Seminar Paeds

Question 1

What is the most common type of Salter-Harris fracture?

Answer 1

Type II - Above the growth plate, involving physis and metaphysis.

Question 2

What is the typical mechanism of injury for supracondylar fractures in children?

Answer 2

FOOSH with the elbow in hyperextension.

Question 3

What deformities are seen in idiopathic clubfoot?

Answer 3

CAVE: Cavus, Adductus, Varus, Equinus.

Question 4

What is the treatment method used in non-operative clubfoot correction?

Answer 4

Ponsetti’s method (Serial Manipulative & Casting).

Question 5

What is a distinguishing feature of torus fractures?

Answer 5

Compression on one side causing buckling of the bone without complete fracture.

Question 6

What are the complications of supracondylar fractures?

Answer 6

Vascular injury, nerve injury, stiffness, malunion, myositis ossificans.

Question 7

How do you screen for congenital talipes equinovarus in newborns?

Answer 7

Dorsiflex the foot to touch the shin - limited motion suggests deformity.

Question 8

Which sign on radiograph is associated with a Salter-Harris fracture?

Answer 8

Widening of the physeal gap.

Question 9

What are the typical clinical features of greenstick fracture?

Answer 9

Pain, swelling, and partial break on one cortex with bending on the opposite side.

Question 10

What is a key radiological sign of elbow fracture in children?

Answer 10

Fat pad sign on lateral view.

Question 11

What is the typical treatment for a type I supracondylar fracture?

Answer 11

Cast or splint for 3 weeks.

Question 12

What deformity is described in congenital vertical talus?

Answer 12

Rocker-bottom foot with equinus and valgus hindfoot.

Question 13

Which test is used to detect developmental dysplasia of the hip?

Answer 13

Barlow and Ortolani tests.

Question 14

What is the management for flexible flatfoot in children?

Answer 14

Reassurance; it usually resolves by age 10.

Question 15

What are the Pirani score and Kite’s angle used for?

Answer 15

Assess severity and radiographic deformity in clubfoot.

Question 16

What does metatarsus adductus involve?

Answer 16

Adduction of the forefoot at the tarsometatarsal joint.

Question 17

What is the pathology behind Blount’s disease?

Answer 17

Abnormal growth of the medial proximal tibia causing genu varum.

Question 18

What type of osteotomy is used for SCFE treatment?

Answer 18

Proximal femoral osteotomy.

Question 19

How is slipped capital femoral epiphysis diagnosed radiographically?

Answer 19

Trethowan’s sign and widened epiphyseal plate on AP pelvis X-ray.

Question 20

What is the cause of Legg-Calvé-Perthes disease?

Answer 20

Avascular necrosis of the femoral head.

Question 21

Which gait is associated with Legg-Calvé-Perthes disease?

Answer 21

Trendelenburg gait.

Question 22

What does Jack’s test indicate?

Answer 22

Reappearance of the medial arch in flexible flatfoot.

Question 23

What are the treatment options for rigid flatfoot caused by tarsal coalition?

Answer 23

Surgery before puberty or triple arthrodesis.

Question 24

What is the most common cause of intoeing in toddlers?

Answer 24

Internal tibial torsion.

Question 25

What clinical sign is seen in femoral anteversion?

Answer 25

Increased internal rotation >70° and decreased external rotation.

Question 26

What is the pathognomonic sign for clubfoot on X-ray?

Answer 26

Talocalcaneal angle <25°.

Question 27

When does idiopathic flexible flatfoot usually resolve?

Answer 27

By age 10.

Question 28

Which imaging is preferred for DDH before 6 months?

Answer 28

Ultrasound.

Question 29

What is the first-line treatment for DDH with Ortolani positive?

Answer 29

Immediate treatment with Pavlik harness.

Question 30

What are the surgical steps in treating vertical talus?

Answer 30

Tendo Achillis lengthening, talonavicular reduction, tibialis anterior transfer.

Question 31

What does the CAVE acronym in clubfoot stand for?

Answer 31

Cavus, Adductus, Varus, Equinus.

Question 32

What causes congenital vertical talus?

Answer 32

Idiopathic or neuromuscular disorder.

Question 33

How is Blount's disease classified?

Answer 33

Langenskiold classification based on age and severity.

Question 34

What is the first step in managing type V Salter-Harris fracture?

Answer 34

Identify history of axial load; monitor for growth disturbance.

Question 35

Which fracture is associated with Thurston-Holland fragment?

Answer 35

Salter-Harris Type II.

Question 36

Which bone is most commonly involved in greenstick fractures?

Answer 36

Radius and/or ulna.

Question 37

What is the most reliable sign of DDH on physical exam?

Answer 37

Limited abduction of the hip.

Question 38

Which condition is known as idiopathic avascular necrosis of the femoral head?

Answer 38

Legg-Calvé-Perthes disease.

Question 39

What clinical sign in SCFE suggests hip displacement?

Answer 39

Leg externally rotated and shortened.

Question 40

What causes internal tibial torsion?

Answer 40

Twisting of the shinbone, often resolves by age 4.

Question 41

What is a typical gait disturbance in LCPD?

Answer 41

Antalgic or painless Trendelenburg gait.

Question 42

What is the most common age for SCFE presentation?

Answer 42

Around puberty, especially in obese or tall children.

Question 43

What is the significance of Trethowan’s sign?

Answer 43

Suggests SCFE on AP pelvis radiograph.

Question 44

What is the primary treatment of early-stage Blount’s disease?

Answer 44

Bracing (KAFO).

Question 45

What is the primary deformity in metatarsus adductus?

Answer 45

Forefoot adduction with normal hindfoot.

Question 46

How is the diagnosis of greenstick fracture confirmed?

Answer 46

Plain radiograph showing break on one side of cortex.

Question 47

What is the risk of missing a Type I Salter-Harris fracture?

Answer 47

Growth disturbance and potential malunion.

Question 48

Which joint is commonly dislocated in DDH?

Answer 48

Hip joint.

Question 49

What does a positive Galeazzi test indicate?

Answer 49

Leg length discrepancy due to unilateral DDH.

Question 50

Which fracture is often called juvenile Colles' fracture?

Answer 50

Torus fracture of the distal radius.