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Anatomy > Anatomy Exam > Flashcards

Anatomy Exam Flashcards

1
Q

Infected wounds of scalp lead to CST because of these veins

A

Emissary

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2
Q

Best space to enter neck for emergency access to airway outside the hospital

A

Thyroid cartilage and cricoid cartilage

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3
Q

Narrowest part of larynx in infant

A

Cricoid

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4
Q

Internal jugular veins are accompanied by

A

deep cervical chain of lymph nodes

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5
Q

tensor veli palatini innervation

A

V

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6
Q

Chronic smoker
Multiple swelling or neck masses

LN for palpation of NPC

A

Posterior cervical

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7
Q

Chest tube drainage landmark

A

5th ICS AAL Upper border of the rib

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8
Q

Inverted or retracted nipple is due to invasion of

A

Lactiferous duct

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9
Q

Loss of sensation on adjacent sides of great and second toe with impaired DF

A

Deep peroneal

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10
Q

Radiocarpal joint

A

Condyloid

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11
Q

A median episiotomy should least likely damage which muscle?

A

Ischiocavernosus

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12
Q

Vagus nerve passes into the abdomen through

A

Esophageal hiatus

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13
Q

Cysterna chyli drains

A

thoracic duct

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14
Q

Skin appendage classified as saccular and holocrine

A

Sebaceous gland

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15
Q

Which filtration barrier serves as physical barrier

Lamina densa
Lamina rara interna
Lamina rara externa
Slit pores

A

Lamina densa

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16
Q

Cells lining hepatic sinusoids that synthesize ECM and collagen?

A

Ito cells

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17
Q

Cell with bactericidal action in the small intestine

A

Granule cell of Paneth

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18
Q

Loss of taste sensation in posterior 3rd of tongue

Nerve severed?

A

Glossopharyngeal

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19
Q

1 day s/p thyroidectomy patient complained of circumoral numbness, tingling sensation on tips of fingers and toes, muscle cramp

What clinical maneuver to confirm diagnosis?

A

Tapping the parotid gland over the facial nerve to induce facial muscle spasm

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20
Q

Tracheostomy is best done on rings

A

Tracheal ring 2-3

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21
Q

Pain conveyed on vestibulitis of nose is via

A

Ophthalmic

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22
Q

Plate of bone that is responsible for spreading infection of ethmoid sinusitis to the orbital cavity

A

Lamina papyracea

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23
Q

Specific mammographic features that suggest diagnosis of breast cancer

A

Solid mass with or without stellate features
Asymmetric thickening of breast
Clustered microcalcification

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24
Q

Indications for CTT removal

A

Stable clinical condition
Wide open lung in Xray of tube thoracostomt
Discharge of less than 200cc in 24h
No air leak

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25
Q

Most common type of melanoma

A

Superficial spreading

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26
Q

Mutation in FBN1 gene

A

Marfan

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27
Q

Bochdalek hernia

A

Posterolateral

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28
Q

Morgagni hernia

A

Anterior congenital diaphragmatic hernia

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29
Q

Laceration of superficial peroneal nerve renders patient unable to perform

A

Eversion

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30
Q

Mitochondrial gene defect presenting with hemiplegia, cortical blindess, high CSF lactate and ragged red fibers

A

MELAS

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31
Q

Microtubule associated protein defective in patients presenting with Bronchiectasis, sinus invertus and sinusitis

A

Dynein

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32
Q

AR
genetic ciliary disorder

Situs inversus
Chronic sinusitis
Bronchiectasis

A

Kartagener’s syndrome

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33
Q

Kartagener’s syndrome defect

A

Dynein

34
Q

Gap junctions allowing rapid exchange between cells or molecules with diameterw such as cardiac muscles

A

Connexon

35
Q

The lateral cell surface specialization that is affected in Pemphigus vulgaris

A

Desmosomes/Macula adherens

36
Q

Site of ribosomal RNA synthesis

A

nucleolus

37
Q

Macrophage in placenta

A

Hofbauer cells

38
Q

Thin skin has:

A

Moderate number of pilo sebaceous unit

39
Q

Minute elevations of skin from obstruction of excretory ducts of sweat glands

A

Miliaria

40
Q

Acidophilic bodies found in the lumen of the acini of the prostate gland especially in older individuals are known as

