DPT 632: Neuroanatomy Flashcards
(123 cards)
1
Q
Which of the following correctly label the structure indicated by the question mark in figure 1?
a. Epithalamus
b. Hypothalamus
c. Hypthalamus
d. Thalamus
A
D
2
Q
The name and function of the structure labeled as the question mark in Figure 2?
a. Postcentral gyrus; primary motor cortex
b. precentral gyrus; primary motor cortex
c. postcentral gyrus; primary sensory cortex
A
C
3
Q
The function of the brainstem-cerebellar region is to:
a. convey information between the cerebrum and spinal cord and control vital functions such as heart rate and respiration
b. be involved in motor control, sensory processing memory, reasoning, and verbal and/or nonverbal communication
c. convey information from sensory receptors into the CNS and from the CNS to skeletal muscles, smooth muscles, and glands
d. convey somatosensory information to the brain and convey signals from the brain to neurons that directly control movement
A
A
4
Q
Depolarization occurs when:
a. the membrane potential becomes less negative than the resting membrane potential
b. the membrane potential becomes more negative than the resting membrane potential
c. the presynaptic terminal of a neuron is inhibited by another neuron
d. all membrane channels are closed preventing the influx of Na+
A
A
5
Q
Which of the following is a feature of the nodes of Ranvier?
a. are distributed approximately every 1-2 mm along the membrane of the cell axon
b. contain a high density of modality gated K+ channels for rapid depolarization of the membrane
c. contain a high density of voltage gated Na+ channels for rapid repolarization of the membrane
d. have low membrane capacitance, preventing the accumulation of electrical charge
A
A
6
Q
Damage to myelin sheath (demyelination) of an axon:
a. results in decreased membrane resistance, allowing a leakage of electrical current
b. results in slowed propagation of action potentials
c. may prevent propagation of action potentials
d. all of the above
A
D
7
Q
Afferent neurons convey information:
a. between interneurons
b. from the CNS to skeletal muscles
c. from peripheral receptors to the CNS
d. between the soma and presynaptic terminal
A
C
8
Q
What type of stimulus is required to open a ligand-gated channel?
a. mechanical force, temperature change, or chemical stimulus
b. no stimulus required
c. neurotransmitters
A
C
9
Q
What are the differences between conductive deafness and sensonneural deafness?
a. No differences exist
b. acoustic trauma, ototoxicdrugs, or disease cause conduction deafness, excessive wax in the outer ear orotitis media cause sensonneural deafness
c. Conduction deafness involves the outer or middle ear, sensonneural deafness involves the receptors and/or cochlear nerve
d. conduction deafness involves the cochlear nerve, senonneural deafness involves the outer or middle ear
A
C
10
Q
Which of the following cranial nerves is NOT involved in regulating the function of autonomic nervous system?
a. Cranial nerve III
b. Cranial nerve V
c. Cranial nerve VII
d. Cranial nerve IX
A
B
11
Q
What is the function of the Optic CN?
A
Conducts sensory signal from receptors of the eye
12
Q
What is the function of the Glossopharyngeal CN?
A
Sensory innervation of the pharynx, soft palate, and posterior tongue
13
Q
What is the function of the Trochlear CN?
A
Motor innervation of the superior oblique
14
Q
What is the function of the Trigeminal CN?
A
Sensory innervation of face and temperomandibular joint (TMJ), motor innervation to muscles for chewing
15
Q
Cranial nerve nuclei in the pons are involved in which of the following?
a. Processing somatosensory information from the face
b. controlling lateral movement of the eyes
c. controlling the muscles of facial expressin and mastication
d. A and B
e. A, B and C
A
E
16
Q
The anterior (basilar) section of the brainstem contains which of the following?
a. descending axons from the cerebral cortex
b. superior and inferior colliculi
c. reticular formation
d. predominantly sensory pathways
e. all of the above
A
A
17
Q
Deviation of protruded tongue to the side of the lesion indicates damage to which of the following cranial nerves?
a. CN IX
b. CN X
c. CN XI
d. CN XII
A
D
18
Q
Which of the following is/are controlled by the oculomotor nerve?
a. Superior rectus muscle that moves the eye
b. constriction of the pupil of the ye
c. adjusting the shape of the lens of the eye
d. all of the above
A
D
19
Q
What is Bell’s Palsy?
a. Increased sweating and vasodilation on one side of the face
b. contralateral paralysis of the msucles innervated by CN VII
c. ipsilateral paralysis of the muscles innervated by CN VII
d. loss of the consensual reflex
e. severe pain in the facial region near the jaw
A
C
20
Q
Identify the location(s) of the lesion that may cause diplopia (double vision)
a. Oculomotor nerve
b. Trochlear Nerve
c. Abducens
d. All of the above
A
D
21
Q
Hyperpolarization of receptor cells of the right posterior semicircular canal would be associated with depolarization (excitation) of the ______________.
