Healthy Animals Block 1 Flashcards
(263 cards)
1
Q
What are the 2 types of glands?
A
Exocrine and endocrine
2
Q
What is an endocrine gland?
A
Secrete products in extra cellular space where it is taken up into the blood vascular system
3
Q
What is an exocrine gland?
A
Secrete products into a gland where they are taken to the free surface, either the lumen of an organ or the onto the free surface of the epithelium.
4
Q
What is a merocrine gland?
A
Uses secretory vesicles to the lumpen of the gland
5
Q
What is a holocrine gland?
A
Death of entire cell and product sloughs off into the lumen of the gland
6
Q
What is an apocrine gland?
A
Release of budding vesicles (parts of the cell)
7
Q
What are gap junctions
A
They connect the cytoplasm of two cells
8
Q
Where do hemidesmosomes attach
A
To the basement membrane
9
Q
Where do desmosomes attach?
A
To bordering cells (not basement)
10
Q
What are the 3 components of connective tissue extracellular matrix
A
Protein fibers, glycoproteins, proteoglycans
11
Q
What are the 3 types of extracellular fibers?
A
Collagenous fibers, elastic fibers, reticular fibers
12
Q
What are the 2 non-cellular biological materials that make the connective tissue
A
Fiber component and ground substance
13
Q
What is a large chain of collagen molecules called?
A
Fibril -> fibers
14
Q
What are the 5 types of collagen
A
1-5
15
Q
What is type 1 collagen?
A
Found in every connective tissue
16
Q
What is type 2 collagen
A
Found in hyaline and elastic cartilage and in vitreous of eye
17
Q
What is type 3 collagen
A
Found in reticular fibers, healing wounds, smooth muscle, and fetal skin
18
Q
What is type 4 collagen
A
Found in basal laminae of epithelia
19
Q
What is type 5 collagen
A
Found in placental basal laminae, tendons, and muscle sheath
20
Q
What is ground substance?
A
Aqueous gel of glycoproteins and proteoglycans
21
Q
What do fibroblasts secrete
A
Both collagen and ground substance
22
Q
What is are 2 examples of specialized connective tissue?
A
White and brown adipose
23
Q
What are the 4 types of connective tissue
A
Dense irregular, loose irregular, dense regular, and embryonic connective tissue
24
Q
What are the holes that chondrocytes are found in called?
A
Lacunae
25
What are the 3 types of cartilage?
Hyaline cartilage, elastic cartilage, fibrocartilage
26
Where is fibrocartilage found and what type of collagen makes it up
Type 1 collagen and found at attachment points for tendons, intervertebral discs, and symphysis between bones
27
Where is elastic cartilage found and what collage makes it up
Type 2 and the pin a of the ear, the turbinates of the nose, and the epiglottis
28
Where is hyaline cartilage found and what collagen type makes it up
Type 1 and articular surface in joints
29
What are the two types of epithelium genres
Lining epithelium and glandular epithelium
30
What type of gland is a sebaceous sweat gland?
Holocrine
31
What type of gland is an apocrine sweat gland?
Apocrine
32
What is the outer membrane of most organs called?
And what is it made of?
Serosa made of mesothelium
33
What is the term for keratinized cells?
Cornification
34
What is the function of reticulin in cartilage?
Acts as a net to hold cells of an organ together
35
What is the only type of connective tissue without vascularation
Cartilage
36
What can smooth and cardiac muscle react to that skeletal muscle cannot?
Catecholamines (epinephrine and norepinephrine)
37
What is myoepithelium
A specialized type of epithelium located around glands that can contract and move it onto the surface
38
What is myofibroblasts?
Seen in healing wounds and assists in maturation and contraction of granulation tissue
39
What muscle type causes shivering?
Skeletal
40
What is a synonym to muscle cell?
Muscle fiber
41
What are the 3 layers of connective tissue that encloses muscles from highest to lowest order?
What type of connective tissue is it?
Epimysium, perimysium, endomysium
Dense irregular connective tissue
42
Where are the nuclei located on skeletal muscles? How many nuclei are in a skeletal muscle?
In the periphery
Many
43
What is the individual muscle bundle within the perimysium called?
The fascicle
44
What is the cytoplasm of a muscle cell called?
Sarcoplasm
45
What is the plasma membrane of a muscle cell called?
Sarcolemma
46
What is the smooth ER that controls the release of calcium called?
Sarcoplasmic reticulum (SR)
47
What is the functional unit of skeletal muscle called?
