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Anatomy > Block 5 > Flashcards

Block 5 Flashcards

1
Q

What is the embryological origin of the GI tract?

A

Endoderm

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2
Q

What is the embryological origin of kidneys, gonads, connective tissue, and muscle

A

Mesoderm

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3
Q

What does the ectoderm of the embryo form?

A

Epidermal layer of the skin

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4
Q

What parts of GI are derived from the foregut?

A

Esophagus, stomach, proximal duodenum, liver, pancreas, lungs

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5
Q

What is dissolved to form the mouth?

A

Oropharyngeal Membrane

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6
Q

What parts of the GI are derived from the midgut?

A

Remaining small intestine, cecum, proximal colon

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7
Q

What parts of the GI system are derived from the hind gut?

A

Distal colon, rectum

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8
Q

What does the cloacal membrane dissolve into?

A

Anal orifice and urogenital opening

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9
Q

What is a very potent cell type in the colon?

A

Goblet cells for “poop lube”

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10
Q

In the upper GI, what are the regions that are covered with stratified epithelial cells?

A

Tongue, esophagus, oral cavity (gingiva)

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11
Q

In the upper GI, what type of regions contain actin in and ducts (simple cuboidal epithelium)

A

Salivary glands (parotid salivary gland, sublingual, zygomatic, mandibular)

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12
Q

What are the differentiating characteristics of the different regions of the small intestine?

A

Duodenum: Brunner’s Glands, potentially pancreas
Jejunum: Really long villi
Ileum: Peyer’s patches, small villi

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13
Q

What is the most common cell type of the intestine?

A

Enterocytes

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14
Q

What cells overly the Peyer’s Patches of the ileum?

A

M-cells aka GALT cells

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15
Q

Is the gingiva’s stratified squamous epithelium keratinized?

A

Sometimes

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16
Q

What type of cells line the tongue and what physical characteristics does it have?

A

Stratified squamous epithelium (may be keratinized) and the dorsal surface have papillae

The internal core of the tongue has skeletal muscle

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17
Q

What are acini and what are ducts?

A

Acini are cells that make and secrete saliva
Ducts are cells that convey saliva to the mouth

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18
Q

What are the two types of epithelial cells in acini?

A

Mucous: pale, basophilic (blue) to clear cytoplasm for lubrication
Serous: pale, eosinophilic (pink), granular cytoplasm for proteins that are digestive enzymes (amylase)

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19
Q

What are the 4 layers of the tubular GI?

A

Mucosa
Submucosa
Muscularis
Serosa

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20
Q

What 3 components make up the mucosa of the GI?

A

Epithelium
Lamina propria
Muscularis mucosae

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21
Q

Which type of feeder does not have any keratinization in their esophagus and which feeders have a lot of keratinization?

A

No keratinization in carnivores
Lots of keratinization in roughage eaters (ruminants)

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22
Q

What do the muscular layers of the pig and human’s esophagus look like?

A

Middle 1/3 = smooth + striated. Distal 1/3

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23
Q

What do the muscular layers of the esophagus for the cat and horse look like?

A

Proximal 2/3 skeletal muscle, distal 1/3 smooth muscle

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24
Q

What does the muscular layers of the dog and ruminants esophagus look like?

A

100% skeletal: Ruminants need to be able to chew their cud and dogs need to be able to voluntarily vomit

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25
Q

What is the only species where the squamous region of the stomach plays a large role?

A

Ruminants!

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26
Q

Which chambers of the ruminant stomach are stratified squamous epithelium and which are glandular (simple columnar epithelium)?

A

The rumen and reticulum are stratified squamous
The abomasum and omasum are both simple cuboidal

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27
Q

Which regions of the ruminants stomach is keratinized?

A

Rumen and reticulum

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28
Q

What is the composition of the rumenal lamina propria

A

NO SMOOTH MUSCLE

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29
Q

What is the composition of the reticulum’s lamina propria?

A

Isolated smooth muscle in the lamina propria

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30
Q

What is the composition of the omasum’s lamina propria?

A

3 different smooth muscle layers

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31
Q

What are the 4 main secretory products of the glandular stomach?

A

Hydrochloric acid
Mucous
Gastrin
Pepsin

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32
Q

What cell secrete pepsinogen?

A

Chief cells

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33
Q

What cells secrete hydrochloric acid?

A

Parietal cells

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34
Q

How do parietal cells show up in histology (eosinophilic (pink) or basophilic (blue))

A

Eosinophilic

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35
Q

How do chief cells show up in histology (eosinophilic (pink) or basophilic (blue))

A

Basophilic

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36
Q

Where are mucous cells in the stomach?

A

Present throughout

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37
Q

Where are chief cells and parietal cells?

A

More prevalent in fundus / body of stomach

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38
Q

Where are gastrin - producing cells present in the stomach?

A

More prevalent in the pylorus (can’t histologically distinguish)

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39
Q

What is the function of gastrin?

A

Gastrin secreted in the fundic region fo

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40
Q

What are the pouches of the colon called?

A

Haustra

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41
Q

What are the bands of the colon called?

A

Teniae coli

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42
Q

What are the glands in the duodenum?

