Chapter 7 (2) Flashcards

(124 cards)

1
Q

orth/o

A

straight

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

ped/o

A

child

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

-ics

A

knowledge; practice

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

what is a osteoma

A

benign growth

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

what is an osteosarcoma

A

malignant growth of osteoblasts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

sarc/o

A

connective tissue

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

what is an ewing sarcoma

A

malignant growth in young men

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

what is a chondroma

A

benign tumor of the cartilage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

what is chondromalacia patellae

A

abnormal softening of the patella due to thinning and uneven wear

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

malac/o

A

softening

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

what is a fracture

A

broken bone caused by an accident, injury, or disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

what are stress fractures caused by

A

force or torsion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

what are pathologic fractures caused by

A

a disease process

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

what is osteomalacia

A

abnormal softening of the bone due to a vitamin D deficiency or lack of sun exposure; causes rickets

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

what is osteomyelitis

A

infection of the bone and bone marrow when bacteria enter the bone following injury or surgery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

myel/o

A

bone marrow

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

what is the difference between open and closed fractures

A

open penetrate through skin
closed do not

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

what is osteoporosis

A

abnormal thinning of the bone structure where bone breakdown exceeds bone formation and calcium and phosphorous are lost

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

where does a colles fracture occur

A

towards the end of the bone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

what is pectus excavatum

A

congenital deformity in which the sternum is bent inward creating a depression of the chest