Sarcomere
48
What is a chain of sarcomeres called?
A myofibril
49
Where, specifically, is cardiac muscle found?
In the myocardium
50
Where is the nucleus of cardiac muscle and how many nuclei does it have?
Middle and singular (usually)
51
What is the purpose of intercalated discs
Alls contraction of cardiac muscle in a coordinated manor through gap junctions and desmosomes.
52
How can you tell the difference between smooth muscle and connective tissue?
The nuclei of smooth muscle is longer than in fibroblasts
53
What is the organic component (type 1 collagen + ground substance) called
Osteoid
54
What is the inorganic matrix of bone?
Calcium hydroxyapatite
55
What is all normal bone in adults called?
Lamellar bone
56
What is the difference between osteoblasts and osteocytes
Osteoblasts produce bone and line the edge of growing bone while osteocytes are embedded in lacunae within the bone matrix
57
What are the long cytoplasmic processes of osteocytes called?
Canaliculi
58
What are the roles of osteocytes?
They play and important role in detecting local changes in the micro environment looking for stress, micro fractures, and micronutrient concentrations.
59
What is the outside portion of bone called?
Cortical bone
60
What is the inside portion of bone called?
Trabecular bone
61
What recruits an osteoclast to the bone?
Osteoblasts recruit osteoclasts
62
What do osteoclasts secrete to break down bone?
Carbonic acid and proteinases
63
What is the scalloped region created by the osteoclast called?
Howship’s lacuna
64
What is the bone type of immature animals
Woven bone
65
What is an osteon (long answer)
A Haversian canal (center of osteon) is an osteon which is a structure that has a cutting cone where osteoclasts line the front, continuously cutting away while osteoblasts line the bottom of the cone, constantly rebuilding with a blood vessel running up the middle, aka the Haversian canal. Cool!!
66
What is the term for changes in bone size and shape?
Modeling, how bone responds to loading
67
What is Wolff’s Law?
Bone shape will adapt to use
68
What is the process of removing bone in one place and replacing it in another?
Remodeling
69
What are the 2 ways that bone can grow?
Membranous ossification and endochondralmossification
70
Where does membranous ossification usually occur?
Flat bones like skull and mandible
71
Where does endochondral ossification usually occur?
Long bones
72
What is the growing plate of a long bone called?
The physis
73
What are the 4 zones of endochondral ossification from most chondral to bone
Zone of reserve cartilage, Zone of proliferation, zone of hypertrophy, zone of calcification
74
Where is the only region to find chondroblasts?
Perichondrium (surrounding tissue of hyaline, only present during period of growth or injury)
75
Since hyaline cartilage is avascular, what nourishes the cells?
Synovial fluid
76
What are the fibers of tendons that anchor into bone called?
Sharpey’s fibers
77
What are the specialized cardiac cells that lack T tubules and aid in conduction system?
Purkinje fibers
78
What triggers the release of neurotransmitters in a neuron?
Depolarization
79
What units is the resting potential measured in?
Millivolts (mV)
80
What is the resting potential?
-90mV (negative charge on the inside of the membrane)
81
What cellular mechanism is responsible for creating the membrane potential and how many of each is pumped? And what does it require?
ATP dependent Na K pumps pumps 3 Na out and 2K into the cell which actually creates a -4mV potential because 1 more positive molecule is moved outside than inside
82
After the ATP dependent sodium potassium channel, what is the next step in polarization?
A potassium leak channel allows only potassium to diffuse down its concentration gradient to allow the buildup of - proteins on the membrane to build up
83
What initiates the action potential?
The voltage gated sodium channel opens allowing sodium to flood into the neuron and depolarize the cell.
84
Although the brain makes up 2% of body weight, it uses how much energy
15%
85
Describe the steps of repolarization
Voltage gated sodium channel is closed, voltage gated potassium channel is opened, Na/K pump is restarted
86
How do neurons get ATP energy?
They use aerobic (needs lots of oxygen) glycolysis because it yields the most energy
87
What and how stabilizes the outside gate of the voltage gated sodium channel
Ca++ stabilizes the outside gate between -90 and -50. Decreases in 50% of calcium can cause wrongful firing of the neurons
88
What initiates the fusion of neurotransmitter ventricles to the membrane?
Depolarization activates voltage gated calcium channels and the influx causes neurotransmitters to bind to the membrane
89
What are the 2 general types of neuro receptors on the post synaptic membrane? And their speed of action?
