Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM


Top Flashcards (Certified)
All Flashcards

Pharm > BONE.SMOOTHM.ANTIMICROB > Flashcards

BONE.SMOOTHM.ANTIMICROB Flashcards

1
Q

Available bisphosphonates

A

Alendronate, etidronate, risedronate, pamidronate, tiludronate, and zoledronic acid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

MOA of Bisphosphonates

A

Inhibits osteoclast bone resorption

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Uses of bisphosphonates

A

Osteoporosis, Paget’s disease, and osteolytic bone lesions, and hypercalcemia from malignancy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Major SE of bisphosphonates

A

Chemical esophagitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Bisphosphonates that cannot be used on continuous basis because it caused osteomalacia

A

Etidronate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Used for prevention of postmenopausal osteoporosis in women

A

Calcium reguators Bisphosphonates: alendronate, risedronate, ibandronate, Estrogen (HRT-Hormone replacement therapy)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Increase bone density, also being tested for breast CA tx.

A

Raloxifene (SERM-selective estrogen receptor modulator)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Used intranasally and decreases bone resorption

A

Calcitonin (salmon prep)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Used especially in postmenopausal women, dosage should be 1500 mg

A

Calcium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Vitamin given with calcium to ensure proper absorption

A

Vitamin D

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Disease caused by excess ergot alkaloids

A

St. Anthony’s Fire

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

A class of endogenous substances that include histamine, serotonin, prostaglandins, and vasoactive peptides that work in autocrine or paracrine manner

A

Autacoids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Syndrome of hypersecretion of gastric acid and pepsin usually caused by gastrinoma; it is associated with severe peptic ulceration and diarrhea

A

Zollinger-Ellison Syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Drug that causes contraction of the uterus

A

Oxytocin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Distribution of histamine receptors H1, H2, and H3

A

Smooth muscle and mast cells; stomach, heart, and mast cells; nerve endings, CNS respectively

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

1st generation antihistamine that is highly sedating

A

Diphendydramine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

1st generation antihistamine that is least sedating

A

Chlorpheniramine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

2nd generation antihistamines

A

Fexofenadine, loratadine, and cetirizine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Generation of antihistamine that has the most CNS effects

A

First generation due to being more lipid-soluble

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Major indication for H1 receptor antagonist

A

Use in IgE mediated allergic reaction (allergic rhinitis, urticaria)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Antihistamine that is indicated for allergies, motion sickness, and insomnia

A

Diphenhydramine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

H1 antagonist used in motion sickness

A

Dimenhydrinate and other 1st generation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Most common side effect of 1st generation antihistamines