A

Brunner’s Glands

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43
Q

What is the junction between glandular and non glandular regions of the equine stomach

A

Margo plicatus

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44
Q

Does the ventral or dorsal colon of the horse have haustra and teniae?

A

Ventral

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45
Q

Where are the two levels of ascending colon joined?

A

On the left side

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46
Q

At what anatomical point does the descending (small colon) turn into the rectum?

A

At the pelvic inlet

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47
Q

Talk through the horse GI from Ilium on

A

Ilium>RVC>sternal flexure>LVC>Pelvic flexure (on left)>LDC>diaphragmatic flexure>RDC>transverse colon>descending colon>rectum> anus

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48
Q

What rib does the diaphragm bulge toward to in the horse

A

6

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49
Q

on the left, Where is the liver in the horse

A

7-9 high

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50
Q

On the left, Where is the stomach of the horse

A

9-15 high

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51
Q

On the left, Where is the spleen of the horse

A

base: 15-18 high
Apex: 9-12 low

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52
Q

Does the small colon have teniae coli?

A

Yes

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53
Q

Does the small intestine have teniae coli?

A

NO

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54
Q

Does the ventral or dorsal large colon have teniae coli and haustra

A

VENTRAL

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55
Q

On the right side of the horse, where is the liver

A

7-16 high

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56
Q

On the right side of the horse, where is the liver

A

7-16 high

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57
Q

Where is the base, body, and apex of the cecum?

A

BAse: Right paralumbar fossa
Body: Against flank
Apex: located close to xyphoid process

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58
Q

Where is the root of the mesentery in the horse?

A

L1

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59
Q

Where is the right kidney of the horse?

A

T16,17,18. L1

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60
Q

Where is the left kidney of the horse?

A

T18. L1, L2, L3`

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60
Q

Where are the ovaries of the horse?

A

Half way between the tuber coxae and the last rib

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61
Q

What are the 2 surfaces of the liver and what way do they face?

A

Diaphragmatic surface: faces diaphragm
Visceral surface: Faces intestines

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62
Q

What are the 4 lobes of the liver?

A

Left lateral, left medial, quadrate, right

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63
Q

Is the caudate a lobe or a process of the liver in horses?

A

Process!

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64
Q

Where does the falciform ligament (round ligament) pass through on the liver?

A

The left medial and the quadrate lobes

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65
Q

What is the round ligament of the liver a remnant from?

A

Umbilical vein

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66
Q

What is the tendon on the liver that is from the central tendon of the diaphragm?

A

The coronary ligament

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67
Q

What are the 3 things in the porta of the liver?

A

Portal vein, hepatic artery, hepatic duct (bile)

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68
Q

What is the ligament between the stomach and spleen?

A

Gastrosplenic ligament

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69
Q

What is another name for the fundus of the stomach?

A

The blind sac

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69
Q

What are the 3 reasons that a horse rarely vomits?

A

Cardiac sphincter is very strong
Very acute angle of the esophagus
Folds of mucosa blocks opening

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69
Q

What is the region that allows the portal vein to pass through the pancreas in the horse?

A

The pancreatic ring

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70
Q

What are the 6 parts to the equine duodenum?

A

Cranial part of duodenum
Cranial duodenal flexure
Descending duodenum
Caudal duodenal flexure
Ascending duodenum
Duodenal jujunal flexure

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71
Q

What are the 2 openings on the major duodenal papillae

A

Pancreatic duct
Hepatic duct

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72
Q

What are the opening(s) on the minor duodenal papillae?

A

Accessory pancreatic duct

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73
Q

What is the landmark of mesenteric tissue that marks the end of the small intesting?

A

The ileocecal fold

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74
Q

What is the protuberance of ileum into the cecum called?

A

Ileal papilla

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75
Q

Where does the cecocolic ligament attach to?

A

Right ventral colon

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76
Q

How many bands does the cecum, RVC, LVC have?

A

4

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77
Q

How many bands does the LDC have?

A

1

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78
Q

How many bands the RDC have?

A

3

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79
Q

How many bands does the small colon have?

A

2

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80
Q

What is the telescoping of the intestine called?

A

Intussusception (commonly occurs at the ileocecal junction)

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81
Q

What are their 3 arteries that supply blood to the whole abdominal cavity in the horse?

A

Celiac
Cranial Mesenteric
Caudal Mesenteric

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82
Q

What 3 arteries branch off of the celiac artery in the horse?

A

Splenic
Left gastric (lesser curvature)
Hepatic

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83
Q

What artery supplies the spleen in the horse?

A

Splenic

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84
Q

What artery supplies the liver in the horse?

A

Hepatic

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85
Q

What artery supplies the lesser curvature of the stomach in the horse

A

Left gastric

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86
Q

What are the arteries of the cranial mesenteric in the horse to the small intestine?

A

Caudal pancreaticoduodenal artery
Jejunal artery
Ileal artery ->iliocolic artery

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87
Q

What artery supplies the duodenum in the horse?

A

Caudal pancreaticoduodenal artery

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88
Q

What artery supplies the jejunum of the horse?

A

Jejunal arteries

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89
Q

What arteries supply the ilium of the horse?

A

Ileal and ileocolic arteries

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90
Q

What arteries supply the colon of the horse?

