Forgotten PowerPoints Flashcards

1
Q

Where is most iron in the body?

A

In RBC

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2
Q

What binds O2 in the RBC?

A

Iron

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3
Q

How is iron transported from the small intestine to the BM?

A

Using transferrin

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4
Q

What causes Iron deficiency?

A

Chronic blood loss

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5
Q

What organs is iron stored in?

A

Liver
Spleen
Bone marrow

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6
Q

What is iron stored as?

A

Ferritin
Hemosiderin

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7
Q

Where is hemosiderin found?

A

Golden brown in macrophages

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8
Q

What are causes of iron deficiency anemia? (IDA)

A

GI blood loss due to internal or external parasites
Ulcers from NSAIDs or ulcerated tumors in GI tract

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9
Q

Why is iron deficiency in nursing animals common?

A

Milk is a poor source of iron (specifically piglets)

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10
Q

What is the most common cause of microcytic, hypochromic RBCs?

A

Iron deficiency anemia (IDA)

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11
Q

Is IDA regenerative or nonregenerative?

A

Can be either

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12
Q

What happens to platelets in IDA?

A

Thrombocytosis
Unknown causes

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13
Q

What will extravascular hemolysis do to plasma?

A

Extravascular hemolysis will make plasma look icteric

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14
Q

What will intravascular hemolysis do to plasma?

A

It will make the plasma look red

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15
Q

What are the 3 products of RBC metabolism?

A

Globin, Iron, and heme

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16
Q

What happens to globin from RBC metabolism?

A

Globin becomes amino acids go to proteins

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17
Q

What happens to iron from RBC metabolism?

A

Transported back to tissues and stored as hemosiderin or ferritin

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18
Q

What happens to heme from RBC digestion?

A

Metabolized to unconjugated bilirubin and is carried to liver

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19
Q

How does the unconjugated bilirubin get to the liver?

A

Binds to albumin for transport (not lost in urine because it is bound to albumin)

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20
Q

Once in the liver, what happens to bilirubin?

A

Conjugated by hepatocytes and is excreted in the bile

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21
Q

What species has higher bilirubin?

A

Horses

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22
Q

Where is extravascular hemolysis undergo phagocytosis?

A

Spleen

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23
Q

What are causes of hemolytic anemia?

A

IMHA
Oxidative damage
Infection
Environmental issues

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24
Q

What is the most common cause of hemolytic anemia in dogs?

A

IMHA

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25
Q

What animal is IMHA most common in?

A

Middle Aged
Female
Cocker Spaniel

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26
Q

What type of hemolysis does IMHA cause?

A

Extravascular hemolysis

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27
Q

What is a common clinical finding associated with IMHA?

A

Hyperbilirubenmia (icteric mucous membranes and dark urine)

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28
Q

What is PIMA

A

Precursor immune-mediated anemia (in bone marrow)

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29
Q

What is a test that can be used to confirm IMHA?

A

Coombs’ Test

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30
Q

What is oxidative damage?

A

Oxidative damage to RBC membrane causes eccentrocyte formation or Heinz bodies

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31
Q

What happens if there is oxidative damage to iron?

A

Methemoglobin (unable to carry oxygen)

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32
Q

What are causes of oxidative damage?

A

Plans and drugs/toxins

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33
Q

What are the zones of the adrenal gland in order?

A

Zona glomerulosa
Zona fasciculata
Zona reticularis
(GFR)

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34
Q

What does Zona glomerulosa produce?

A

Mineralcorticoids

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35
Q

What does Zona fasciculata produce?

A

Glucocorticoids

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36
Q

What does Zona reticularis produce?

A

Androgens

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37
Q

What does the medulla produce?

A

Catecholamines

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38
Q

What is the most common Mineralcorticoids?

A

Aldosterone

39
Q

What is the most common glucocorticoid?

A

Cortisol

40
Q

What are androgens?

A

Sex hormone

41
Q

What do glucocorticoids do?

A

Carbohydrate and protein metabolism

42
Q

What do mineralcorticoids do?

A

Related to electrolyte and water metabolism

43
Q

What is the first 2 molecules in the synthesis pathway of steroids?

A

Acetate > cholesterol

44
Q

What is the least potent glucocorticoid?

A

Corticosterone

45
Q

What hormone activates the adrenal cortex?

A

ACTH

46
Q

What are the levels of dosing for Pred DOSING?!?

A

Physiologic: 0.1-0.25 mg/kg/day
Anti-inflammatory: 1 mg/kg/day
Immunosuppressive: 2.2 mg/kg/day

47
Q

Which steroids have the fastest onset?

A

Aqueous solutions of soluble steroid esters
Free steroid alcohols

48
Q

What are some side effects of steroid use?

