? A. Outer cylinder and inner cylinder B. Left cylinder and right cylinder C. Upper cylinder and lower cylinder

A. Outer cylinder and inner cylinder

How are the oil and gas separated in an oleo-pneumatic strut with a separator? A. By a piston housed inside the inner cylinder creating separate chambers B. By a rubber diaphragm C. They are not separated

A. By a piston housed inside the inner cylinder creating separate chambers

What component acts as a one-way restrictor in an Oleo-pneumatic Strut with Separator strut? A. Flutter plate (flutter valve) B. Shock absorber C. Torsion link

A. Flutter plate (flutter valve)

What action is taken if the measured dimension ‘X’ does not match the manual when servicing a landing gear strut? A. Nitrogen is added or released from the strut B. The tire is replaced C. The shock strut is discarded

A. Nitrogen is added or released from the strut

What type of system is most commonly used for landing gear retraction? A. Hydraulic system B. Pneumatic system C. Electrical system

A. Hydraulic system

What secures the landing gear in retracted or extended positions? A. Positive mechanical locks B. Magnets C. Springs

A. Positive mechanical locks

What prevents accidental retraction of the landing gear on the ground? A. A latch on the flight deck control lever B. A pressure sensor on the tires C. A manual lock in the wheel well

A. A latch on the flight deck control lever

What are the usual three positions on a landing gear control lever? A. Up, Off, Down B. Start, Stop, Pause C. Open, Close, Hold

A. Up, Off, Down

What is the function of the sequence valves during main gear retraction? A) They delay fluid flow to the door actuators until the gear is fully stowed B) They immediately open the doors before the gear starts moving C) They prevent hydraulic fluid from reaching the gear actuators

A) They delay fluid flow to the door actuators until the gear is fully stowed

Why is hydraulic pressure applied to the wheel brakes during gear retraction? A) To prevent the wheels from rotating and avoid gyroscopic forces on the gear B) To assist in opening the gear doors C) To speed up the retraction of the landing gear

A) To prevent the wheels from rotating and avoid gyroscopic forces on the gear

What mechanically locks the landing gear in the retracted position? A) The drag strut B) The up-lock roller engaging with a spring-loaded up-lock hook C) The shock strut

B) The up-lock roller engaging with a spring-loaded up-lock hook

What is the purpose of moving the landing gear selector lever to the 'off' position after the gear is confirmed up and locked? A) To increase hydraulic pressure B) To depressurise the system during cruise and release the brakes C) To lock the doors

B) To depressurise the system during cruise and release the brakes

How do sequence valves A and B affect the main gear extension process? A) They open immediately to allow fluid to extend the gear B) They block fluid from unlocking the main gear up-locks until the doors are fully open C) They prevent fluid from flowing to the nose gear actuator

B) They block fluid from unlocking the main gear up-locks until the doors are fully open

What is the primary method used to lower the landing gear in the event of a hydraulic or main system failure? A) Hydraulic pressure from the main system B) Mechanical release of the up-locks allowing the gear to freefall C) Electrical retraction of the gear

B) Mechanical release of the up-locks allowing the gear to freefall

Before operating the emergency extension handle, what must be done with the landing gear selector? A) Moved to the ‘Up’ position B) Placed in the ‘Off’ position to depressurise the system C) Left in the ‘Down’ position

B) Placed in the ‘Off’ position to depressurise the system

What happens to the landing gear doors during emergency extension if they are mechanically linked to the gear? A) The doors retract fully before the gear extends B) The doors stay closed during the gear extension C) The doors are pushed out of the way by the gear and remain open for landing

C) The doors are pushed out of the way by the gear and remain open for landing

What does a GREEN light indicate on the flight deck in relation to landing gear? A) Gear is UP and LOCKED B) Gear is DOWN and LOCKED C) Gear is UNLOCKED or travelling

B) Gear is DOWN and LOCKED

What does a RED light indicate on the flight deck in relation to landing gear? A) Gear is UP and LOCKED B) Gear is DOWN and LOCKED C) Gear is UNLOCKED or travelling

C) Gear is UNLOCKED or travelling

What does NO light indicate on the flight deck in relation to landing gear? A) Gear is UP and LOCKED B) Gear is DOWN and LOCKED C) Gear is UNLOCKED or travelling

A) Gear is UP and LOCKED

What are microswitches used for? A) Controlling hydraulic pressure. B) Opening and closing an electrical circuit quickly. C) Acting as a mechanical lock for moving components.

B) Opening and closing an electrical circuit quickly.

When is it appropriate to use a microswitch? A) When no physical contact with an object is allowed. B) When physical contact with an object is permissible. C) Only in pneumatic systems.

B) When physical contact with an object is permissible.

What are the two types of proximity switches commonly used on aircraft? A) Mechanical Switch and Hydraulic Switch. B) Reed Switch and Electronic Switch. C) Microswitch and Target Switch.

B) Reed Switch and Electronic Switch.

What does a reed switch use to close its contacts? A) A mechanical lever. B) A magnetic flux from a permanent magnet. C) Hydraulic pressure.

B) A magnetic flux from a permanent magnet.

What protects the contacts inside a reed switch from corrosion? A) Plastic casing. B) A glass tube filled with gas. C) Oil coating.

B) A glass tube filled with gas.

How does an electronic proximity switch detect the position of a target? A) By physical contact with the target. B) By changes in impedance of a sensing coil caused by a non-magnetic ferrous target. C) By measuring hydraulic pressure changes

B) By changes in impedance of a sensing coil caused by a non-magnetic ferrous target.

What types of warnings does the landing gear warning system provide? A) Only visual warnings. B) Only auditory warnings. C) Both visual and auditory warnings.

C) Both visual and auditory warnings.

What materials are commonly used for modern aircraft wheels due to their strength and lightweight properties? A) Steel and carbon fiber B) Aluminium alloy and magnesium alloy C) Titanium and plastic

B) Aluminium alloy and magnesium alloy

What is the primary function of fusible (thermal relief) plugs on aircraft wheels? A) To balance the wheel dynamically B) To release tyre pressure when the wheel temperature exceeds a certain level C) To lubricate the wheel bearings

B) To release tyre pressure when the wheel temperature exceeds a certain level

What type of bearings do all aircraft wheels use to support radial and thrust loads? A) Ball bearings B) Needle bearings C) Tapered roller bearings

C) Tapered roller bearings

Why are heat shields fitted to aircraft wheels? A) To prevent moisture ingress B) To prevent brake heat from damaging wheels and tyres during normal braking C) To improve wheel aerodynamics

B) To prevent brake heat from damaging wheels and tyres during normal braking

Why are fusible (thermal relief) plugs not installed on the nose wheels of aircraft? A) Because nose wheels use a different type of plug B) Because nose wheels do not have brake units C) Because nose wheels experience high temperatures

B) Because nose wheels do not have brake units

How are the brakes on the right main wheel(s) controlled? A) By pushing the top of the left rudder pedal B) By pushing the top of the right rudder pedal C) By a hand lever next to the pilot’s seat

B) By pushing the top of the right rudder pedal

Why should overheated or damaged wheel assemblies never be approached from the sides? A) The wheels may suddenly rotate, causing injury B) The brake heat can cause tyre bursts or fires, making side approach dangerous C) The wheels will cool faster if approached from the front

B) The brake heat can cause tyre bursts or fires, making side approach dangerous

What type of extinguisher should be used to put out a brake fire caused by excessive braking? A) Water extinguisher B) Foam extinguisher C) Dry powder extinguisher

C) Dry powder extinguisher

What components make up the heat pack in multiple-disc brakes? A) Rotors, stators, torque tube, pressure plate, pressure ring/torque plate, and piston assembly housing B) Brake pads, calipers, hydraulic lines, and brake fluid C) Bearings, seals, shafts, and springs D) Electrical sensors and control units

A) Rotors, stators, torque tube, pressure plate, pressure ring/torque plate, and piston assembly housing

What materials are rotors and stators in aircraft heat packs typically made from? A) Carbon or steel B) Aluminum or titanium C) Rubber or plastic

A) Carbon or steel

What advantage do carbon heat packs have over steel heat packs? A) They are 40% lighter and withstand 50% higher temperatures B) They are cheaper to produce C) They require no maintenance

A) They are 40% lighter and withstand 50% higher temperatures

How does the brake wear indicator pin signal that the brake pack is fully worn? A) When the pin aligns or is flush with the bracket B) When the pin changes color C) When the pin emits a sound

A) When the pin aligns or is flush with the bracket

What are the three basic types of brake actuating systems used in aircraft? A) Independent system, booster system, power brake system B) Hydraulic only, electric only, pneumatic only C) Manual system, automatic system, semi-automatic system

A) Independent system, booster system, power brake system

What does an anti-skid system protect against on large aircraft? A) Overheating of brakes B) Tyre blowout and loss of control from wheel skidding C) Excessive hydraulic pressure

B) Tyre blowout and loss of control from wheel skidding

How does the anti-skid system detect a skid? A) By measuring the difference between aircraft ground speed and wheel speed B) By monitoring brake temperature C) By sensing hydraulic fluid pressure

A) By measuring the difference between aircraft ground speed and wheel speed

When does the anti-skid braking system start applying full braking pressure? A) As soon as the pilot presses the brake pedal B) Only when the wheel speed and ground speed are the same C) When the aircraft is in the air

B) Only when the wheel speed and ground speed are the same

Which components are typically part of an electrohydraulic anti-skid system? A) Wheel speed sensors, anti-skid control valves, and a control unit B) Flywheels, mechanical valves, and a brake pedal sensor C) Electric motors, hydraulic pumps, and a battery

A) Wheel speed sensors, anti-skid control valves, and a control unit

How is the auto-brake system activated after touchdown? A) Automatically when weight is on the wheels and throttles are idle or thrust reversers activated B) Manually by pressing the brake pedals immediately C) By deploying the landing gear

A) Automatically when weight is on the wheels and throttles are idle or thrust reversers activated

What is the auto-brake system designed to do? A) Stop the aircraft at a selected deceleration without pilot braking input B) Control the aircraft’s speed during taxi only C) Automatically deploy landing gear after touchdown

A) Stop the aircraft at a selected deceleration without pilot braking input

Which type of aircraft tyre is common on light aircraft with landing speeds of 160 mph or less? A) Type I B) Type III C) Type VIII

B) Type III

What is the main characteristic of Type VII tyres? A) Low-pressure, low-speed capability. B) High-pressure, high-load capability for jet aircraft. C) Smooth profile design for older aircraft.

