Bone & Joint Infections Flashcards

(51 cards)

1
Q

What is the typical cause of paediatric osteomyelitis?

A

Hematogenous spread, mostly due to Staphylococcus aureus (90%).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Which organisms commonly cause neonatal osteomyelitis?

A

Staphylococcus aureus, Group B streptococci, Gram-negative organisms, Haemophilus influenzae.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What is the duration that defines acute osteomyelitis?

A

Infection within the first 6 weeks following inoculation.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What is the duration that defines chronic osteomyelitis?

A

Infection lasting more than 6 weeks.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What is the primary diagnostic method for bone or joint infection?

A

Bone aspiration.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What imaging modality is best for early detection of osteomyelitis?

A

MRI.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What radiographic features are common in osteomyelitis?

A

Sequestrum, involucrum, periosteal elevation/reaction, cloaca.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What laboratory investigations are used in diagnosing osteomyelitis?

A

FBC, CRP, ESR.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What is the role of CRP and ESR in osteomyelitis?

A

Baseline and follow-up to monitor treatment effectiveness.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

When should antibiotics be started in suspected bone infection?

A

Immediately after aspiration.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What is the most common pathogen in adult septic arthritis?

A

Staphylococcus aureus (44%).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What joint is most commonly affected in adult septic arthritis?

A

Knee (40–50%).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What is the Cierny-Mader Classification type I?

A

Medullary infection only; no need for bone stabilization.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What is Cierny-Mader type II?

A

Superficial cortex infection; no reconstruction needed.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What is Cierny-Mader type III?

A

Localized infection requiring full-thickness cortical resection.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What is Cierny-Mader type IV?

A

Diffuse cortical and endosteal infection; requires bone reconstruction.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What surgical steps are taken in severe osteomyelitis?

A

Extensive debridement, soft tissue coverage, stabilization.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What minimum antibiotic duration is required in adult osteomyelitis?

A

At least 6 weeks of IV antibiotics.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What signs suggest paediatric osteomyelitis?

A

Fever, swelling, pain, refusal to walk.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What is the next step if bone aspiration is negative?

A

Do bone scan.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What defines paediatric septic arthritis?

A

Infection inside the joint from hematogenous spread or adjacent osteomyelitis.

22
Q

Which paediatric joints are most susceptible to septic arthritis?

A

Hip and shoulder.

23
Q

What is the first-line imaging in osteomyelitis diagnosis?

A

Plain radiograph.

24
Q

What does sequestrum indicate?

A

Dead bone tissue, seen as radiolucent/lytic lesion.

25
What is involucrum?
New sclerotic bone formed around dead tissue.
26
What causes periosteal elevation in osteomyelitis?
Spread of abscess to subperiosteal space.
27
What is a cloaca in bone infection?
Opening in involucrum for pus drainage.
28
What should be done if pus is aspirated?
Irrigation and debridement surgery, start antibiotics.
29
What is done if no pus is aspirated?
Antibiotic treatment only.
30
What type of needle is used for bone aspiration?
Large-bore 16- or 18-gauge spinal needle.
31
Where should aspiration be performed?
Sites of maximal swelling and tenderness.
32
What is the infection route in adult OM?
Often hematogenous or exogenous.
33
What are common sites of infection in IV drug abusers?
Sternoclavicular, sacroiliac, and manubriosternal joints.
34
What bacteria is common in IV drug abuse OM?
Pseudomonas aeruginosa.
35
What is the minimum duration of antibiotics in adult septic arthritis?
IV for at least 2 weeks.
36
What joints are commonly involved in adult septic arthritis?
Knee, hip, shoulder, ankle.
37
What is the consequence of untreated septic arthritis?
Rapid destruction of articular surfaces.
38
What is the diagnostic workup for septic arthritis?
Joint aspiration, Gram stain, culture & sensitivity.
39
Why is the metaphysis prone to infection in children?
Low pH and pO2 favor abscess formation.
40
What separates metaphysis and epiphysis in children?
Epiphyseal (growth) plate.
41
What causes pseudo-paralysis in septic arthritis?
Pain and refusal to move joint.
42
What is the first lab test in a child with suspected joint infection?
ESR, CBC, plain radiograph.
43
What if initial imaging is negative?
Observation
44
How soon do radiographic changes appear in OM?
10–14 days.
45
When are sequestrum and involucrum visible?
6 weeks or more.
46
What imaging is used for early OM if X-ray is negative?
MRI.
47
What is the purpose of joint washout in septic arthritis?
Remove pus and infected material.
48
What is the difference in ESR use between OM and septic arthritis?
Used in OM, not needed in acute septic arthritis.
49
What is the treatment if bone is exposed but stable?
Bone flap and soft tissue coverage.
50
What is the treatment for localized OM without surgery?
IV antibiotics.
51
What is a hallmark symptom of paediatric bone infection?
Persistent crying.