11.4 B Air Conditioning Flashcards

(58 cards)

1
Q

What does ‘adiabatic’ mean in terms of heat transfer?

A) Temperature change without adding or removing heat
B) Heat transfer through physical contact
C) Heat transfer by radiation

A

A) Temperature change without adding or removing heat

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2
Q

How is heat transferred through direct physical contact?

A) Convection
B) Radiation
C) Conduction

A

C) Conduction

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3
Q

What is the term for heat transfer through bulk movement of a fluid?

A) Convection
B) Conduction
C) Radiation

A

A) Convection

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4
Q

Which heat transfer method does not require a medium?

A) Conduction
B) Convection
C) Radiation

A

C) Radiation

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5
Q

What is latent heat?

A) Heat that changes the state of a substance without a temperature change
B) Heat that causes a temperature change that can be sensed
C) Heat added to a gas after complete evaporation

A

A) Heat that changes the state of a substance without a temperature change

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6
Q

What is sensible heat?

A) Heat causing a temperature change that can be felt or measured
B) Heat causing a change of state without a temperature change
C) Heat transferred without a medium

A

A) Heat causing a temperature change that can be felt or measured

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7
Q

What is superheat?

A) Heat transferred by radiation
B) Heat energy added to a gas after complete evaporation
C) Heat that changes the state of a substance

A

B) Heat energy added to a gas after complete evaporation

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8
Q

What does humidity measure?

A) The heat energy in the air
B) The amount of water vapour in a volume of air
C) The temperature of the air

A

B) The amount of water vapour in a volume of air

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9
Q

Why does air temperature drop as it expands in the turbine?

A) Because the turbine adds heat to the air
B) Because energy is removed from the air during expansion
C) Because the compressor stops working

A

B) Because energy is removed from the air during expansion

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10
Q

What happens to air when it is compressed in the compressor?

A) It cools down
B) It gains energy
C) It loses energy

A

B) It gains energy

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11
Q

What happens to air when it is expanded in the turbine?

A) It heats up
B) It loses energy
C) It gains energy

A

B) It loses energy

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12
Q

What does the ACS system prevent from happening to the aircraft windows?

A) Scratching
B) Mist formation
C) Cracking

A

B) Mist formation

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13
Q

Which of the following are primary functions of the aircraft’s Air Conditioning System (ACS)?

A) Supply ventilation air, heat air, cool air, and pressurise the cabin
B) Increase engine efficiency and reduce fuel consumption
C) Supply oxygen for passengers and flight crew

A

A) Supply ventilation air, heat air, cool air, and pressurise the cabin

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14
Q

What is the primary purpose of the Air Cycle Air Conditioning System?
A) To power the aircraft’s engines during emergencies
B) To condition and pressurize bleed air for passenger comfort
C) To reduce the weight of the aircraft by removing auxiliary components

A

B) To condition and pressurize bleed air for passenger comfort

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15
Q

What happens when the pack flow selector is set to “HI” flow?
A) Airflow to the cabin is reduced to 80%
B) The cabin receives more than 100% of the normal airflow
C) Air conditioning is turned off for efficiency

A

B) The cabin receives more than 100% of the normal airflow

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16
Q

What percentage of air supply is used when the aircraft is not fully loaded and the pack flow selector is set to “Low Flow”?
A) 120% airflow
B) 80% airflow
C) 100% airflow

A

B) 80% airflow

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17
Q

What percentage of air supply is used when the pack flow selector is in the “Normal” position?
A) 50% airflow
B) 100% airflow
C) 200% airflow

A

B) 100% airflow

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18
Q

When the pack flow selector is in the “HI” position, how much airflow does the cabin receive?
A) 120% airflow
B) 80% airflow
C) 100% airflow

A

A) 120% airflow

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19
Q

What components make up the Air Cycle Machine (ACM)?
A) Centrifugal compressor and expansion turbine
B) Centrifugal compressor and heat exchangers
C) Expansion turbine and oil seals

A

A) Centrifugal compressor and expansion turbine

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20
Q

What is a primary advantage of an air-lubricated Air Cycle Machine?
A) It reduces noise during operation
B) It eliminates oil contamination of the air conditioning system
C) It requires less power to drive the turbine

A

B) It eliminates oil contamination of the air conditioning system

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21
Q

What are the two types of Air Cycle Machines (ACMs)?
A) Turbocharged and Supercharged ACMs
B) Oil Lubricated and Air Lubricated ACMs
C) Electric and Hydraulic ACMs

A

B) Oil Lubricated and Air Lubricated ACMs

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22
Q

Why is a water separator used in an air conditioning system?

A) To prevent water droplets from freezing in lines and valves.
B) To increase the cabin air pressure.
C) To stop the air cycle machine from operating.

