Chapter 17 MICRO Flashcards

(60 cards)

1
Q

The three main categories that microbiologists identify bacteria

A

phenotypic (morphology), immunologic (serological analysis), and genotypic (genetic)

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2
Q

the success of identification and treatment depends on

A

how specimens are collected, handled, stores and cultured

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3
Q

to prevent contamination from the environment or the patient it is important to keeps things

A

sterile

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4
Q

saliva is an especially undesirable contaminant because

A

contains millions of bacteria

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5
Q

throat and nasopharyngeal swabs should not touch what

A

the tongue, cheeks and saliva

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6
Q

what device is used to take urine samples aseptically

A

catheter

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7
Q

what is a clean catch urine sample

A

washing the external urethra and collecting the urine midstream

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8
Q

what do you do before swabbing a wound for a culture to avoid collecting the microbiota of the skin

A

cleanse the wound

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9
Q

If a specimen is to be held for a long period in the lab what must you do to the specimen

A

refrigerate it

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10
Q

what do special swabs used for collection contain

A

nonnutritive maintenance media, a buffering system, an anaerobic environment to prevent possible destruction of oxygen sensitive bacteria

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11
Q

what is the first step before collecting a specimen

A

analyzing the patient for signs of microbial infection

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12
Q

what are the steps after collecting the specimen

A
  1. direct tests using microscopic, immunologic, or genetic methods that provide immediate clues as to the identity of the microbe (s)
  2. cultivation, isolation, and identification of pathogens using a wide variety of general and specific tests
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13
Q

test results usually fall into two categories

A
  1. presumptive data- which place the isolate microbe in a preliminary category
  2. confirmatory data- which can pinpoint the microbes specific identity
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14
Q

what is one of the most rapid methods of determining pressumptive and confirmatory characteristics

A

direct microscopic observation of a fresh or stained specimen

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15
Q

what stains are used for bacterial identification

A

gram and acid-fast stain

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16
Q

what type of specimens are cultured on selective media to encourage the growth of only the syspected pathogens

A

nonsterile specimens containing a diversity of bacterial species

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17
Q

when is a differential media used

A

to identify definitive characteristics such as reactions in blood and fermentation patterns

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18
Q

physiological reactions of bacteria to nutrients and other substrates provide excellent indirect evidence of the type of what systems are present in a particular species

A

enzyme systems

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19
Q

enzymatic-mediated metabolic reactions show what kind of a change
media has a particular substrate

A

color change

no colorization means it lacks enzyme for utilizing substrate in that particular way

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20
Q

what type of enzymes are by products of metabolism in these tests

A

catalase, oxidase, coagulase

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21
Q

What are some ways to identify bacteria

A

motility, oxygen requirements, gram stain reactions, shape, spore formation, and various biochemical reactions

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22
Q

Dichotomous keys

A

flowcharts used to trace a route of identification by offering pairs of opposing characteristics (+/-) with two choices from which to select at each level

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23
Q

Phage typing

A

use of bacteriophages to determine bacteria identification
strain and species specific
innoculating a petri dish and mapping off areas where different phages are placed