A

Middle colic
Right colic
Ileocolic
Colic branch of ileocolic artery

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91
Q

What artery supples the transverse colon? in the horse

A

Middle colic artery

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92
Q

What artery supplies the left and right dorsal colon?

A

Right colic artery

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93
Q

What artery supplies the ventral colon?

A

Colic branch of the ileocolic

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94
Q

What artery supplies the cecum in a horse?

A

The cecal arteries (medial and lateral)

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95
Q

What artery supplies the small colon on the horse?

A

Caudal mesenteric artery

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96
Q

What are the branches of the caudal mesenteric artery?

A

Cranial rectal
Left colic

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97
Q

What artery supplies the proximal small colon in the horse?

A

Left colic (then anastomoses with middle colic)

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98
Q

What artery supplies blood to distal small colon and rectum?

A

Cranial rectum

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99
Q

How many ribs does a ruminant have?

A

13 (just like dog)

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100
Q

How many ribs does a horse have?

A

18

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101
Q

What are the borders of the paralumbar fossa of the cow?

A

Cranially: 13th rib
Caudal: tuber coxae
Dorsally: Transverse processes of lumbar vertebrae
Ventrally: Line of tension of internal abdominal oblique

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102
Q

Where is the site of incision for the paralumbar fossa?

A

Halfway between the ribs and tuber coxae

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103
Q

What do the grooves on the outside of the rumen contain?

A

Arteries and nerves

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104
Q

What do the longitudinal grooves of the rumen separate?

A

The ventral and dorsal sacs

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105
Q

What is the only “pillar” on the inside of the rumen that isn’t called a pillar?

A

Rumenoreticular fold

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106
Q

What is the groove within the rumen?

A

Gastric groove helps to shunt blood from esophagus to the abomasum

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107
Q

What are the 3 parts of the gastric groove?

A

Reticular groove
Omasal groove
Abomasal groove

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108
Q

What are the 3 arteries coming from the celiac artery in the cow?

A

Splenic
Left gastric
Hepatic

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109
Q

What are the 3 arteries that come from the splenic artery in the cow?

A

Reticular
Left ruminal
Right ruminal

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110
Q

What artery is the principal supply of blood to the rumen?

A

Right rumenal artery from splenic artery from celiac artery

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111
Q

What is the parasympathetic innervation of the rumen?

A

The dorsal and ventral ventral trunks

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112
Q

Where does the ilium empty in the cow?

A

Ileocecocolic orifice

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113
Q

What are the 3 parts to the ascending bovine colon?

A

Proximal loop
Spiral loop
Distal loop

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114
Q

What are the 3 parts of the spiral loop?

A

Centripetal gyri
Central flexure
Centrifugal gyri

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115
Q

What are the gyri going into the spiral loop?

A

Centripetal gyri

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116
Q

What are the gyri coming out the spiral loop?

A

Centrifugal gyri

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117
Q

What is the difference in the pancreas between small ruminants and bovine?

A

Small ruminants have a pancreatic duct emptying into the major papilla while bovine only have an accessory pancreatic duct emptying into minor papilla

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118
Q

Why are ruminant livers more vertical?

A

The rumen pushes everything right

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119
Q

Where is the gall bladder in teh cow located?

A

10th-11th intercostal space between right lobe and quad rate lobe

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120
Q

Where does the superficial leaf of the greater omentum attach in the cow?

A

The left longitudinal groove

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121
Q

Where does the deep leaf of the greater omentum attach in the cow?

A

Right longitudinal groove

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122
Q

What is the space between the superficial and deep leaf of the omentum called?

A

OMental bursa

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123
Q

What is the topographic region of flank?

A

Abdominal wall from ribs to thigh

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124
Q

What is the skin and cutaneous trunci bridging to thigh?

A

Fold of the flank

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125
Q

What is the innervation of the flank?

A

Costoabdominal nerve: Thoracic nerve #18 (T18)
Iliohypogastric nerve: L1
Ilioinguinal nerve: L2
Genitofemoral nerve: L3
Lateral cutaneous femoral nerve: L4

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126
Q

What muscle would you be cutting if you cut paramedical to the linea alba?

A

The rectus abdominus muscle

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127
Q

What is the cutaneous muscle over the shoulder region of the horse?

A

Cutaneous omobrachialis

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128
Q

Which direction does the external abdominal oblique muscles run?

A

Caudoventral (Jacket pockets)

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129
Q

Which direction do the internal abdominal oblique muscles run?

A

Cranioventral (up into jacket)

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130
Q

What muscle does the cremaster muscle originate from?

A

Internal abdominal oblique

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131
Q

What direction does the trans versus abdominis run?

A

Vertical

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132
Q

Which direction does rectus abdominus run?

A

Straight cranially

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133
Q

What are the internal boundaries of the abdomen?

A

Cranial: Diaphragm
Caudal: Pelvic Inlet
Dorsal: Paired hypaxial muscles and lumbar and sacral vertebrae

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134
Q

Where are the hypaxial muscles?

A

On the inside of the abdominal cavity, paired on each side of the lumbar vertebrae

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135
Q

What are the 3 paired abdominal hypaxial muscles?

