Chapter 18 2013 Flashcards

(65 cards)

0
Q

Which principles should a successful cardiovascular exercise program include

A

Frequency, intensity, duration, and mode

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1
Q

What are the five major components of fitness

A

Aerobic, body comp, muscular strength, muscular endurance, flexibility

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2
Q

Refers to how often one exercises

A

Frequency

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3
Q

Refers to how hard one exercises

A

Intensity

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4
Q

What is the minimum training intensity

A

50% of the volume of oxygen (VO2) Max

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5
Q

The time spent exercising

A

Duration

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6
Q

Type of exercise

A

Mode

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7
Q

Maximum heart rate equals

A

220-age

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8
Q

Bottom threshold of the target heart rate =

A

MHRx.70

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9
Q

Top threshold of the target heart rate=

A

MHRx.90

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10
Q

Successful strength and endurance training program should include the principles of what

A

Specificity, regularity, recovery, balance, and variety

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11
Q

What is the recommended recovery period for the same muscle group

A

48 Hours

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12
Q

What is the recommended recovery time between sets

A

30-180 sec

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13
Q

How long should you stretch each major joint pre-workout

A

5-10 second

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14
Q

How long should you hold each stretch during cooldown

A

10-15 sec

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15
Q

What is the minimum required score to pass PT

A

75 or greater while meeting all minimum components scores

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16
Q

How many points is your aerobic fitness portion

A

60

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17
Q

How many points in body composition

A

20

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18
Q

How many points for push-ups and situps

A

10+10=20

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19
Q

If an airman deploys with a satisfactory or excellent fitness assessment score at what point will exempt be marked on the EPR

A

first day of month 7 or 13

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20
Q

If an Airmen receives fitness level of unsatisfactory, a composite score of less than 75 or one comp min is not met when must they retest

A

Within 90 days

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21
Q

What is the timeline for completing the fitness screening questionnaire

A

Earlier than 30 and no later than seven days prior to assessment

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22
Q

For how long after pregnancy are members exempt from testing

A

180 days

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23
Q

What is the test window on any given day

A

3-hours

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24
If extenuating circumstances occur within how many days within how many days must all components be completed
5 Duty days
25
What is the minimum resting period Between component
Three minutes
26
Who manages the balanced eating, workout effectively, and living longer (be well) program
The HAWC
27
Who oversees the administration of the fitness program for the unit, notifies the commander if a member fails, provides fitness metrics and status reports
The UFPM
28
How often must the UFPM provide unit status reports of fitness to the commander
Monthly
29
When must a PTL receive training
Prior to conducting fitness assessments, annually, and upon changing the duty station
30
Essential calorie containing nutrients
Macronutrients
31
What are the three main types of macronutrients
Carbs, fats, protein
32
What macronutrient is known as the energy powerhouse
Carbs
33
What macronutrient supply amino acids
Proteins
34
Which macronutrient provides a ready source of energy, build cell walls, transports and stores fat-soluble vitamins, insulates, and protects vital organs
Fats
35
How much the human body is made up of water
50%
36
What is the formula to determine water intake
Weight/2 = OZ of water per day
37
How long before exercise should a pre-exercise meal be consumed
3-4 hours
38
How long before exercise should a pre-exercise snack be consumed
30-60 min
39
You should have a post exercise snack within how many minutes
15-60
40
Is an individual in the ADAPT program worldwide qualified
No
41
What BAC defines impaired driving
0.05-0.10
42
What BAC falls under drunk driving and causes you to lose your driving privileges for one year
0.10
43
What are the five basic identification methods of substance-abuse
Med referrals, commander ID, drug testing, medical purposes, self ID
44
What is one of the most critical components to members substance-abuse treatment
The treatment team meeting
45
Who makes up a substance-abuse members treatment team
Cmdr., supervisor, members counselor, medical consultants, other appropriate agencies, and the member
46
How many annual deaths is tobacco use responsible for
1 in 5
47
Name the three US Tricare regions
North south and west
48
Name the three overseas Tricare regions
Eurasia-Africa, Latin America and Canada, Pacific
49
Name the four types of Tricare plans
Prime, prime remote, standard and extra, Young adult
50
What is the distance from MTF to receive Tricare prime remote
50 miles a one hour drive time
51
What is the primary demographic of an individual who might commit suicide
The perception of a lack of belongingness with work connectedness to others
52
Risk factors of suicide
Unmanageable stress, difficulty coping, lack of support, substance-abuse, difficulty sleeping or depression are
53
Who Commissioned the suicide prevention program and when
Gen. Moorman, 1996
54
Two forums for cross organizational review and resolution of issues that impact the readiness of forces and quality-of-life
Community action information board and integrated delivery system
55
What are the three components of the ACE model in suicide prevention
Ask Care Escort
56
Six components of PTSD
Exposure, flashbacks, numbing, hypervigilance, symptoms greater than one month, significant distress or impairment
57
How can a unit enhance their psychological resilience to PTSD
Engaging realistic training and strengthen perceived ability to cope
58
Name four types of treatments for PTSD
Cognitive processing therapy, prolonged exposure therapy, Eye movement desensitization, selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor
59
Type of stress resulting from exhilarating experiences such as winning and achieving
Eustress
60
What are two major areas of stressors
Organizational and extra organizational
61
Name the five individual stress management methods
Planning, time management, overload avoidance, relaxation, exercise and good nutrition
62
Name five organizational stress management method
Job design, work environment, communication, selection and job placement, substance-abuse
63
Within how many days returning will individuals in process with their personal readiness function
2 duty days
64
If deployed when will a member be marked "DOES NOT MEET STANDARDS"
If they deploy with a failing score and 91 days have not elapsed since failure.