Ion channel (quick and fast)
Enzyme receptors (long and slow) up to years
90
What are the 2 possible outcomes of receptor binding to the post synaptic cleft? And what are their actions?
Inhibitory (opening of potassium channels) or excitatory (opening of sodium channels)
91
What is excitotoxicity?
When there is an excessive release of excitatory neurotransmitters from an injured or degenerating nerve (like releasing excessive glutamate which will cause binding to a receptor)
92
What are dilated segments of an axon called?
Spheroids
93
What happens when an axon or neuron dies in the CNS?
It’s gone… no regeneration
94
What happens when an axon or neuron dies in the PNS?
Schwann cells help to regenerate it
95
What are glial cells
Glial cells are supporting non-neuronal cells of the neural system
96
What is the insulation made by glial cells and what is it made of?
Lipid and myelin
97
What are the exposed patches of axon through myelin?
Nodes of Ranvier
98
What is the process of jumping charges from node of ranvier called?
Saltatory conduction
99
What are the 2 benefits to myelination?
Faster and requires less energy
100
What are the glial cells called in the CNS?
Oligodendrocytes, forms with multiple other axons
101
What are glial cells of the PNS?
Schwann cells (one cell per myelon)
102
What is a neurilemmal tract?
A neurilemmal tract is basement membrane and collage that are on Schwann cells opposite of the axon that allows for regrowth of the PNS
103
What is primary and secondary demyelination and how can you tell the difference
Primary is simply loss of that myelin cell by damage. Secondary is the loss of tropic factors due to the neuron dying. It is primary demyelination if the neuron/axon is still there, if it isn’t then it is secondary
104
What are causes of primary demyelination?
Viral infection, immune mediated, metabolic damage, and toxins (rat poisoning)
105
Which type of myelin is easier to replace?
Schwann since one cell is responsible for one axon part while oligodendricites are responsible for 20-50 axons
106
What are the 6 functions of astrocytes
Metabolic support, regulate tissue water content, direct formation of blood brain barrier, support neuronal signal transduction, scar tissue of the CNS, and scaffold for development
107
What are microglia and how are they recruited?
Microglia are immune cells of the nervous system that are recruited by DAMPs, PAMPs, and interferons.
108
Where are neuron cell bodies located?
Grey matter
109
Why is grey matter on the outside of the brain?
This is because it requires a high level of vascularity and that’s what gives it the pink color
110
What is white matter?
These are bundles of axons connecting parts of the brain. Super myelin rich and so it’s high in fat, low vascular density
111
What is Nissl?
Nissl is in the cytoplasm of neuron bodies that are rough endoplasmic reticulum
112
What is purkinje cells?
Large cell bodies that communicate with extensive dendrites in molecular cell layer
113
What is a ganglion?
Ganglion are aggregates of neurons in the PNS
114
What are the equivalent of astrocytes in the PNS
Sustentacular cells
115
What does the dorsal horn receive?
Sensory inputs
116
What does the lateral horn receive?
Autonomic inputs
117
What does the ventral horn receive?
Motor inputs
118
What are the PNS connective tissue packaging called. Small to largest?
Endoneurium, perineurium, epineurium
119
What is the path of cerebral spinal fluid? And which ventricles are they produced?
Lateral ventricles, interventricular foramen, third ventricle, mesencephalic aqueduct, fourth ventricle (lateral ventricle, third and fourth ventricle)
120
What structure produced cerebral spinal fluid?
Choroid plexus
121
What cell is responsible for circulating CSF
Epemdymal cells (cilia)
122
What is the meninges and what are the layers?
Meninges is a barrier of the skull made up of 2 major layers. The dura mater and the arachnoid membrane + pia mater
123
What brain vein dives into the brain via the dura mater
The dorsal Sagittarius venous sinus
124
Domesticated and wild refer to?
Populations
125
Feral and tame refers to
Individuals (no “tame species”)
126
What are the 2 processes of domestication?
Artificial selection and natural selection (genetics for both)
127
What are some traits that favor domestication?
Social groups, promiscuous mating, parental-offspring bonding, short flight distance, docility
128
What are some traits that limit domestication?
Monogamous mating, small social groups, specialized diets, agility, poor climate adaptability
129
What is the retention of juvenile traits in older animals?
Neoteny
130
What is the longest standing domesticated species
Canis familiaris from canis lupus
131
What were chickens (gallus gallus domesticus) originally domesticated for?