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24
Q

Antimicrobials are also used in identification as well as

A

selective agents in many media

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25
PCR can be used to determine identification of bacteria, viruses, protozoa and fungi through
genetic material | amplify DNA or RNA
26
Random Amplified Polymorphic DNA (RAPD)
uses primers of random sequences in an attempt to pick a microbial needle out of a haystack
27
Hybridization
a technique that makes it possible to identify a microbe by analyzing segments of its genetic material requires probes that are known to be complementary to the specific sequences of nucleic acid isolated from a perticular microbe
28
probes
small fragments of single stranded DNA or RNA | fluorescent or attach to enzyme that creates color
29
Fluorescent in situ hybridization
the application of fluorescently labeled probes to intact cells within a patient specimen or an environmental sample glowing cells microscopically help identify microbe
30
Pulse-Filed gel electrophoresis
involves the separation of DNA fragments that are too large for conventional gel electrophoresis methods accomplished by slowly applying alternating voltage levels to the gel from three different directions this allows similarly sized DNA fragments to fully separate used also for rRNA on 16s ribosomes sequences
31
the 16 s ribosomal RNA is a component of what subunit of bacterial and archaeal ribosomes
30s
32
16s rRNA sequence, varies over time or stays consistent across species and evolutionary time
stays consistent | helps with identifying infections and bacteria
33
Ribosomal RNA is isolated, sequenced and analyzed from cultured cells obtained from where
a patient site or environmental sample
34
characteristics of antibodies such as quantity and specificity can reveal...
the history of a patients contact with the microorganisms or ther antigens
35
Serology
used for in vitro (outside of body) diagnostic testing of serum
36
Serological testing is based upon
the familiar concept that antibodies have extreme specificity for antigens like hand in glove
37
Specificity
property of a test to focus on only certain antibody or antigen and not to react with unrelated or distantly related ones the degree to which a test does not falsely detect people who do not have a condition
38
Sensitivity
the detection of even minute quantities of antibodies or antigens in a specimen and reflects the degree to which a test will detect every positive person
39
what are the essential differences in agglutination and precipitation
size, solubility, and location of antigen
40
in agglutination
the antigens are whole cells displaying surface antigens | consists of visible clumps of cells
41
in precipitation
the antigen examined is a soluble molecule
42
titer
the highest dilution of serum that still produces agglutination concentration of antibodies in a sample could be an antigen-antibody complex
43
how to determine a titer
serially diluting patient serum into test tubes or wells all containing equal amounts of cells (antigen)
44
greater concentration of antibodies and titer is
the more a serum sample can be diluted and still react with antigen
45
Precipitation reactions
the soluble antigen is precipitated by an antibody | can be seen in test tube when antiserum is laid over and antigen solution causing an opaque boundary to form
46
Serotyping
an antigen-antibody technique for identifying, classifying, and subgrouping certain bacteria into categories called serotypes employs antisera against cell antigens such as the capsule, flagellum, and cell wall
47
Western Blotting
the electrophoretic separation of proteins, followed by antibody-mediated detection of these proteins
48
Steps of western blotting
1. a sample of proteins from a bacterial cell or virus is separated via electrical charge withing a gel 2. proteins distributed throughout the gel are then transferred and immobilized to a special filter 3. the filter is incubated with a patients serum if the serum contains antibodies to the microbe they will bind to the antigens on the filter paper 4. a second antibody (contains fluorescent enzyme) is applied to the filter paper 5. after incubation, sites of specific antigen-antibody binding will appear as a pattern of bands that can be compared with known positive and negative controls
49
Immunofluorescence testing uses
an antibody labeled by a fluorescent dye
50
In direct immunofluorescent testing
an unknown test specimen or antigen is fixed to a slide and exposed to a Fab solution of known composition if antigen-antibody complexes form, they will remain bound to the sample and be visualized by fluorescence microscopy used for rapid results
51
indirect immunofluorescent testing
antibodies recognize the Fc region of antibodies in patient sera known antigen is added to the test serum of unknown antibody content binding of fluorescent tagged antibody is a positive result
52
Radioimmunoassay
compare the amount of label present in a sample before and after incubation with a known, labeled antigen or antibody radioactivity is measured with an isotope counter
53
Immunochromatographic testing
known antibodies are used to identify antigens on the surface of bacterial isolates or patient specimens
54
ELISA test is
enzyme linked indicator antibody to visualize antigen-antibody reactions
55
Indirect ELISA
a known antigen is adsorbed to the surface of a well and mixed with the patients serum if an antigen-antibody complex forms, the patients antibody will remain in the well even after being rinsed with solution when the correct substrate for the enzyme is added, the substrate is acted on by the enzyme and color changes but if patients serum did not have the antibody the secondary antibody will just be rinsed out of the well and no color change
56
Direct ELISA
a known antibody is adsorbed to the bottom of a well and incubated with an unknown antigen if an antigen-antibody complex forms, it will attract the indicator antibody and color will change
57
In vivo testing
antigen or antibody is introduced into a patient to elicit some sort of visible reaction
58
Microarrays
chips that contain gene sequences from potentially thousands of different possible infectious agents, selected based on the syndrome being investigated can containing bacterial, fungal and viral genes use computer program to see fluorescent change on chip
59
Trasncriptome
all RNA molecules formed from the genetic information within a microbe
60
Mass Spectrometry
used to analyze a protein fingerprint from pure culture isolates or directly from patient specimens works by adding the patient sample to a metal and then striking with a laser. causes sample to become ionized then the ions from the sample are guided into a machine that separates them and identifies them according to their mass-to-charge ratio