A

Psoas major
Psoas minor
Quadratus lumborum

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136
Q

What are the hypaxial mm innervated by?

A

The ventral branches of lumbar nerves

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137
Q

What vital functions do the lateral abdominal muscles help with?

A

Expiration, urination, defecation, and parturition

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138
Q

What is the muscle that extended from prepublication tendon to sternum?

A

Rectus abdominis

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139
Q

What is the collagenous mass cranial to the pubic bone called?

A

Prepubic tendon

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140
Q

What is the fibrous connective tissue associated with the rectus abdominis?

A

Aponeurosis (rectus sheath)

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141
Q

What are the abdominal muscles from superficial to deep?

A

External abdominal oblique
Internal abdominal oblique
Transversus abdominis

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142
Q

What muscle is associated with cremaster m?

A

Internal abdominal oblique

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143
Q

What muscle is associated with teh inguinal ligament?

A

External abdominal oblique

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144
Q

What is the thin connective tissue attaching abdominal wall to peritoneum?

A

Transversalis fascia

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145
Q

What is the mideventral strip of collagenous tissue on the abdomen?
Where does it extend from and enter?

A

Linea alba
Xiphoid process to pelvic symphysis

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146
Q

Where are epaxial muscles?
Where are Hypaxial muscles?

A

Dorsal to vertebrae
Ventral to vertebrae

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147
Q

What are the 3 epaxial muscle systems (from lateral to medial)
(ILT)

A

Iliocostalis system
Longissimus system
Transversospinalis system

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148
Q

What is the layer that lines the abdominal cavity called?

A

Peritoneum (encloses peritoneal cavity)

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149
Q

Do any organs lie within the peritoneal cavity?

A

No! Only fluid

150
Q

What is the parietal peritoneum?

A

Lines the body wall

151
Q

What is the visceral peritoneum?

A

Lines the organs

152
Q

What is teh connecting peritoneum?

A

Connects organs to body walls. Connects parietal and visceral peritoneum or between visceral peritoneum

153
Q

What are examples of connecting peritoneum?

A

Mesentery
Ligaments
Omentum
Folds

154
Q

Where is the root of mesentery in the dog?

A

L2

155
Q

Where is the greater omentum and where is the lesser omentum?

A

Greater omentum to greater curvature of stomach
Lesser omentum to lesser curvature of stomach

156
Q

What is the omental bursa?

A

Space between superficial and deep leaves of omentum

157
Q

What is the lesser omentum between the stomach and liver called?

A

Hepatogastric ligament

158
Q

What is the lesser omentum between the liver and the duodenum?

A

Hepatoduodenal

159
Q

What is the small hole between stomach and liver in the lesser omentum? And where does it lie compared to the median plane?

A

Epiploic foramen right of median plane

160
Q

What are the boundaries of the epiploic foramen?

A

Dorsally: Caudal vena cava
Ventrally: Portal vein
Cranially: Caudate lobe of liver

161
Q

Which side of the body is the epiploic foramen on?

A

THE RIGHT!

162
Q

Which side of the body is the spleen on?

A

Left

163
Q

What does the spleen do in the fetus?

A

Produces red blood cells

164
Q

What does the spleen do in the adult?

A

Stores red blood cells, stores iron, destroys worn out red blood cells, and produces lymphocytes

165
Q

What is the ligament that connects spleen and stomach?

A

Gastrosplenic ligament

166
Q

What are the 6 lobes of the dog liver?

A

Left lateral lobe
Left medial lobe
Quadrate lobe
Right medial lobe
Right lateral lobe
Caudate lobe

167
Q

In the dog, where is the gallbladder located between?

A

The right medial lobe and the quadrate lobe

168
Q

What are the two processes on the caudate lobe of the dog liver?

A

The caudate process and the papillary process

169
Q

What are the 8 ligaments of the liver?

A

Falciform ligament
Round ligament of the liver
Right triangular ligament
Left triangular ligament
Coronary ligament
Hepatorenal ligament
Hepatogastric ligament
Hepatoduodenal ligament

170
Q

What are the ducts that flow bile from liver to gall bladder?

A

Hepatic duct

171
Q

What are ducts that flow bile from gallbladder to and from the liver?

A

Cystic duct

172
Q

What are ducts that flow bile from cystic duct to major papilla?

A

Common bile duct

173
Q

What is the sphincter that controls the flow of bile?What chemical signals for relaxation?

A

Sphincter of Oddi
CCK

174
Q

What opens at the minor duodenal papilla?

A

Accessory pancreatic duct

175
Q

What are the 3(ish) paired visceral veins in the abdomen

A

Renal, adrenal, and either testicular or ovarian

176
Q

What are the paired parietal veins in the abdomen

A

Caudal phrenic, cranial abdominal, lumbar, deep circumflex iliac

177
Q

What lobe of the liver does the caudal vena cava run in the dog?

A

Caudate lobe

178
Q

Where does the caudal vena cava run through in the dog?

A

Caval foramen

179
Q

Where does the left testicular/ovarian vein drain into?

A

Left renal vein

180
Q

Where does the portal vein form in teh dog?

A

At the root of the mesentery (L2)

181
Q

Does the portal vein contain valves?