A

Sedation, anticholinergic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

H2 blocker that causes the most interactions with other drugs

A

Cimetidine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Clinical use for H2 blockers
Acid reflux disease, duodenal ulcer and peptic ulcer disease
26
Receptors for serotonin (5HT-1) are located
Mostly in the brain, and they mediate synaptic inhibition via increased K+ conductance
27
Triptan available in parenteral and nasal formulation
Sumatriptan
28
H1 blocker that is also a serotonin antagonist
Cyproheptadine
29
5HT2 antagonist mediate synaptic excitation in the CNS and smooth muscle contraction
Ketanserin, cyproheptadine, and ergot alkaloids (partial agonist of alpha and serotonin receptors)
30
Agents for reduction of postpartum bleeding
Oxytocin and ergonovine
31
Agents used in treatment of carcinoid tumor
Cyproheptadine
32
5HT-3 antagonist used in chemotherapeutic induced
Ondansetron, granisetron, dolasetron and palonosetron
33
5ht-3 antagonist that has been MOST associated with QRS and QTc prolongation and should not be used in patients with heart disease
Dolasetron
34
Drug used in ergot alkaloids overdose, ischemia and gangrene
Nitroprusside
35
Reason ergot alkaloids are contraindicated in pregnancy
Uterine contractions
36
SE of ergot alkaloids
Hallucinations resembling psychosis
37
Ergot alkaloid used as an illicit drug
LSD
38
Dopamine agonist used in hyperprolactinemia
Bromocriptine
39
Peptide causing increased capillary permeability and edema
Bradykinin and histamine
40
Mediator of tissue pain, edema, inactivated by ACE, and may be a contributing factor to the development of angioedema
Bradykinin
41
Drug causing depletion of substance P (vasodilator)
Capsaicin
42
Prostaglandins that cause abortions
Prostaglandin E1 (misoprostol), PGE2, and PGF2alpha
43
Drug that selectively inhibits COX 2
Celecoxib
44
Inhibitor of lipoxygenase
Zileuton
45
Major SE of zileuton
Liver toxicity
46
Inhibitor of leukotrienes (LTD4) receptors and used in asthma
Zafirlukast and montelukast
47
Used in pediatrics to maintain patency of ductus arteriosis
PGE1 (Alprostadil)
48
Approved for use in severe pulmonary HTN
PGI2 (epoprostenol)
49
Prostaglandin used as 2nd line treatment of erectile dysfunction
PGE1 (Alprostadil)
50
Irreversible, nonselective COX inhibitor
Aspirin (or other salicylates)
51
Class of drugs that reversibly inhibit COX
NSAIDS
52
Primary endogenous substrate for Nitric Oxidase Synthase
Arginine
53
MOA and effect of nitric oxide
Stimulates cGMP which leads to vascular smooth muscle relaxation
54
Long acting beta 2 agonist used in asthma
Salmeterol
55
Muscarinic antagonist used in COPD
Ipratropium, tiotropium
56
MOA action of cromolyn
Blocks opening of Cl channels to prevent mast cell degranulation
57
Enzyme which theophylline inhibits
Phosphodiesterase
58
Methylxanthine derivative used as a remedy for intermittent claudication
Pentoxifylline
59
Antidote for severe CV toxicity of theophylline
Beta blockers
60
MOA of corticosteroids
Induce lipocortins to
61
SE of long term (>5 days) corticosteroid therapy and remedy
Adrenal suppression and weaning slowly, respectively
62
MOA of fluoroquinolones
Inhibit DNA gyrase (topoisomerase II) and topoisomerase IV
63
MOA of penicillin
Block cell wall synthesis by inhibiting transpeptidase and block peptidoglycan cross-linkage
64
Drug used for MRSA
Vancomycin
65
Vancomycin MOA
Binds D-Ala-D-Ala on murein monomers and prevent polymerization of the murein monomers
66
Type of resistance found with vancomycin
Point mutation
67
Meningitis prophylaxis in exposed patients
Rifampin
68
Technique used to diagnose perianal itching, and the drug used to treat it
Scotch tape technique
69
Two toxicities of aminoglycosides
nephro and ototoxicity
70
Drug of choice for Legionnaires' disease
Azithromycin (or macrolides)
71
MOA of sulfonamides
Inhibit dihydropteroate synthase
72
Penicillins active against penicillinase secreting bacteria
Methicillin, nafcillin, and dicloxacillin
73
Cheap wide spectrum antibiotic DOC of otitis media
Amoxicillin
74
Class of antibiotics that have 10% cross sensitivity with penicillins
Cephalosporins
75
PCN active against pseudomonas
Carbenicillin, piperacillin and ticarcillin
76
Antibiotic causing red-man syndrome, and prevention
Vancomycin, can be prevented by infusion
77
Drug causes teeth discoloration
Tetracycline
78
Mechanism of action of tetracycline
Decreases protein synthesis by binding to 30S ribosome and prevent binding of tRNA to A site
79
Drug that causes gray baby syndrome and aplastic anemia
Chloramphenicol
80
Drug notorious for causing pseudomembranous colitis
Clindamycin
81
Drug of choice for tx of pseudomembranous colitis
Metronidazole
82
Treatment of resistant pseudomembranous colitis
ORAL vancomycin
83
Anemia caused by trimethoprim
Megaloblastic anemia
84
Reason fluoroquinolones are contraindicated in children and pregnancy
Cartilage damage
85
DOC for giardia, bacterial vaginosis, pseudomembranous colitis, and trichomonas
Metronidazole
86
Treatment for TB patients (think RIPE)
Rifampin, Isoniazid, Pyrazinamide, and Ethambutol
87
Metronidazole SE if given with alcohol
Disulfiram-like reaction
88
Common side effect of Rifampin
Orange urine discoloration
89
MOA of nystatin
Bind ergosterol in fungal cell membrane
90
Neurotoxicity with isoniazid (INH) prevented by
Administration of Vit. B6 (pyridoxine)
91
Toxicity of amphotericin
Nephrotoxicity
92
SE seen only in men with administration of ketoconazole
Gynecomastia
93
Topical DOC in impetigo
Topical mupirocin (Bactroban)
94
DOC for influenza A and B
Oseltamivir or Zanamivir
95
DOC for RSV
Ribavirin
96
DOC for CMV retinitis
Ganciclovir
97
SE for ganciclovir
Myelosuppression
98
Anti-viral agents associated with Stephen Johnson syndrome
Nevirapine, amprenavir
99
HIV antiviral class known to have severe drug interactions by causing inhibition of metabolism
Protease inhibitors
100
Antivirals that are teratogens
Delavirdine, efavirenz, and ribavirin
101
Antivirals associated with neutropenia
Ganciclovir, zidovudine, saquinavir, interferon
102
HIV med used to reduce transmission during birth
AZT (zidovudine)
103
Drug used for African sleeping sickness
Suramin
104
Drug used in Chagas disease
Nifurtimox
105
Cephalosporins able to cross the BBB
Cefixime (2nd) and 3rd generation
106
DOC for N. gonorrhea
Ceftriaxone
107
Cephalosporins that cause kernicterus in neonates
Ceftriaxone or cefuroxime
108
SE of INH
Peripheral neuritis and hepatitis
109
Aminoglycoside that is least ototoxic
Streptomycin
110
Drug used in exoerythrocytic cycle of malaria
Primaquine
111
Oral antibiotic of choice for moderate inflammatory acne
Minocycline
112
Drug of choice for leprosy
Dapsone
113
DOC for herpes and its MOA
Acyclovir; activated by viral thymidine kinase, results in inhibition of viral DNA replication
114
Anti-bacterials that cause hemolysis in G6PD-deficient patients
Sulfonamides
115
Mechanism of action of macrolides (erythromycin, clarithromycin)
Inhibit protein synthesis by binding to domain V of 23S rRNA of 50S ribosome subunit
116
Antibacterials for optimal treatment of acute uncomplicated cystitis
Nitrofurantoin, trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole, fosfomycin
117
Antibacterials for optimal treatment of acute pyelonephritis
Fluoroquinolones (ciprofloxacin, levofloxacin), trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole
118
Lactam that can be used in PCN allergic patients
Aztreonam
119
SE of imipenem
Seizures
120
Anti-viral with a dose limiting toxicity of pancreatitis
Didanosine (ddI)

Pharm (12 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions