BRS- Health Supervision Flashcards

(67 cards)

1
Q

What screening tests are done at 4 years of age?

A

BP

Hearing & Vision

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Until what age should height/weight/head circumference be measures?

A

2 years

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

When is FTT a major health concern?

A

When crossing 2 major percentile isobars on NHS charts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What measurement is most effected by FTT?

A

Weight more than height/ head circumference

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

When should babies regain, double, and triple birth weights?

A

regain: by two weeks
double: 4-6 months
triple: 12 months

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

How much weight per year should kids gain from age 2 through adolescence?

A

2.3 kg/year ~ 5 pounds

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

When should babies increase birth height by 50%, double, and triple?

A

50%: 12 months

double: 4 years
triple: 13 years

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

MCC failure to thrive?

A

inorganic: disturbed parent child bond –> poor caloric intake

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

When is head/ brain growth complete?

A

75% by age 1, complete by age 2

*Brain growth 90% by age 2, 100% by age 5

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Define cephalohematoma

A

subperiosteal hemorrhage after traumatic delivery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Expected head growth during first two months of life?

A

0.5 cm per week

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Expected head growth between 2-6 months of life:

A

0.25 cm per week

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Expected head growth by 12 months of age

A

12 cm since birth

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

When is “acquired” microcephaly acquired?

A

third trimester, perinatal period, year 1 of life

therefore third trimester infection does not = CONGENITAL microcephaly cause, would be “acquired”.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What are potential effects of microcephaly?

A
  • CP

- seziures

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What are risk factors for craniosynostosis?

A

intrauterine crowding
hyperthyroid
hypothyroid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

GI causes of FTT: (8)

A
  • craniofacial
  • TE fistula
  • GERD
  • obstruction
  • diarrhea
  • IBD
  • Celiac
  • CF
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

2 Pulmonary related causes of FTT?

2 Heme Onc?

A
  • CF, BPD

- malignancy, anemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

4 renal related causes of FTT?

A
  • recurrent UTI
  • RTA
  • Chronic RF
  • Fanconi
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Congenital causes of FTT?

A

FAS

Metabolic Syndromes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

3 Neuro Causes of FTT

A

-Tumors, hydrocephalus, decreased tone/ weakness

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Immune/ ID Causes of FTT (4):

A

TB, HIV, Hepatitis, Immunocompromised states

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

2 Endocrine Causes of FTT:

1 Toxin related Cause of FTT:

A
  • Hypothyroid, Ricketts

- Lead

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What head shape is assc with premature closure of each of the following sutures?

  • sagittal
  • coronal
  • metopic
A
  • saggital: scaphocepahly
  • coronal: brachycehpaly
  • metopic: trigonocephaly
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Management of craniosynostosis
surgical
26
Define plagiocehpaly: | + possible assc condition
abnormal head shape not caused by premature suture closure | -may be assc with torticollis
27
Potential causes of macrocephaly (6):
- familial - overgrowth syndromes - metabolic d/o - NF - achondroplasia - hydrocephalus/ tumors
28
List (live) vaccines that may be given to children
Live MOVIs - MMR - OPV - Varicella - Influenza
29
List three examples of passive immunization
-preformed antibodies | VZIG, HBIG, HAIG
30
Hep B: - vaccine type - when given
- recombinant | - three shots in first year of life
31
DTaP: - vaccine type - when given
-purified, acellular -2,4,6 months, boosters at 12-18 mo's and 4-6 years (5 total vaccines)
32
dT: - vaccine type - when given
-toxoid, 1/10th dose in DTaP | 11-12 then every 10 years
33
Advantage to live OPV vaccine
induces secondary immunity, by can cause vaccine related polio *Not given in US
34
When is IPV given? (inactivated polio vaccine)
2, 4 months plus 2 boosters at 6-18 mos and 4-6 mos | 4 total vaccines
35
HiB vaccine type + timing
-conjugate ( to diphtheria or tetanus toxoid) -2,4,6/12 months + 12-15 mo booster if at 6 months (3-4 total vaccine)
36
MMR: - vaccine type - timing
live | -12-15 months plus booster at 4-6 or 11-12 years
37
Measles, Mumps, Rubella sequelae:
measles: pneumonia mumps: parotitis, meningoencephalitis, orchitis rubella: birth defects
38
Varicella: - vaccine type - timing
- live | - one at 12-18 months
39
Hep A vaccine type + timing
inactivated | 2+ years of age if at risk
40
Contrast Pneumovax and Prevnar
Pneumoax: 23 subtypes, not safe before 2 years Prevnar: 7 subtypes, sage before 2 years
41
When is prevnar given to babies?
2,4,6 months + booster at 12-5 (4)
42
Which vaccines are given a total of: - 1 time - 2 times - 3-4 times - 4 times - 5 times
- 1: varicella - 2: MMR - 3-4: HiB - 4: prevnar, IPV - 5: DTaP
43
Which vaccine has been noted to cause seizures in case of severe reaction?
DTaP
44
What two tests are used to screen newborn hearing?
BAER: brainstem auditory evoked response EOE: Evoked otoacoustic emission
45
What metabolic conditions are tested for in most states?
PKU, hypothyroid, galactosemia
46
What is peak timing of IDA? | What specific dietary risk is assc with IDA?
9-15 months, high risk with introduction of cows milk before 12 months
47
When is Hb screened, universally?
9-15 months, 4-6 years
48
What age group is most susceptible to lead poisoning?
less than 6 years
49
In what areas should all children be screened for lead poisoning?
In areas where prevalence is 12+%
50
What term describes inability to retract foreskin? Return foreskin?
phimosis, paraphimosis
51
Define balantitis? What bugs are commonly indicated?
infection of glans | candidiasis, gram negative
52
Range of time for initial tooth eruption + most commonly seen first tooth?
3-16 months (average 6) | lower central incisor
53
Causes of delayed tooth eruption beyond 16 months
familial hypothyroid/ pituitary downs ectodermal dysplasia
54
Effects of excess fluoride?
cosmetic, white streaks/ grey staining esp between ages 2-4
55
Management of natal/ neonatal teeth
only remove if hypermobile to decrease aspiration risk
56
#1 risk for dental caries in babies/ toddler + most common assc bug
sleeping with nipple in mouth | strep mutans q
57
How to preserve avulsed tooth
store in milk
58
How many x/day should newborns be fed?
8-12
59
When is honey safe for baby?
after age 1, same for whole milk
60
When do babies usually sleep through night + become able to eat solids?
6 months
61
What foods should be avoided before age 1?
``` egg whites fish citrus chocolate nuts wheat ```
62
When should baby drink from cup?
9 months
63
When should separation anxiety begin?
9 months
64
When should toilet training begin?
18 months
65
When are night terrors common?
18-24 months
66
When are the following expected? - sharing - parallel play - imagination - gender roles
- sharing: 3 - parallel: 2 years - imagination, gender: 4
67
How much sleep is needed by a 5 year old?
10-12 hours