Chapter 15 Flashcards
1
Q
How is trauma defined by the ARRT?
A
Serious injury or shock to the body
2
Q
Displacement of bone that is no longer in contact with its normal articulation
A
Dislocation
3
Q
Partial dislocation
A
Subluxation
4
Q
Forced wrenching or twisting of a joint resulting in a partial rupture or tearing of supporting ligaments
A
Sprain
5
Q
Bruise type of injury with a possible avulsion fracture
A
Contusion
6
Q
Disruption of bone caused by mechanical force
A
Fracture
7
Q
What is fracture alignment?
A
Relationship between long axes of the fracture fragments - a fracture is aligned if the long axes of the bone remain parallel to each other
8
Q
What describes how the fragmented ends of the bone make contact with each other?
A
Apposition
9
Q
Three types of apposition
A
Anatomic
Lack of apposition (distraction)
Bayonet apposition
10
Q
Anatomic alignment of ends of fractured bone fragments, wherein the ends of the fragments make end-to-end contact
A
Anatomic apposition
11
Q
The ends of fragments are aligned but pulled apart and not making contact with each other
A
Lack of apposition (distraction)
12
Q
The fracture fragments overlap and the shafts make contact, but not at the fracture ends
A
Bayonet apposition
13
Q
What describes the loss of alignment of the fracture?
A
Angulation
14
Q
What are the three types of angulation?
A
Apex
Varus
Valgus
15
Q
Describes the direction or angle of the apex of the fracture
A
Apex angulation
16
Q
Distal fragment ends are angled toward the midline of the body and the apex is pointed away from the midline
A
Varus deformity
17
Q
Distal fragment ends are angled away from the midline and the apex is angled toward the midline
A
Valgus deformity
18
Q
Fracture in which the bone does not break through the skin
A
Simple (closed) Fracture
19
Q
Fracture in which a portion of bone protrudes through the skin
A
Compound (open) Fracture
20
Q
Fracture does not traverse through the entire bone
A
Incomplete (partial) Fracture
21
Q
Two types of Incomplete (Partial) Fractures
A
Torus/Buckle
Greenstick
22
Q
This buckle of the cortex is characterized by local expansion or torus of the cortex
A
Torus/Buckle
23
Q
Fracture is on one side only. The cortex on one side of the bone is broken and the other side is bent.
A
Greenstick Fracture
24
Q
The break is complete and includes the cross-section of bone
A
Complete Fracture
25
What are the three major types of complete fractures?
Transverse
Oblique
Sprial
26
Fracture is transverse at a near right angle to the long axis of the bone
Transverse
27
The fracture passes through bone at an oblique angle
Oblique Fracture
28
The bone has been twisted apart
Sprial Fracture
29
The bone is splintered or crushed at the site of impact, resulting in two or more fragments
Comminuted Fracture
30
What are the 3 types of comminuted fractures?
Segmental
Butterfly
Splintered
31
A type of double fracture in which two fracture lines isolate a distinct segment of bone
Segmental
32
A comminuted fracture with two fragments on each side of a main, wedge-shaped separate fragment
Butterfly
33
Comminuted fracture in which the bone is splintered into thin sharp fragments
Splintered
34
Fracture of the distal radius often associated with dislocation or subluxation of the radiocarpal joint
Barton Fracture
35
Fracture of the distal phalanx is caused by a ball striking the end of the an extended finger
Baseball fracture
36
Longitudinal fracture which occurs at the base of the first metacarpal with the fracture line entering the carpometacarpal joint
Bennett
37
Usually involves the distal fifth metacarpal, with an apex posterior angulation
Boxer
38
Fracture of the wrist in which the distal radius is fractured with the distal fragment displaced posteriorly
Colles
39
Fracture of the wrist with the distal fragment of the radius displaced anteriorly
Smith
40
Fracture occurs through the pedicles of the axis (C2) with or without displacement of C2 or C3
Hangman
41
Intra-articular fracture of the radial styloid process
Hutchinson (Chauffeur) Fracture
42
Fracture of the proximal half of the ulna along with dislocation of the radial head
Monteggia Fracture
43
Fracture of the distal fibula with major injury to the ankle joint and distal tibia
Pott's Fracture
44
Results from severe stress to a tendon or ligament. A fragment of bone is separated or pulled away by the attached tendor or ligament
Avulsion
45
Result from a direct blow to the orbit and/or maxilla and zygoma
Blowout or Tripod Fracture
46
Involves an isolated bone fragment
Chip Fracture
47
Vertebral fracture caused by a compression-type injury. The vertebral body collapses or is compressed
Compression Fracture
48
Skull fracture where a fragment is depressed
Depressed (Ping-pong) Fracture
49
Fracture due to disease process within the bones
Pathologic Fracture
50
What is used to describe the severity of an epiphyseal fracture?