Fighting and sacrifice
132
Where were horses (equus caballus) originally domesticated and for what purpose?
SE Europe, meat and hide production
133
Where were cattle (Bos Taurus and bos indicus) originally domesticated?
SW Asia
134
What were pigs and sheep domesticated from respectively?
Boars and mouflon
135
What are the 5 types of social structures amongst animals?
Solitary, pairs, packs, matriarchal groups, or harems
136
What are species examples of solitary animals?
Bears, hamsters, large felines
137
What are species examples of pairs?
Foxes and birds
138
What are the 6 types of pair bonds?
Short-term, long-term, lifelong, social, clandestine, and dynamic
139
What is a short-term pair bond?
Transient mating or associations (meadow voles)
140
What is a long term pair bond?
Bonded for a significant period of the life cycle (cockatoos and penguins)
141
What is a lifelong pairbond?
Mated for life (snowy owls, prairie voles)
142
What is a social pair bond?
Territorial and social reasons, NOT sexual (swans)
143
What is a clandestine pair bond?
Quick extra-pair copulations (chimp and humans) has monogamous relationship but will mate outside of mate when opportunity arises.
144
What is a dynamic pairbond?
Like swingers, you have a mate but you also associate with other pairs
145
What is a harem?
Single male lives with group of females (horses)
146
In a pack, does every individual breed every year?
No, just 1-2 breeding pairs are designated and the whole pack with care for this animal
147
What does RHP stand for and what is it?
RHP=resource holding potential. Potential to win an all-out fight
148
What are the 4 types of hierarchies?
Linear: linear line of dominance (birds)
Triangular: triangle “a is dominant of b, b is dominant of c, but c is dominant of a” cows
Despotic: one dominant all others are equal (domestic cats)
Complex: semi linear line with triangular hierarchies sprinkled in (most species)
149
What is dominance?
Predictable relationship between 2 individual of the SAME SPECIES over MULTIPLE INTERACTIONS. Not a personality trait, an animal isn’t “dominant” it is only “dominant over X”
150
How is dominance determined?
Repeated agonistic behaviors between two individuals (activities related to aggression)
151
What is displacement behavior
A normal behavior that is done out of context (like twirling hair or pacing or grooming or sniffing)
152
What are signs that a dog is in the green zone?
Basically everything is relaxed, normal pupils, weight evenly distributed
Play bow can be used as a displacement behavior (if back is straight, this isn’t a play bow)
153
What are signs a dog is in the yellow zone?
Licking, yawning, whale eye, expose belly and hold up a paw, dilated pupils
154
What are signs a dog is in the red zone?
Tail is up and stiff, weight forward, piloerection, showing teeth, pupils dilated with hard stare
155
What are signs of a cat in the green
Normal pupils, ears slightly forward, eyes are “heavy”
156
What are signs of a cat in the yellow?
Ears are erected to front or back, tail is close to the body, pupils dilated
157
What are signs of a cat in red?
Pupils fully dilated, sounds, ears are flattened, tail is tucked
158
What is the neonatal period In dogs and cats respectively
0-13 days and 0-9 days
159
What is the transitional period in dogs and cats respectively?
14-20 days and 9-14 days
160
What is the socialization period of dogs and cats respectively?
3-12 weeks and 2-7 weeks
161
When is the first fear period for dogs? And second?
8-10 weeks and 4-11 months
162
What is the juvenile period in dogs and cats?
3-6 months and 7weeks to 5 months
163
What is the action of showing maternal behaviors toward a neonate that is not theirs called
Concaveation
164
What is the difference between precocial and altricial
Precocial are neonates that are born with the capability to walk, stand, and socialize immediately after birth why
I’ll altricial are neonates that are relatively helpless after birth
165
What is the difference between hiders and followers
All altricial and some precocial. Hiders are kept in nests or close to birthing site so mother can go off and hunt (rabbits, deer, and anyone who builds a nest)
Followers are asked to follow their mother in her daily business so obtain food
166
What is social facilitation?
Behavior of one individual that directs others to engage in that behavior (herd movement, eating, migration, stampedes)
167
What are some benefits of play behavior?
Practice adult behaviors, develop physical skills, development of social skills
168
How do feral cats act in regions of scarce resources and abundant resources respectively?
Scare resources: live alone
Abundant resources: live in group, communal rearing, men alone
169
What are the 3 types of canine sociality?