A

A) To prevent water droplets from freezing in lines and valves.

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23
Q

What happens to the air temperature as it passes through the heat exchangers in the condenser/reheater?

A) It increases.
B) It decreases.
C) It stays the same.

A

B) It decreases.

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24
Q

What is the fail-safe position for bypass valves in the system?

A) Fully open.
B) Fully closed.
C) Partially open.

A

B) Fully closed.

25
Why is dry air at high altitudes beneficial for the aircraft? A) It reduces the chance of freezing. B) It increases the aircraft’s speed. C) It improves the air cycle machine efficiency.
A) It reduces the chance of freezing.
26
What is the purpose of trim air valves in an air conditioning system? A. To control cabin air pressure. B. To mix conditioned air for accurate temperature control. C. To increase airflow speed in the cabin.
B. To mix conditioned air for accurate temperature control.
27
Where is the ram air inlet typically located on an aircraft? A. On the top of the fuselage. B. On the underside or wing to body fairing. C. In the tail section.
B. On the underside or wing to body fairing.
28
What happens when the pressure on a liquid is increased in terms of its boiling point? A. Its boiling point decreases. B. Its boiling point remains the same. C. Its boiling point increases.
C. Its boiling point increases.
29
What is the boiling point of water affected by? A. The color of the substance. B. The pressure applied to the liquid. C. The speed of the air around it.
B. The pressure applied to the liquid.
30
What are the five main components of a Vapour Cycle Machine? A. Compressor, Condenser, Expansion Valve, Evaporator, Refrigerant. B. Air Filter, Compressor, Heat Exchanger, Evaporator, Water Separator. C. Bleed Air, Compressor, Heat Exchanger, Expansion Valve, Evaporator.
A. Compressor, Condenser, Expansion Valve, Evaporator, Refrigerant.
31
What happens in Step 1: Compression of the refrigeration process? A. The refrigerant is cooled and condensed. B. The refrigerant is compressed, increasing its pressure and temperature. C. The refrigerant absorbs heat from the cabin air.
B. The refrigerant is compressed, increasing its pressure and temperature.
32
In Step 2: Condensation, what happens to the refrigerant? A. It evaporates and absorbs heat. B. It releases heat and changes from a gas to a high-pressure liquid. C. It cools and condenses into solid form.
B. It releases heat and changes from a gas to a high-pressure liquid.
33
What is the role of the receiver-dryer in the refrigeration cycle? A. To store refrigerant and replace any lost from the system. B. To compress the refrigerant into a high-pressure gas. C. To release heat to the surrounding environment.
A. To store refrigerant and replace any lost from the system.
34
What happens during Step 4: Expansion in the refrigeration cycle? A. The refrigerant is compressed and heated. B. The refrigerant expands rapidly, causing its pressure and temperature to drop. C. The refrigerant is stored in the receiver-dryer.
B. The refrigerant expands rapidly, causing its pressure and temperature to drop.
35
In Step 5: Evaporation, what happens to the refrigerant? A. It releases heat into the cabin. B. It absorbs heat from the cabin air and evaporates into a vapour. C. It condenses into a high-pressure liquid.
B. It absorbs heat from the cabin air and evaporates into a vapour.
36
What happens if any refrigerant is lost from the system in the vapour cycle machine? A. It is replaced by the receiver-dryer. B. It is replaced by additional air from the cabin. C. It is replaced by new refrigerant from an external source.
A. It is replaced by the receiver-dryer.
37
What is the role of the receiver-dryer in the vapour cycle system? A. To store liquid refrigerant that is not passing through the system. B. To compress the refrigerant gas. C. To absorb heat from the cabin air.
A. To store liquid refrigerant that is not passing through the system.
38
Which refrigerant is commonly used in vapour cycle systems due to its low global warming potential and lower impact on the ozone layer compared to earlier refrigerants? A. R12 B. R134a C. R123a
C. R123a
39
What happens when refrigerant and water combine in the system? A. They form an acid that can deteriorate the materials inside the components and tubing. B. They create a stable mixture that improves system performance. C. They enhance the refrigerant's ability to absorb heat.
A. They form an acid that can deteriorate the materials inside the components and tubing.
40
What issue does ice formation in the refrigerant system cause? A. It helps cool the system more efficiently. B. It blocks the flow of refrigerant, causing the system to become inoperative. C. It increases the pressure, improving refrigerant flow.
B. It blocks the flow of refrigerant, causing the system to become inoperative.
41
Where does ice formation cause a problem in the refrigerant system? A. At the compressor, where the refrigerant is compressed. B. At the orifice in the expansion valve, the coldest point in the cycle. C. In the condenser, where the refrigerant releases heat.
B. At the orifice in the expansion valve, the coldest point in the cycle.
42
What does the presence of bubbles in the sight glass indicate? A. The system is overcharged with refrigerant. B. The refrigerant level is low and the system requires more refrigerant. C. The system is functioning at an optimal refrigerant level.
B. The refrigerant level is low and the system requires more refrigerant.
43
What are the two primary purposes of a compressor isolation valve in an aircraft's air conditioning system? A. It isolates the compressor for oil level checking and replenishment without losing refrigerant. B. It allows for refrigerant servicing and can isolate the compressor for oil checks and replenishment. C. It prevents compressor damage by regulating air flow through the compressor.
B. It allows for refrigerant servicing and can isolate the compressor for oil checks and replenishment.
44
Question 2: Which of the following is true about a compressor isolation valve? A. The valve is hard-mounted to the inlet and outlet of the compressor. B. The valve can only isolate the compressor for refrigerant servicing. C. It has two positions: fully open for normal operation, and fully closed for compressor replacement only.
A. The valve is hard-mounted to the inlet and outlet of the compressor.
45
How does a compressor isolation valve help prevent refrigerant loss during system maintenance? A. By isolating the compressor, oil can be checked and replenished without opening the entire system and losing refrigerant. B. It controls the pressure of the refrigerant to keep it contained during maintenance. C. It acts as a fail-safe, ensuring refrigerant does not escape from any valve.
A. By isolating the compressor, oil can be checked and replenished without opening the entire system and losing refrigerant.
46
What should be done after servicing a compressor isolation valve on an aircraft's air conditioning system? A. The valve handle and service port should be capped. B. The valve should be fully open to ensure proper refrigerant flow. C. The valve should remain in the intermediate position for maximum system efficiency.
A. The valve handle and service port should be capped.
47
How does conditioned air exit and circulate through the cabin of an aircraft? A. It exits through floor-level vents and circulates through ceiling vents. B. It exits through ceiling vents, circulates, and flows out through floor-level vents. C. It only exits through ceiling vents and remains stagnant in the cabin.
B. It exits through ceiling vents, circulates, and flows out through floor-level vents.
48
What material are the distribution ducts generally constructed of in an aircraft's air conditioning system? A. Heavy metal to ensure durability. B. Light fiberglass material coated to prevent damage from moisture. C. Plastic tubes to reduce weight.
B. Light fiberglass material coated to prevent damage from moisture.
49
How is conditioned air distributed into the cabin of an aircraft? A. Through a series of ducts leading to ceiling and floor vents. B. By using only the air conditioning packs in the cabin. C. Through air vents directly from the cockpit.
A. Through a series of ducts leading to ceiling and floor vents.
50
Where do the conditioned air exit vents typically get placed in an aircraft? A. Near the cockpit only. B. Near the passenger windows. C. Through ceiling vents, circulating to floor-level vents.
C. Through ceiling vents, circulating to floor-level vents.
51
Where does the conditioned air exit the aircraft after circulating through the cabin? A. Through the ceiling vents. B. Through the outflow valve(s) mounted near the aft pressure bulkhead. C. Through the side windows for ventilation.
B. Through the outflow valve(s) mounted near the aft pressure bulkhead.
52
Where is the temperature control regulator typically located in an aircraft's cabin temperature control system? A. In the flight deck B. In the electronics compartment C. Near the cabin air ducts
B. In the electronics compartment
53
What is the primary purpose of onboard humidifiers in aircraft? A. To control the cabin temperature B. To help passengers stay hydrated and reduce the effects of jetlag C. To purify the air for better breathing
B. To help passengers stay hydrated and reduce the effects of jetlag
54
What is the impact of recirculating up to 50% of cabin air on engine performance? A. It increases the engine's power output B. It decreases the amount of engine compressor bleed, saving fuel C. It causes the engines to consume more fuel
B. It decreases the amount of engine compressor bleed, saving fuel
55
What is removed from the cabin air during the recirculation process? A. Oxygen B. Airborne particles, bacteria, and odours C. Heat
B. Airborne particles, bacteria, and odours
56
What is the typical percentage of cabin air that is filtered and recirculated on an aircraft? A. 10% B. 25% C. 50%
C. 50%
57
How does the airflow system in the cabin minimize the spread of passenger-generated contaminants? A. By controlling the airflow to move forward and backward along the cabin B. By ensuring air supplied at one seat row leaves at the same seat row C. By exhausting air directly from the front of the cabin
B. By ensuring air supplied at one seat row leaves at the same seat row
58
Where are the return air grilles located in the aircraft cabin? A. On the ceiling near the overhead bins B. In the sidewalls near the floor, running the length of the cabin C. In the cockpit
B. In the sidewalls near the floor, running the length of the cabin