Salter-Harris classification
51
Fracture lines radiate from a central point of injury with a starlike pattern
Stellate Fracture
52
Nontraumatic fracture resulting from repeated stress on a bone
Stress Fracture
53
Fracture of the ankle joint that involves the medial and lateral malleoli as well as the posterior lip of the distal tibia
Trimalleolar Fracture
54
Comminuted fracture of the distal phalanx caused by a crushing blow to the distal finger or thumb
Tuft or Burst Fracture
55
For severe fractures with significant displacement where a surgical procedure is required
Open Reduction
55
What are the 3 principles for trauma?
1. Two projections 90 degrees to each other with true CR/IR alignment
2. Entire structure or trauma area included on image receptor
3. Maintain the safety of the patient, health care workers, and the public
55
Fracture fragments are realigned by manipulation and are immobilized by a cast
Closed Reduction
56
Battery driven and operated mobile x-ray units are powered by how many rechargeable batteries?
10-16, 12 volt batteries
57
What is the average walking speed for battery operated mobile x-ray units?
2.5 to 3 mph with a max incline of 7 degrees
58
Non-motor-driver x-ray units use what power source?
110V, 15 amp
220V, 10 amp
59
The primary difference between general radiography and trauma is:
Adaptation
60
For all upper and lower limb follow-up examinations, always include:
A minimum of one joint nearest to the site of injury
61
This modality is useful for fully assessing skeletal trauma
CT
62
This modality is used with patients have experienced blunt abdominal trama or to look at the female reproductive system
Sonography
63
This modality is useful for the evaluation of pulmonary embolus, testictular torsion, and GI bleeding
NM
64
This modality is indicated for studies of the aortic arch
Angiography
65
What are the 4 attributes of a successful surgical technologist?
Confidence
Mastery
Problem solving
Communication
66
In surgery, the tech must have clear communication with:
The surgeon and the anesthesiologist
67
In surgery, the tech must communicate radiation safety concerns such as:
Failure to wear lead
Overuse of real-time imaging
Placement of hands in radiation field
68
Licensed and trained physician who has the primary responsibility for the entire surgical procedure
Surgeon
69
Administers drugs to induce and maintain anesthesia in the patient
Anesthesiologist
70
Assists the surgeon - suctioning, tying and clamping blood vessels, and assisting in cutting and suturing
Surgical assistant
71
Health professional who prepares the OR by supplying it with the appropriate supplies and instruments
Certified surgical tech
72
Nonsterile CST or RN who assists in the OR by responding to the needs of scrubbed members in the sterile field
Circulator
73
CST or RN who prepares the sterile field scrubs, gowns the members, and sterilizes the instruments
Scrub
74
During OR cases, the rad tech receives instructions from:
Physician (surgeon, anesthesiologist)
75
What type of cleaner is recommended for the C-arm?
A liquid type
76
How often must equipment be cleaned the is stored in the surgical area?
Weekly
77
Where is the intensifier and the tube located with a C-arm
Intensifer is on top of the patient
Tube is on the bottom
78
What are the disadvantages of having the C-arm tube on top of the patient?