Type I: temporary pair binding, makes aid in rearing of young but solitary the rest of the year
Type II: permanent pair bond, live with young throughout breeding season
Type III: pack canines, 1 breeding pair at a time and communal rearing, communal hunting
170
Why are wolves in captivity not a pack
Usually just a bunch of unrelated individuals that come together. Agnostic behavior will usually occur to solidify a hierarchy
171
Are free range feral dogs in a pack (type III)
No
172
How do large groups of neutered dogs differ in social structure?
No reproductive competition (because they can’t have kids), no clear alpha or beta individuals, no overriding structures by they form dyads
173
How is leadership generally decided in feral cow herds?
Through age, body size, and horn size
174
How does social hierarchy work in dairy herds?
Not straight forward certain cows may value certain resources over other cows. Brushed, food, or water may all have different hierarchies
175
What is an alternative for calf housing for additional social interactions?
Pair housing
176
What is the purpose of a gestation stall?
Protects sows from fighting also easier to track nutrition
177
What is the purpose of a farrowing stall?
Allows sow to lay down and feed piglets and not crush the piglets
178
What’s the ideal group size for swine?
Either small or really really big
179
What is the SAM response?
Sympathetic: increased alertness heart rate respiration rate pupil dilation
180
What are the 4 F’s (high arousal animals)
Fight, flight, freeze, fidget
181
What color would a cow in heat fall under?
Yellow
182
What are some causes of stress in cows?
Isolation, novelty, poor handling
183
What are the 3 levels of emotional states in horses?
Comfort, alert, survival
184
What is social facilitation in horses
Keeping a horse with another horse during treatment to maintain a social state
185
What zone does frequent pooping occur in horses?
Red
186
If there is nasal flaring, what color would you put a horse under?
Yellow
187
If a horses head is low and ears are pinned, what level would you put this horse?
Red
188
How often do cats urinate normally?
2-4 times a day
189
How often do cats defecate?
1 time a day
190
What’s the cat’s normal routine when peeing?
Dig, sniff (18s) , cover (12s)
191
How often do puppies and dogs urinate respectively?
2-4 and 1-2
192
How often do cows pee and poop respectively?
5-13 and 7-15
193
What are the welfare laws associated with social contact of horses?
They need auditory, olfactory, and visual contact
194
What occurs during trekking of horses? Social organization?
Lead mare in front and stallion in back
195
What is the neonatal phase of horses?
Birth to first suckling
196
What is the transitional phase of horses?
A few minutes to a few hours , begin following behavior
197
What is the social phase of horses?
3 weeks to 3 months (social play increases)
198
What is the juvenile phase of horses?
3 months to 3-5 years
199
What is the juvenile phase of horses?
3 months to 3-5 years (changes in social structure)
200
What is the adult phase of horses?
5 years to 15 years
201
What is the senior phase of horses?
Above 15 years
202
What is the cathode of an x ray machine and what does it do?
Tungsten filaments that (mA) dictates the current passing through the cathode
203
What is the anode and what does it do?
Tungsten and is the target of the electrons coming off of the cathode. The cathode is negative (anode positive)
204
What is Bremsstrahlung?
The electrons slow as it passes through the nucleus of the tungsten. This energy is released as an XRay photon
205
What is characteristic radiation?
Electron hits and ejects an inner shell electron. Out she’ll electron drops in which releases energy as photon
206
What is collimating?
Paired lead sheets that reduce scatter of x rays
207
What 4 things does x ray photon attenuation depend on?
X ray energy, tissue thickness, physical density, and atomic number.
208
What is the photoelectric effect?
Very useful to radiology, responsible for the contrast on an image
209
What is the Compton effect?
Responsible for scatter due to outer electron being kicked out of orbit. Makes contrast in areas that aren’t accurate to anatomy
210
What is mAs
It is the amount of current times the amount of seconds (cathode)
211
What is kVp?
Speed of electrons (anode)
212
What is the “technique” ratio and what is the outcome of higher technique?
Aka the exposure, kVp/mAs, and darker image
If you’re overexposed, you need to reduce the kVp
213
What happens when you double mAs? What happens when you add 10% to kVp?
Double mAs= film density doubles
Add 10% to kVp = film density doubles
214
What is the inverse square law?
X ray beam intensity increases or decreases as a square of the change in distance (1m = 1 unit, 2 = 4 units)
215
Important: what are the 5 radiographic opacities?
Metal, mineral, soft tissue, fat, gas
Doesn’t mean it has to be made of that material, it just appears as that opacity
216
What happens to contrast as kVp increases and decrease respectively?