A

Yes

182
Q

Where is the epiploic foramen?

A

On the right side

183
Q

What are the boundaries of the epiploic foramen in the dog?

A

Dorsally: Caudal vena cava
Ventrally: Portal vein
Cranially: Caudate lobe of live

184
Q

What 4 veins does the portal vein receive blood from?

A

Splenic vein
Gastroduodenal vein
Cranial mesenteric veins
Caudal mesenteric vein

185
Q

Where do hepatic veins receive blood from and empty into?

A

The liver and drain into the caudal vena cava

186
Q

Where is the thoracic duct located in relation to azygos and caudal vena cava?

A

Thoracic duct

187
Q

What is the cisterna chyli?

A

Dilated structure that receives lymph drainage

188
Q

***What are the parietal lymph node groups?

A

Lumbar lymph nodes
Aortic lymph nodes
Renal lymph nodes
Medial iliac lymph nodes

189
Q

What are te visceral lymph nodes?

A

Celiac
Cranial mesenteric
Caudal mesenteric

190
Q

What are the folds of the stomach wall called?

A

Rugae

191
Q

What does the cardiac part of stomach mostly produce?

A

Mucous

192
Q

What does the fundus of the stomach mostly produce?

A

Gastric juice

193
Q

What does the body of the stomach mostly produce?

A

Gastric juice

194
Q

What does the pyloric part of the stomach mostly produce?

A

Mucus

195
Q

What are the two parts to the pylorus?

A

First: Pyloric antrum
Second: Pyloric canal -> pyloric sphincter

196
Q

Where is the cardia (fixed part of stomach) located in the dog?

A

Left 9th intercostal space

197
Q

What is the most fixed part of the small intestine?

A

Duodenum

198
Q

Where is the caudal duodenal flexure located?

A

L6 vertebra

199
Q

What is the artery that lies opposite of mesentary on ileum

A

Antimesenteric ileal artery

200
Q

What is the connection between the ileum and the cecum called

A

Ileocecal fold

201
Q

What is the purpose of the appendix?

A

Serves as a safe haven for good bacteria to be recruited from when needed

202
Q

What suspends the colon?

A

Mesocolon

203
Q

Where are the anal sacs located between?

A

Internal and external anal sphincters

204
Q

What is the sympathetic innervation from the foregut and midgut?

A

Celiacomesenteric ganglion

205
Q

What is the sympathetic innervation from the hindgut?

A

Caudal mesenteric ganglion via hypogastric

206
Q

What is the parasympathetic innervation of the foregut and midgut

A

Vagus n

207
Q

What is the parasympathetic innervation of the hindgut

A

pelvic n

208
Q

What is the neurotransmitter for rest and digest (parasympathetic)

A

acetylcholine

209
Q

What is a general term for a network of lymphatics, nerves, or veins, both in the sympathetic and parasympathetic?

A

Plexus

210
Q

What is a general term for a group of cell bodies located outside the central nervous system, only in the sympathetic system?

A

Ganglion

211
Q

What are the sympathetic nerves that run between the sympathetic trunk and autonomic ganglion?

A

Splanchnic nerves

212
Q

What are the 3 splanchnic nerves?

A

Major splanchnic
Minor splanchnic
Lumbar splanchnic

213
Q

Where does major splanchnic nerve go?

A

Adrenal and celicomesenteric ganglion and plexus

214
Q

Where does minor splanchnic nerve go?

A

Adrenal and celiacomesenteric ganglia and plexus

215
Q

Where does lumbar splanchnic nerve go?

A

Cranial mesenteric and caudal mesenteric ganglia nad plexus

216
Q

What controls the sympathetic innervation of the pelvic organs?

A

Pelvic organs

217
Q

What does the ventral and dorsal vagal trunk innervate respectively?

A

Ventral: Parietal
Dorsal: Visceral

218
Q

What does retroperitoneum mean?

A

Behind abdominal cavity

219
Q

Where does the descending aorta terminate?

A

At L7

220
Q

How is the aorta situated relative to the caudal vena cava?

A

To the left

221
Q

What artery supplies the foregut?

A

Celiac artery

222
Q

What artery supplies the midgut?

A

Cranial mesenteric

223
Q

What artery supplies the hindgut?

A

Caudal mesenteric

224
Q

What are the 3 branches of the hepatic artery?

A

Hepatic branch
Right gastric branch
Gastroduodenal branch

225
Q

What are the 2 branchs of the gastroduodenal branch fo teh hepatic artery?

A

Right gastroepiploic
Cranial pancreaticoduodenal

226
Q

What are the 2 branches of the splenic artery in the dog?

A

Left gastroepiploic
Short gastric branches

227
Q

What artery supplies the pancreas with blood?

A

Caudal pancreaticoduodenal

228
Q

What are the two arteries of the ventral abdominal wall?

A

Cranial epigastric
Caudal epigastric

229
Q

What two arteries supply the dorsal abdominal wall?

A

Cranial abdominal
Deep circumflex iliac

230
Q

What is the primary purpose of the large intestine in horses?

A

Microbial fermentation and absorption

231
Q

What are the 4 cell types of the intestinal mucosa?