A

Corpora amylacea

41
Q

Clark scale level for melanoma spreading into reticular dermis

A

Level IV

42
Q

Level II clark

A

Papilalry dermis

43
Q

Level III clark

A

Papillary-reticular

44
Q

Immune mediated blistering disease presenting as extremely pruritic small papules and vesicles and bullas on the trunk and extremities as a result of autoantigens known as epidermal transglutaminase

A

Dermatitis herpetiformis

45
Q

Tracheal epithelium

A

Pseudostratified columnar ciliated

46
Q

Fracture of the floor of the middle cranial cavity causing severance of the greater perrossal nerve

A

Dryness in the nose and plate

47
Q

Hoarseness in voice

Uvula deviates to the left on phonation

A

Right vagus nerve

48
Q

Veins for hematogenous metastasis of breast, lung and prostate cancer to the brain

A

Internal vertebral venous plexus
External vertebral venous plexus
Basivertebral veins

49
Q

Thoracentesis rib level

A

Between 7 and 9 MAL

50
Q

Immediate management of tension pneumothorax

A

Needle thoracentesis

51
Q

Advanced Lung CA spreading into her right third posterior intercostal space posterior to MAL

If cancer cells are carried in the venous drainage, they would travel first to which of the following veins?

A

Right superior intercostal vein

52
Q

Fracture of 1st cervical vertebrae or atlas

A

Jefferson’s fracture

53
Q

Anatomic events at the level of sternal angle of Louis

A

Right and left pulmonary arteries enter lungs
Tracheal bifurcation
Ascending aorta becomes continuous with the arch of the aorta
Second costal cartilage articulate with sternum

54
Q

A shoulder separation that involves the lateral end of the clavicle sliding onto the superior aspect of the acromion damages this ligament

A

Coracoclavicular

55
Q

Axillary vein is formed by the union of the

A

Venae comitantes of brachial artery and basilic vein

56
Q

The cephalic vein drains into the

A

axillary vein

57
Q

Collaterwl circulation of the shoulder joint

A

Subscapular artery
Superficial cervical artery
Suprascapular artery
Anterior circumflex artery

58
Q

CN XI exits

A

Jugular foramen

59
Q

Langherhan cells are found in what layer of skin

A

Spinosum

60
Q

Best surgical indication for NEC

A

Pneumoperitoneum

61
Q

Greatest risk for developing melanoma

A

Dysplastic nevus syndrome

62
Q

Pyloric obstruction
Persistent vomiting

acid base

A

Hypokalemic

Hypochloremic Metabolik Alkalosis

63
Q 
Bilious vomiting
Abdominal distention
Failure to pass meconium
Cystic fibrosis 
Dilatation of similar sized bowel loops without air fluid levels
A

Meconium ileus

64
Q

s/p Thyroidectomy
39 deg
Normal vitals

Most common cause of fever

A

Atelectasis

65
Q

Intraabdominal wal mass test

A

Fothergill test

66
Q

Lenticular hyperdensity

Convex with midline shift

A

Epidural hematoma

67
Q

Fracture on cortex middle third of tibia due to repetitive running

A

Torus

68
Q

Safe maneuver to determine dislocated hip in newborn

A

Ortolani

69
Q

Carpal bone prone to avascular necrosis

A

Scaphoid

70
Q

Most frequent cause of primary esophagility disorder

A

Nutcracker esophagus

71
Q

Slow growing, painless swelling on right mandible, multiloculated radiolucency in body of mandible with impacted tooth clearly visualized

A

Ameloblastoma

72
Q

Amino acid beneficial to damaged intestinal mucosa from adjuvant chemo from esophageal cancer

A

Glutamine

73
Q

Superior laryngeal artery is related to

A

Internal laryngeal nerve

74
Q

Dorsal scapular nerve innervated

A

Rhomboids

75
Q

Numbness in nasopharynx after surgical removal of adenoid is damage from

A

glossopharyngeal

76
Q

Vein that opens to the right atrium

A

Anterior cardiac

77
Q

Transverse diameter more than AP diameter

A

Gynecoid

78
Q

Vein most commonly involved in pelvic thrombophlebitis

A

Ovarian vein

79
Q

Blood supply of uterus

A

Ovarian artery

Uterine artery

80
Q

Most important diameter in clinical evaluation of pelvis

A

Diagonal conjugate

81
Q

Consumptive coagulopatht in abruptio placenta due to

A

release of thromboplastin to circulation

82
Q

Most common site of NPC

A

Fossa of rossenmuller

Anatomy (13 decks)

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