Contrast decreases with high kVp and increases with lower kVp
217
Where should the area of interest in a radiograph be in reference to the table?
Closest to table, further away creates a larger shadow
218
What is the difference between digital and analog x rays
Digital allows for the image to be on a computer while analog is the old fashion films
219
What is computed radiography? Plus advantage and disadvantage
There is a plate reader that converts the latent image to digital image (first digital radiograph). Essentially analog is converted to digital
Advantage: Don’t have to buy a whole new x ray machine
Disadvantage: need a film reader and it takes 30-60 seconds to read
220
What is direct digital radiography?
X ray hits photoconductors which is read by a computer and produce image
221
What is indirect digital radiography?
Converts x ray to visible light and the visible light to electric signal
222
What does DICOM stand form?
Digital image communication in medicine (allows communication of images with different devices)
223
What does PACS stand for?
Picture archival and communication system
224
What are the 2 types of radiation?
Particulate and electromagnetic
225
What is direct ionizing action?
Liberated electron interacts directly with the target
226
What is indirect ionizing energy?
A free radical is formed from interacting with water molecule
227
What does ALARA stand for?
As low as reasonably possible
228
What is ultrasound “gain”
Adjustment of image brightness
229
What is ultrasound TGC “time gain compensation”?
Near and far gain (deeper tissues need more)
230
What does echogenicity mean?
Opacity equivalent (shades of grey)
231
What is anechoic
Sound echos are transmitted through (black)
232
What is hypoechoic
Few echos are returned to probe (dairy grey)
233
What is isoechoic?
Many echoes are returned to probe (light grey)
234
What is hyperechoic
Most echoes are returned to probe (white)
235
Which side of the body is the tibia on?
Medial
236
Which side of the body is the fibular on?
Lateral
237
What is a axial vs abaxial
Axial is on the side of the axis(3rd and 4th tow) while abaxial is on the other side
238
What are the two bones of the thoracic girdle?
Scapula and clavicle
239
What is the anatomical term for the arm
Brachium
240
What is the anatomical term for the forearm
Antebrachium
241
What are the 3 bones of the hand
Pharyngeas, metacarpal, and carpal bones
242
What are the names of the first 2 cervical vertebrae?
Atlas and axis
243
How many cervical vertebrae are there?
7
244
How many thoracic vertebrae are there?
13
245
How many lumbar vertebrae are there?
7
246
How many sacral vertebrae are there?
3
247
How many coccygeal vertebrae are there?
20ish
248
What are the 2 muscles that make up the jugular groove?
Sternocephalicus and brachiocephalicus
249
What 3 components make up the carotid sheath?
Internal jugular, common carotid, vasosympathetic trunk
250
What 2 muscles make up the compound muscle sternocephalicus?
Pars mastoideus and pars occipitalis
251
What are the 3 muscles we need to know for this exam….
Sternohyoidius, sternocephalicus, brachiocephalicus
252
Where does the sternohyoiduis run?
Ventral to trachea
253
What 2 muscles make up the compound muscle of brachiocephalicus?
Cleidobrachialis and cleidocephalics. Intersection at clavicular intersection
254
When can puppies hear and see?
When can kittens hear and see?
Puppies hear 3 weeks and see 14 days
Kittens hear 5 days and see 7-19 days
255
What are the 3 types of myofilaments
Actin, myosin, titin
256
What’s the organization of muscle components from myofiber
Myofiber, myofibril, sarcomere, myofilament (actin, myosin, titin)
257
What are the 4 important proteins of skeletal and cardiac muscle?
Actin, myosin, troponin, tropomyosin
258
What is the role of titin?
It prevents over stretching
259
What is troponin and tropomyosin respectively
Troponin and tropomyosin are the same thing I think that blocks the actin filaments from being bound in the absence of calcium
260
What is the purpose of t tubules
Store ca and release when muscle contracts. Part of sarcoplasmic reticulum
261
What are white fibers?
Fast fibers, mostly are glycolytic (use glycolysis, anaerobic)
262
What are red fibers?
Slow muscles (aerobic) slower and less prevalent, more mitochondria
263
What are the steps of muscle contraction on the myosin level?
Release of calcium moves troponin and tropomyosin out of way, ATP is bound to myosin, ATP hydrolysis causing cocking and release which attached myosin to filament and pulls the actin toward M line, ADP and phosphate are released and ATP binds again