A

ALP (increased liver parameters)
Diabetes Mellitus
GI bleeding
Sepsis
Cushing or Addisons

49
Q

What would a pituitary tumor cause?

A

Excess ACTH and Cushing’s Disease

50
Q

What is the dosing of dexamethasone and what doesn’t it have?

A

1/7 does of pred
No Mineralcorticoids activity

51
Q

What is a big hormonal stimuli for aldosterone secretion in the Zona glomerulosa?

A

Angiotensin II (ATII)

52
Q

What are the 2 main regulators of aldosterone secretion?

A

Angiotensin II and potassium concentration

53
Q

High potassium and high ATII increases aldosterone secretion

A
54
Q

What does aldosterone do in the kidney?

A

Increases NaKATPase
Conserves sodium and water and excretes potassium

55
Q

What are the 2 types of androgens?

A

Dehydroepiandrosterone (weak effect)
Anabolic steroids (strong effect)

56
Q

What does Catecholamines affect?

A

Neurotransmitters

57
Q

What is the starting point of Catecholamines synthesis?

A

Tyrosine

58
Q

What is the end point of Catecholamine synthesis?

A

either norepinephrine or epinephrine

59
Q

What is the degradation product of epinephrine?

A

Metanephrine or normetanephrine

60
Q

What are enzymes that metabolize catecholamines?

A

Catecol-O-methyl transferase (COMT)
Mona mine oxidase (MAO)

61
Q

What type of receptor does norepinephrine target?

A

Alpha (little beta)

62
Q

What type of receptor does epinephrine target?

A

Alpha and beta equally

63
Q

What drug causes dilation of pupils?

A

Norepinephrine

64
Q

What are 2 strong stimulators of aldosterone?

A

Angiotensin II and hyperkalemia

65
Q

What do catecholamines have effects on?

A

sympathetic nervous system

66
Q

What is a serious adrenal medulla tumor called?

A

Pheochromocytoma

67
Q

What is NNN anemia

A

Nonregenerative
Normocytic
Normochromic

68
Q

What does NNN anemia mean?

A

Non regenerative
Normochromic
Normocytic

69
Q

What is a specific toxin caused my hemolytic anemia?

A

Zinc toxicity

70
Q

What cell shows up in zinc toxicity?

A

Eccentrocytes

71
Q

What is a really common breed/sex of ITP and what it ITP?

A

Female cocker spaniel
Immune mediated thrombocytopenia

72
Q

How long after hemorrhage/hemolysis will it take to detect a reticulocyte response?

A

3-5 days

73
Q

What type of anemia are animals treated with NSAIDs or aspirin more likely to get?

A

Iron deficiency anemia due to ulceration

74
Q

Does IDA have high or low platelets?

A

HIGH! (Thrombocytosis)

75
Q

What color plasma is extravascular hemolysis?

A

Yellow

76
Q

What color plasma is intravascular hemolysis?

A

Red

77
Q

How much conjugated bilirubin is reabsorbed?

A

10%

78
Q

What type of RBC will you see with damage to RBC membrane due to oxidative damage

A

Eccentrocyte

79
Q

What type of RBC will you see with oxidative damage to the hemoglobin

A

Heinz body

80
Q

What forms with oxidative damage to iron in RBC?

A

Methemoglobin

81
Q

What does LQM stand for?

A

Laboratory quality management

82
Q

What is thrombopoiesis regulated by?

A

Thrombopoetin (TPO) like EPO

83
Q

What type of tube is used for a platelet count?

A

Sodium citrate tube

84
Q

What type of leukogram is really common in horses under 2?

A

Physiological leukogram!

85
Q

What species does monocytosis actually happen in a stress leukogram?

A

Dogs (maybe not in other species)

86
Q

What are common reasons for neutropenia?***

A

Endotoxins
Neoplasia
FeLV
FIV
Parvovirus
Bovine viral diarrhea
Drugs

87
Q

What do GPIIb/IIIa bind to?

A

Fibrinogen

88
Q

What is idiopathic congenital macrothrompocytopenia?

A

Megakaryocytes do a worse job producing macrothrombocytes so less platelets are produced
Common in Cavalier King Charles spaniels

89
Q

Why do NSAIDs and aspirin decrease platelet function?

A

Blocks thromboxane (TXAII) production. TXAII is needed for activating GPIIb/IIIa

90
Q

What pathway does antithrombin III most inhibit

A

Intrinsic and common

91
Q

What does ATIII need to bind to activate?

A

Heparin

92
Q

How do you measure plasma concentrations of FDPs?

A

Agglutination test

93
Q

What are reactive lymphocytes caused by?

A

Antigenic activation