B) High-pressure, high-load capability for jet aircraft.

What is the purpose of the grooves in the rib tread of an aircraft tyre? A) To provide flexibility during deflection. B) To minimise hydroplaning and improve directional stability. C) To anchor the carcass to the wheel

B) To minimise hydroplaning and improve directional stability.

How are Type VIII tyres identified? A) By the overall diameter only. B) By three numbers indicating diameter, width, and rim size. C) By the section width and speed rating.

B) By three numbers indicating diameter, width, and rim size.

Which type of aircraft tyre is common on light aircraft with landing speeds of 160 mph or less? A) Type I B) Type III C) Type VIII

B) Type III

Why are vent holes (Awl Marks) in aircraft tyres marked with a green or white dot of paint? A) To indicate the maximum inflation pressure. B) To highlight the location of the vent holes for maintenance purposes. C) To ensure alignment during tyre installation

B) To highlight the location of the vent holes for maintenance purposes.

Why do aircraft tyres have vent holes in the sidewall? A) To allow air trapped between the tube and tyre to escape. B) To reduce the overall weight of the tyre. C) To improve traction on wet runways.

A) To allow air trapped between the tube and tyre to escape.

What does the red balance mark on the lower sidewall of an aircraft tyre indicate? A) The point where the tyre has maximum wear. B) The light point of the tyre’s balance. C) The position of the inflation valve.

B) The light point of the tyre’s balance.

Why should the red balance mark on the tyre be aligned with the heavy spot on the wheel? A) To ensure proper inflation of the tyre. B) To reduce vibration and improve tread wear. C) To identify the tyre manufacturer.

B) To reduce vibration and improve tread wear.

What is the function of a chine tyre used on the nose gear of some aircraft? A) To increase tyre durability. B) To deflect runway water away from the engine intake(s). C) To reduce rolling resistance.

B) To deflect runway water away from the engine intake(s).

When should a ribbed tyre be replaced based on wear grooves? A) When the grooves are less than 1.6 mm deep on 50% of the tread circumference. B) When the grooves are less than 2 mm deep on more than 25% of the tread circumference. C) When the grooves are completely worn out on the entire tread.

B) When the grooves are less than 2 mm deep on more than 25% of the tread circumference.

How many times can most aircraft tyres typically be re-treaded before being scrapped? A) About 5 times B) About 10 times C) About 15 times

B) About 10 times

When should a tyre with dry braking flats be replaced? A) Only if the tyre is punctured. B) If normal tyre wear limits have been exceeded or the flat spot causes unacceptable vibration or gear shimmy. C) After every flight cycle

B) If normal tyre wear limits have been exceeded or the flat spot causes unacceptable vibration or gear shimmy.

What can contamination of aircraft tyres with hydraulic fluid, fuel, oil, or grease cause? A) Improved tyre traction. B) Deterioration of the tyre. C) Increased tyre pressure.

B) Deterioration of the tyre.

When should a tyre be removed after contamination? A) Only if the tyre looks dirty. B) If swelling, softening, delamination, or cracking of the rubber is observed. C) After 10 flight cycles regardless of condition

B) If swelling, softening, delamination, or cracking of the rubber is observed.

Why must tyres be rotated to new support positions periodically during storage? A) To prevent flat spots forming on the tyres. B) To clean the tyres thoroughly. C) To check the tyre pressure.

A) To prevent flat spots forming on the tyres.

What type of controls do large aircraft typically use for nose wheel steering? A) Rudder pedals only. B) Small wheel, tiller, or joystick in the flight deck. C) Voice-activated controls.

B) Small wheel, tiller, or joystick in the flight deck.

What is the main purpose of shimmy dampers on a nose wheel? A) To prevent the nose wheel from turning. B) To control rapid oscillations or vibrations (shimmy) of the nose gear. C) To increase the speed of steering response.

B) To control rapid oscillations or vibrations (shimmy) of the nose gear.

What is the purpose of centring cams in aircraft nose wheel assemblies? A) To lock the nose wheel in a turned position during flight. B) To align the nose gear before retraction into the wheel well. C) To prevent the nose wheel from rotating during taxiing.

B) To align the nose gear before retraction into the wheel well.

Where are the air/ground (Weight On Wheels) switches typically located? A) On the wings. B) On the main and nose gear shock struts. C) Inside the cockpit.

B) On the main and nose gear shock struts.

11.13 Landing Gear Flashcards

(89 cards)