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

where does a greenstick fracture occur

A

near middle of the bone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

what is kyphosis

A

abnormal posterior curvature of the thoracic spine - humpback

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

what is lordosis

A

abnormal anterior curvature of the lumbar spine - sway back

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

what is scoliosis

A

abnormal C or S shaped lateral curvature of the spine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
what is dextroscoliosis
right side scoliosis
26
what is levoscoliosis
left side scoliosis
27
what is ankylosing spondylitis
chronic inflammation of the vertebrae that leads to fibrosis, fusion, and spinal motion restriction
28
what is spondylolisthesis
degenerative condition of the spine in which one vertebra moves anteriorly and slips out of alignment due to intervertebral disk degeneration, sports injury, or compression fracture of vertebrae
29
spondyl/o
vertebra
30
-listhesis
abnormal condition of slipping
31
what is genu valgum
congenital deformity in which the knees rotate toward the midline and the legs bend away from midline - knock-knee
32
genu
knee
33
valgum
knock-kneed
34
what is genu varum
congenital deformity in which the knees are abnormally far apart and the legs bend towards the midline - bowleg
35
varum
straddling
36
what is hallux valgus
deformity in which the great toe angles toward the other toes and there is swelling at the base - bunion
37
hallux
big toe
38
what is talipes equinovarus
congenital deformity in which the foot is pulled downward and toward the midline - clubfoot
39
talipes
talus-ankle pes-foot
40
equino
heel is elevated like a horse's
41
varus
turned inward
42
what is arthralgia
pain in the joint due to injury, inflammation, or infection from various causes
43
alg/o-
pain
44
what is arthropathy
general term for disease of the joint from any cause
45
what is dislocation
displacement of the end of a bone from its normal position in a joint; usually caused by trauma but can occur in the hip of a newborn
46
what is gout
metabolic disorder in which high uric acid levels cause pain in the joint; most often occurs in the big toe
47
what is rheumatoid arthritis
acute and chronic inflammatory disease of the connective tissue, particularly the joints
48
rheuma
watery discharge
49
-oid
resembling
50
what is osteoarthritis
chronic inflammation, pain, stiffness in the joints as cartilage wears away and bone rubs on bone
51
what is a sprain
overstretching or tearing of ligaments around a joint
52
what is subluxation
partial dislocation with slight displacement of bone ends from the joint
53
what is the difference between subluxation and dislocation
the degree of separating of the bones
54
sub
below
55
what is a torn meniscus
a tear in the cartilage pad in the knee joint because of an injury
56
luxat/o
displacement
57
meniscus
crescent (moon)
58
what is hemarthrosis
condition of the blood in the joint cavity, usually due to blunt trauma or penetrating injury
59
hem/o
blood
60
what is the rheumatoid factor
blood test that is usually positive in patients with rheumatoid arthritis
61
what is an uric acid test
blood test that shoes an elevated level in patients with gout and gouty arthritis
62
what are bone density tests
tests that measure bone mineral density (BMD) to diagnose osteoporosis
63
what is an x-ray
common diagnostic procedure for the skeletal system for diagnosing fractures, dislocations, and bone tumors
64
what is a cast
layer of plaster or fiberglass applied around a fractured bone to immobilize the bone as it heals
65
what is a closed reduction
a procedure in which bone ends in a displaced fracture are manually manipulated back into place, often followed by a cast
66
what is a goniometry
procedure that measures the angle of a joint and its range of motion
67
goni/o
angle
68
what is an orthosis
orthopedic device like a brace or splint that is used to keep a body part straight and immobile
69
what is physical therapy
exercise that improves a patients range of motion, joint mobility, strength, and balance
70
what is traction (procedure)
a procedure that uses weight to pull the bone ends of a fracture into correct alignment
71
what is a prosthesis
orthopedic device that is created for a patient following an amputation
72
what are analgesics
drugs that treat pain associated with bone injury or surgery
73
alges/o
pain
74
what are bone resorption inhibitors
drugs that prevent osteoclasts from breaking down bone to treat osteoporosis
75
what are corticosteroids
drugs that decrease severe inflammation
76
what are nonsteroidal anti-inflammatories (NSAIDs)
drugs that treat inflammation and pain from osteoarthritis and orthopedic injury
77
what is amputation
removal of all or part of an extremity damaged by trauma or disease
78
what is the difference between BKA and AKA amputation
BKA: below the knee AKA: above the knee
79
what is an arthrocentesis
removal of accumulated fluid from an injured joint using a needle inserted into the joint space
80
what is arthrodesis
procedure where bones are fused in a deteriorated, unstable joint
81
-desis
procedure to fuse together
82
what is an arthroscopy
visualization of the inside of a joint using an arthroscope inserted into the joint
83
what is a bone graft
replacement of bone severely damaged due to bone cancer
84
what is the difference between autograft and allograft
autograft: patients own bone allograft: cadaver bone
85
what is a bunionectomy
removal of a bunion that has formed on the metatarsal bone at the base of the great toe
86
what is a cartilage transplantation
replacement of damaged cartilage in active middle-aged adults
87
what is an external fixation
treatment for complicated fractures where an external device is placed on the bone and secured with metal pins that immobilize the fracture
88
what is joint replacement surgery (arthroplasty)
replacement of a joint destroyed by trauma or osteoarthritis with a metal or plastic prosthesis
89
what is a open reduction and internal fixation
treatment for a complicated fracture open reduction: incision is made and bone pieces are realigned internal fixation: screws and plates are used to hold bones in alignment
90
AKA
above the knee amputation
91
anti-CCP
anti-cyclic citrullinated peptide
92
BKA
below the knee amputation
93
BMD
bone mineral density
94
C1
first cervical vertebra or atlas
95
C2
second cervical vertebra or axis
96
C1-C7
cervical vertebrae
97
CT
computerized tomography
98
DEXA
dual-energy x-ray absorptiometry
99
DIP
distal interphalangeal (joint)
100
DJD
degenerative joint disease
101
D.C.
doctor of chiropracty
102
D.O
doctor of osteopathy
103
D.P.M
doctor of podiatric medicine
104
ESWT
extracorporeal shock wave therapy
105
FX Fx
fracture
106
L1-L5
lumbar vertebrae
107
LLE
left lower extremity
108
LUE
left upper extremity
109
MCP
metacarpophalangeal (joint)
110
MRI
magnetic resonance imaging
111
NSAID
nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug
112
OA
osteoarthritis
113
ORIF
open reduction and internal fixation
114
Ortho
orthopedics
115
PT
physical therapy or physical therapist
116
QCT
quantitative computerized tomography
117
RA
rheumatoid arthritis
118
RF
rheumatoid factor
119
RLE
right lower extremity
120
ROM
range of motion
121
RUE
right upper extremity
122
S1
first sacral vertebrae
123
THR
total hip replacement
124
tib-fib
tibia-fibula