A

Paneth cells
Goblet cells
Enterocytes
M cells

232
Q

What are the 3 layers of the mucosa?

A

Epithelium
Laminae Propria
Musclaris mucosa

233
Q

Where are pits located?

A

Stomach

234
Q

Where are villi and crypts located?

A

Intestine

235
Q

What are the histological characteristics of the colon?

A

NO VILLI, JUST CRYPTS
Increased goblet cells
frequent peyer’s patches

236
Q

Are the cecum, colon, and rectum distinguishable

A

Nope

237
Q

What are the 4 possible places for GALT to be seen?

A

Tonsils
Colon / cecum
Major papilla of duodenum
Ileum

238
Q

What are the 5 functions of the liver?

A

Bile production
Production and breakdown of lipids, protein, and carbs
Storage of carbs and lipids
Xenobiotic metabolism and biotransformation
Immune function (blood filtration)

239
Q

How are livers microscopically organized?

A

Lobule

240
Q

What type of endothelium does the liver have?

A

Fenestrated endothelium with incomplete basal lamina

241
Q

what are the blood vessels through the liver called?

A

Sinusoids

242
Q

What are the cells in the liver that we should know?

A

Stellate
Kupffer
Hepatocyte
Endothelial

243
Q

What do stellate cells do?

A

Store fat, vitamin A, contribute to fibrosis and regeneration

244
Q

What do Kupffer cells do?

A

Resident liver macrophages

245
Q

What do stellate cells look like histologically?

A

Look like adipose cells a little

246
Q

What do Kupffer cells look like histologically?

A

Like stellate but with basophilicish pigment

247
Q

What are the 4 things within the portal triad?

A

Artery, bile duct, portal vein, lymphatics

248
Q

Where do the portal veins and hepatic arteries drain in the sinusoids?

A

Toward the central vein of the lobule

249
Q

Which way does the bile flow in the liver?

A

Opposite direction of blood, toward bile duct

250
Q

What is the most deoxygenated zone of the liver?

A

3 least oxygenated and 1 is most

251
Q

What is the acinus of rappaport

A

Ovals radiating from adjacent portal triads and bordered by central veins

252
Q

What is zone 1 of acinus of rappaport called?

A

Portal

253
Q

What is zone 2 of acinus of rappaport called?

A

Midzonal

254
Q

What is zone 3 of acinus of rappaport called?

A

Centrilobular

255
Q

Which acinus of rappaport is most susceptible to hypoxia

A

Centrilobular

256
Q

Which acinus of rappaport is most susceptible to injury from toxins?

A

Portal

257
Q

What are the lining cells of the liver?

A

Endothelium and biliary epithelium

258
Q

Whats another name for the stellate cells?

A

Ito cells

259
Q

What cell makes bile?

A

Hepatocytes

260
Q

What are islets of langerhans?

A

Islands of endocrine producing cells of the pancreas

261
Q

What color are acinir cells of the pancreas?

A

Pink zymogen granules

262
Q

What does the exocrine pancreas produce?

A

Proenzyme for digestion
Active enzymes
Factors for cobalamine (B12) absorption
Zinc homeostasis

263
Q

What is something you should consider when presented with a low muscle dog?

A

GI issues

264
Q

What is nutrient assimilation

A

Breakdown of larger molecules into basic units (polysaccharides into monosacchrides)

265
Q

What is the frist enzyme that begins to breakdown protein?

A

Pepsin

266
Q

What are the 4 purposes of the GI?

A

Digestion
Secretion
Absorption
Motility

267
Q

What animals dont have salivary amylase?

A

Cattle, dogs, and cats

268
Q

Is UES skeletal or smooth muscle?

A

Skeletal muscle

269
Q

What esophagus composition are cow and dog (maybe pig)

A

All skeletal muscle

270
Q

What esophagus composition are humans, cats, and horses?

A

Skeletal>smooth/skeletal>smooth

271
Q

What is goal of LES?

A

To reduce acid reflux

272
Q

Is the LES physiological or anatomic?

A

Physiological, not really a muscle in itself but many things contribute to it

273
Q

What stomach cells produce gastrin?

A

G-cells

274
Q

What stomach cells produce somatostatin

A

D cells

275
Q

What are the most common cells in the crypts of the GI?

A

Stem cells

276
Q

What are the 4 functions of small intestines?

A

Digestions
Nutrient absorption
Extract water
motility

277
Q

what are the 3 biggest locations that digestive enzymes come from in teh small instestine?

A

Bile (liver/gall bladder), villi themselves, and pancreas

278
Q

What are the 3 largest areas from which digestive enzymes come from in the small intestine?

A

Pancreas, liver (bile), and the villi themselves

279
Q

Where are bile salts and B12 reabsorbed?

A

Ileum

280
Q

What are the 3 functions of teh colon?

A

Recovery of water and electrolytes
Storage of feces
Microbial fermentation

281
Q

What is teh largest endocrine organ in the body?`

A

GI tract

282
Q

What is the target of gastrin?

A

Parietal cells to increase gastric acid secretion

283
Q

What is a trigger for gastrin secretion?

A

high pH, gastric distension, and increased vagal stimulation

284
Q

What is the negative feedback for G-cells?