Increased OID
Significant increase in exposure to the head
79
How many display moniters are used with C-arm?
2 - active image on one and stored image on the other
80
Images are recored in rapid succession while contrast medium is injected and then displayed as a moving image
Cine loop capability
81
This mode is used to magnify the image for better visualization
Magnification mode
82
This mode is used to create an x-ray beam that pulsates at timed increments to reduce exposure
Pulse mode
83
This mode activates a digital spot, which results in a higher quality computer-enhanced image
Snapshot or digital spot
84
This allows for exposure by the operator if desired, or the use of AEC
Auto/manual exposure control
85
What is subtraction?
A technique in which an initial image is recorded during contiuous fluoroscopy
The initial image is then used as a filter for the next images
All stationary structures are removed from the image and only moving structures are imaged
86
What is roadmapping?
Method of image display wherein a specific fluoroscopic image is held on the screen in combination with continuous fluoro.
It removes stationary structures from the screen
87
Mobile x-ray system designed for 2D fluoroscopic and 3D imaging
O-arm imaging system
88
When is the O-arm useful?
When the physician needs 2D and 3D information of anatomic structures and objects with high attenuation such as bony structures or metallic objects
89
The primary source of radiation exposure to the fluoroscopy staff is from:
Scattered radiation from the patient
90
0.5mm lead reduces exposure by ____%
50 or more
91
The operator of the C-arm should always stand a minimum of ____ feet away from the tube during an exposure
6 feet
92
A 30 degree C-arm tilt will increase dose to the face and neck region by a factor of:
4
93
How much does the dose increase when the tube is on top and the intensifier on the bottom
Up to 100x higher
94
Is manual technique or automatic used in fluoro?
Automatic brightness control
95
How does automatic brightness control work?
Compensates brightness loss caused by lower transmission of xrays by generating more xrays and/or producing more penetrating xrays (lowering contrast)
96
What is the maximum exposure rate at 1 foot from the image receptor?
88 mGy/min = 10R/min
97
What is the maxium exposure rate for high-level fluoro?
176 mGy/min or 20R/min
98
Where must dosimetry monitors be for fluoro?
Outside the apron at collar level
99
Where are sterile gowns considered sterile?
From the shoulder to the level of the sterile field and at the sleeve from the cuff to just above the elbow
100
When must masks be changed?
Between procedures or when moisture is detected
101
What size IR is used for an operative cholangiography? And where is it placed?
14x17
Top of the IR is just below the right axilla
102
What images are preferred for a cholecystectomy?
AP, slight RPO, slight LPO
103
Where is the IR positioned for retrograde urography?
14x17 LW, centered to the iliac crest
104
What are the 3 radiographs taken during a retrograde urograph?
Scout radiograph - used to check positioning and catheter placement
Pyelogram - contrast is injected through the catheter into the renal pelvis
Ureterogram - contrast is injected to one or both ureters
105
What are the 3 common hip fractures?
Femoral neck
Intertrochanteric
Subtrochanteric
106
What 2 positions are used during a hip fracture?