A

D-cells secrete somatostatin when pH is too low (negative feedback)

285
Q

***What nerve plexus is responsible for moving stuff along intestine?

A

Myenteric plexus

286
Q

***What nerve plexus is responsible for intestinal secretion?

A

Submucosal plexus

287
Q

Are splanchnic nerves sympathetic or parasympathetic?

A

Sympathetic

288
Q

What is a neurotransmitter that will promote GI function?

A

Acetylcholine

289
Q

What is dysphagia?

A

Difficulty chewing and swallowing

290
Q

What are stimuli for salivation?

A

Resting
Food in mouth
Irritating substance
Thought

291
Q

Is salivation parasympathetic or sympathetic?

A

parasympathetic

292
Q

What is in mucus?

A

Bicarbonate

293
Q

What activates pepsinogen?

A

HCl

294
Q

What are 3 epithelial defenses for gastric mucosa from acid?

A

Tight junctions
Ion pumps (remove H+)
Epithelial restitution

295
Q

What are the 3 chemical triggers to acid secretion?

A

Gastrin
Histamine
Acetylcholine

296
Q

What are the 3 steps to gastric acid secretion?

A

cephalic phase: Vagus tone from scent, sight, etc.
Gastric phase: Stretch receptors and chemoreceptors
Intestinal phase: Food in duodenum turns off acid secretion

297
Q

What are the 3 phases of swallowing?

A

Oropharyngeal phase
Esophageal phase
Gastroesophageal phase

298
Q

What is the most, middle, and least likely foods to stimulate swallowing?

A

Most: Food
Middle: Liquid
Lowest: Oil

299
Q

What is primary vs secondary peristalsis

A

Primary: First wave with ingesta
Secondary: Cleanup wave

300
Q

What is the movement in the intestine during a fasted state?

A

Migrating Motor Complex (erythromycin does not work in cats!!!)

301
Q

What is the difference between peristaliss and segmentations?

A

Peristalsis is the controlled ovement of bolus through the GI while segmentation is the breakdown and mechanical digestion of foods while moving down the GI

302
Q

What is the reflex that causes you to have to poop after eating a meal?

A

Gastrocolic reflex

303
Q

What are the 3 phases to vomiting

A

1) Closed glottis increases pressure
2) Diaphragm tenses and involuntary contractions
3) More pressure in stomach and proximal duodenum

304
Q

What are the 4 inputs for vomiting?

A

Abdominal viscera
Chemoreceptor trigger zone
Vestibular apparatus
Cerebral cortex

305
Q

What are the receptors for vestibular apparatus in dogs?

A

M1

306
Q

What are the receptors for abdominal viscera in dogs?

A

NK1 and 5-HT3

307
Q

What are the receptors for chemoreceptor trigger zone in dogs?

A

D2, alpha2, NK1, H1, 5-HT3

308
Q

Where does vestibular apparatus go through in dogs?

A

Goes through chemoreceptor trigger zone

309
Q

What are the receptors in the vomiting center of the dog brain?

A

alpha2 and NK1

310
Q

What are the main differences in the cat vomiting receptors than dog?

A

Cats dont have a D2 or H1 trigger in their chemoreceptor trigger zone

311
Q

What causes metabolic alkalosis?

A

Gastric vomiting because acid leaves body leaving a lot of base

312
Q

What causes metabolic acidosis?

A

Duodenal vomiting because a lot of base leaves the body leaving acid in the system

313
Q

Where is folate found and what would cause low folate?

A

Proximal small intestine “folate first” and a disease blocking access to small intestine or a proximal disease

314
Q

Where is B12 (cobalamin) absorbed?

A

Ileum

315
Q

Does motaline work in cats?

A

NO!

316
Q

Why do certain microbiota cause some people to be obese?

A

The microbiota have unique transporters that allow more carbs to be digested

317
Q

Where in the GI are the most bacteria found?

A

Colon (anaerobic bacteria)

318
Q

What is dysbiosis?

A

Disruption in a community

319
Q

What are the unique organs of bird GI?

A

Crop
Proventriculus (true stomach)
Ventriculus (gizzard)
Cloaca
Vent

320
Q

What are the microbes in the rumen (fermentation vat) that break down the complex carbs?

A

Protozoa
Bacteria
Fungi

321
Q

What are normal rumination times of a cow?

A

2-3/2 min

322
Q

What are some ways to determine rumen function?

A

of ruminations

New methylene blue reduction test
Chloride
PH
Smell
Visualization of Protozoa

323
Q

Where is reticulum located anatomically?

A

Cranioventrally (across diaphragm from heart)

324
Q

What is the function of the omasum?

A

Absorbs water, electrolytes, and VFAs

325
Q

What is the largest compartment in the calf?

A

Abomasum

326
Q

Where does the dorsal and vagal trunks go to in the bovine stomach

A

Dorsal: Rumen
Ventral trunk: Reticulum, omasum, abomasum

327
Q

What stimulates the closer of the esophageal groove (gastric groove?)

A

Suckling

328
Q

What are the 5 functions of the liver?

A

Storage of blood
Metabolism of fats, carbs, proteins, hormones, and foreign chemicals
Formation and excretion of bile
Storage of vitamins and iron
Formation of coagulation factors

329
Q

What are the 2 interhepatic parts of the biliary tract?