PA
Xtable Lateral
107
ACL
Anterior Cruciate Ligament
108
Stiffening of a joint by operative means
Arthrodesis
109
Creating of an artificial joint to correct ankylosis
Arthroplasty
110
A state of sterility; condition in which living pathogens are absent
Asepsis
111
Orthopedic screw designed to enter and fix porous and spongy bone
Cancellous screw
112
Large screw used for internal fixation of non-displaced fractures of proximal femur
Cannulated screw
113
An artificial regulator for cardiac rate and rhyhm
Cardiac pacemaker
114
Orthopedic wire that tightens around fracture site to reduce shortning of limb
Cerclage wire
115
The use of radioactive cesium in the treatment of certain malignancies, including prostate cancer
Cesium implants
116
Surgical removal of the gallbladder
Cholecystectomy
117
Procedure in which bone fragments are reduced manually without surgical intervention
Closed reduction
118
Narrow orthopedic screw designed to enter and fix cortical bone
Cortical screw
119
Lighted tubular endoscope used for examination of the urinary bladder
Cystoscope
120
Screw and plate combination used to apply forces through the fracture site; used commonly for long bone shaft fractures in which stress may be great
Dynamic compression plate
121
Electrohydraulic shock waves used to break apart calcifications in the urinary system
ESWL - extracorporeal shock wave lithotripsy
122
EX-FIX
External fixation
123
DHS
Dynamic hip screw
124
A special OR table used for hip pinnings and other orthopedic procedures to provide traction to the involved limb and allow fluoro to be performed during the procedure
Fracture table
125
Surgical procedure designed to reduce proximal femoral fractures thorugh the use of various internal fixation devices
Hip pinning
126
HTO
High tibial osteotomy
127
Procedure in which a special external fixator is used to lengthen long bones as a treatment for severe fracture or congenital deformity
Ilizarov technique
128
IM nail
Intramedullary nail
129
Titanium or other alloy cage filled with bone and inserted between the vertebral bodies to maintain disk space height and permit fusion of the intervertebral joint
Interbody bone fusion device
130
A flexible or rigid device placed within the medullary cavity to reduce a fracture or stabilize a diseased long bone
Intramedullary rod
131
Unthreaded or threaded metallic wire used to reduce fractures of the wrist and individual bones of the hands and feet; also may be used for skeletal traction
Kirschner wire (K-wire)
132
A surgical procedure performed to alleviate pain caused by neural impingement by removing an aspect of the lamina in the vertebral arch
Laminectomy
133
Surgical opening into one or more laminae of the vertebral arch
Laminotomy
134
Use of a special endoscopic device to visualize and assist with surgical removal of the gallbladder
Laparoscopic cholecystectomy
135
Crushing calcification in the renal pelvis, ureter, or urinary bladder by mechanical force or sound waves
Lithotripsy
136
Microsurgical procedure performed on the spine to remove bony fragments or disk material that may be causing neural impingement
Microdiskectomy
137
A condition in which bony changes or a herniated disk produces impingement of the spinal nerves that pass through the vertebral arch of the vertebra
Neural impingement
138
Radiographic procedure performed during surgery to visualize and locate undetected stones or obstructions within the biliary ducts
Operative cholangiography
139
ORIF
Open reduction with internal fixation
140
PCL
Posterior cruciate ligament
141
Fabricated substitute for a diseased or missing anatomic part
Prosthesis
142
To align two or more bone fragments in the correct position as treatment for a fracture, as applied in orthopedic medicine
Reduce
143
A nonfunctional examination of the urinary system during which contrast medium is introduced directly retrograde into the pelvicalyceal system via catheterization by a urologist during a minor surgical procedure
Retrograde urography
144
Flexible and thin orthopedic plate used to fix and connect fractures
Semitubular plate
145
An isolation drape that separates the sterile field from the nonsterile environment; often used to permit the use of C-arm fluoroscopy during a hip pinning procedure
Shower curtain
146
Surgical fusion of one vertebra to another, which stabilizes them following laminectomy or as treatment for a degenerative condition or fracture
Spinal fusion
147
Condition caused by degenerative changes that result in enlargement of the facet joints, which often leads to impingement of the spinal nerves that pass by them
Spinal stenosis
148
Soaking of moisture through a sterile or nonsterile drap, cover, or protective barrier, permitting bacteria to reach sterile areas
Strike-through
149
THR, THA
Total hip replacement
Total hip appliance
150
TKR, TKA
Total knee replacement
Total knee appliance
151
The use of artificial joint implants to restore motion and function of a joint
Total joint arthroplasty
152
The process of putting a limb, bone, or group of muscles under tension with the use of weights and pulleys to align or immobilize the part
Traction
153
What are the 4 regions of the body most commonly dislocated during trauma?
Shoulder
Fingers/thumb
Patella
Hip