A

Interlobular ducts
Bile canaliculi

330
Q

How many openings does the cat have in its duodenum?

A

Just one with common bile duct and pancreatic duct together!`

331
Q

What is the space of Disse

A

Fenestrated endothelium of the endothelium allowing for mixing of blood with cells

332
Q

What are the cells in the liver responsible for cleaning the blood?

A

Kupffer cells

333
Q

What cells of the liver are responsible for the metabolic function?

A

Hepatocytes

334
Q

What are the 3 functions of bile?

A

Emulsification of fat
Aid in absorption of digested fats
Secretion of substances through biliary tract (like bilirubin)

335
Q

What percent of bile acids are reabsorbed and where are they reabsorbed?

A

95% in the ileum

336
Q

What is a bile marker of a sick liver?

A

Sick hepatocytes will have a decreased ability to extract bile acids from portal blood.
Assay of systemic levels of bile acid is used clinically as a sensitive indicator of hepatic disease

337
Q

What is the hormone that causes an increase in bile secretion?

A

Secretin

338
Q

What causes the yellowing of skin during liver disease?

A

Inability to remove bilirubin from blood (jaundice or icterus)

339
Q

What is bilirubin?

A

A useless and toxic breakdown of hemoglobin

340
Q

What is conserved during RBC digestion?

A

Iron

341
Q

What are the steps to eliminating heme?

A

1) Heme is converted into free bilirubin inside phagocytes cell
2) Free bilirubin is stripped off albumin and absorbed by hepatocytes
3) Conjugated bilirubin is secreted into the bile canaliculus as part of bile and this delivered to the small intestine

342
Q

What does high bilirubin indicate?

A

Liver dysfunction

343
Q

Where does portal blood flow from?

A

Intestines
Pancreas
Spleen
Stomach

344
Q

What are 2 mechanisms in liver disease?

A

Decreased synthesis of clotting factors
Vitamin K deficiency

345
Q

What are fat soluble vitamins?

A

A, D, E, K

346
Q

What are water soluble vitamins?

A

B

347
Q

What are the 2 phases to liver metabolism?

A

Primary oxidation (convert active > active, inactive> active, bio activate > toxic compound)
Primary Conjugation

348
Q

What are targets of hepatoencephalopathy?

A

Astrocytes

349
Q

What is the acronym for complications with liver disease?

A

CANINE

350
Q

What are markers of increased hepatic activity (hepatic necrosis)

A

ALT (high in injury), AST (not liver specific and short half-life), SDH

351
Q

What are markers of cholestasis?

A

ALP, GGT

352
Q

What are the 2 primary liver function tests?

A

Serum bile acids
Blood ammonia levels

353
Q

What is the primary indicator for portosystemic shunt?

A

Blood Ammonia

354
Q

What does the pancreas secrete?

A

Bicarbonate
Digestive enzymes

355
Q

What are 3 functions of the pancreas?

A

Secretion (bicarbonate, digestive enzymes)
Intrinsic factors for B12 absorption (in ileum)
Trypsin inhibitor (to not auto digest)

356
Q

How are pancreatic cells not autodigested?

A

Digestive enzymes are secreted in inactive form
Duodenal wall secretes enterokinase to activate inactive enzymes

357
Q

What inhibits insulin secretion?

A

Amylin

358
Q

What inhibits both insulin and glucagon?

A

Somatostatin

359
Q

What is first phase of insulin secretion

A

3-5 minutes after increase of blood glucose, beta cells secrete first wave of insulin

360
Q

Wha this phase 2 of insulin secretion

A

If high blood glucose is maintained, more insulin is produced and a sustained level of blood glucose occurs at about 2-3 hours

361
Q

What 2 hormones are needed for growth?

A

Insulin and growth hormone

362
Q

What duct goes to the gallbladder?

A

Cystic duct

363
Q

What is the chemical that causes the contraction of the gallbladder?

A

CCK

364
Q

What are the biochemical markers in the liver that allude to disease caused from hepatocellular origins

A

ALT, AST, LDH, SDA, Argininase

365
Q

What are enzymes responsible for cholestasis?

A

ALP and GGT

366
Q

Are ALP and ALT markers of liver functions?

A

NO!

367
Q

Is elevated ALP in cats or dogs more concerning?

A

Cats!

368
Q

Does the cat have an accessory pancreatic duct?

A

NO

369
Q

What do the duct cells do for the pancreas

A

Secrete bicarbonate, water, cations, and anions

370
Q

What is the pancreas’ role in absorbing B12 (cobalamin)

A

Release of intrinsic factors for B12 to be absorbed in the ileum

371
Q

What is the gallbladder lined with?

A

Simple columnar

372
Q

Where is the gall bladder located?

A

Between quadrate and right medial lobe

373
Q

Are bands found on the rumen digestive system?

A

NOPE!

374
Q

Can hypomotility be treated with drugs in cats? Dogs?

A

Cats: yes
Dogs: no

375
Q

What is the most common emetic used in dogs?

A

Apomorphine

376
Q

What is the most common emetic in cats?

A

Xylazine

Anatomy (26 decks)

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