a. Right anterior semicircular canal
b. Left posterior semicircular canal
c. Left horizontal semicircular canal
d. Left anterior semicircular canal
A
D
22
Q
Vestibular connections influence which of the following?
a. Posture of the hand and body
b. Head and eye movements
c. Consciousness
d. Autonomic functions
e. All of the above
A
E
23
Q
The path of the optic nerve passes from the __________ to the ___________
a. Retina; optic chiasm
b. Optic chiasm; lateral geniculate
c. Cortex; retina
d. Retina; lateral geniculate
A
A
24
Q
Dysfunction of what area of the brain is noted by the four Ds (dysphagia, dysarthria, diplopia, dysmetria)?
a. Dysfunction of the medulla
b. Dysfunction of the thalamus
c. Dysfunction of the brainstem
d. All of the above
A
C
25
What is the most common symptoms of vestibular dysfunction?
a. Nausea and vomiting
b. Vertigo
c. Limb ataxia
d. Upward beat nystagmus
e. Disequilibrium
B
26
What symptom might be caused by ischemia in the brainstem region?
a. Dizziness
b. Visual Disorders
c. Weakness
d. All of the above
D
27
The Hallpike maneuver was designed to:
a. Elicit the vestibule-ocular reflex
b. Treat dizziness associated with central vestibular lesions
c. Provoke maximal movement of otoconia in the posterior semicircular canals
d. Rupture of the cupula
C
28
What is the name off the disorder characterized by loss of visual stabilization
Oscillopsia
29
What is the name off the disorder characterized by acute onset of vertigo and nystagmus in response to rapid change of head position
Benign paroxysmal positional vertigo
30
What is the name off the disorder characterized by illusion of motion
Vertigo
31
What is the name off the disorder characterized by syndrome consisting of both auditory and vestibular disorders associated with abnormal fluid pressures of the inner ear
Meniere’s disease
32
Which one of the following neuron structures is specialized for receiving synaptic input from other neurons?
a. Cell body
b. Dendrite
c. Axon
d. Axon hillock
e. Presynaptic terminal
B
33
Which of the following is the structural part of a neuron that releases a neurotransmitter?
a. Dendrite
b. Axon hillock
c. Soma
d. Presynaptic terminal
e. Postsynaptic terminal
D
34
Pseudounipolar cells:
a. Have two dendrites.
b. Have two somas.
c. Are not neurons.
d. Are glial cells.
e. Have two axon extensions
E
35
Retrograde transport:
a. Recycles substances from the axon back to the soma.
b. Moves neurotransmitters from the dendrites to the cell body.
c. Moves substances from the soma toward the axon terminal.
d. Moves neurotransmitters across the synaptic cleft.
e. Moves information from astrocyte to astrocyte
A
36
Afferent neurons convey information:
a. Between interneurons
b. From the CNS to skeletal muscles
c. From peripheral receptors to the CNS
d. Between the soma and presynaptic terminal
e. From the CNS to smooth muscles
C
37
The resting membrane potential is:
a. The same as the membrane equilibrium potential
b. The voltage difference across a neuron's cell membrane, maintained by an unequal distribution of one specific ion
c. Maintained by active transport of sodium ions (Na+) and potassium ions (K+) and passive diffusion of Na+, K+, and chloride ion (Cl–) through leak channels in the cell membrane
d. Typically measured at +70 millivolts (mV) because the intracellular environment is more
positively charged than the extracellular environment
e. Created by a more negative charge inside the membrane than outside because Na+ is continuously moved inside the cell membrane by an active transport pump
C
38
Depolarization occurs when:
a. The membrane potential becomes less negative than the resting membrane potential.
b. The membrane potential becomes more negative than the resting membrane potential.
c. Cl– influx hyperpolarizes the membrane.
d. The presynaptic terminal of a neuron is inhibited by another neuron.
e. All membrane channels are closed, preventing the influx of Na+.
A
39
Local potentials:
a. Are either receptor or synaptic potentials.
b. Spread passively only a short distance along the cell membrane.
c. Result from stimulation of sensory receptors or from the binding of a neurotransmitter with chemical receptor sites on a postsynaptic membrane.
d. Both A and B
e. A, B, and C
E
40
Which of the following change the electrical potential across the cell membrane?
a. Activation and opening of ligand-gated K+ channels
b. Activation and opening of modality-gated Na+ channels
c. Activation and opening of voltage-gated Cl– channels
d. Leak channels, which allow continuous diffusion of small ions
e. All of the above
E
41
Propagation of an action potential along an axon is dependent on a(n):
a. Complete myelination of the axon by glial cells
b. Anterograde diffusion of the electric potential with active generation of new potentials
c. Rapid repolarization associated with passive diffusion of Cl–
d. Retrograde diffusion of the electrical potential
e. Na+/K+ pump moving sufficient quantities of Na+ into of the cell and K+ out of the cell
B
42
Which one of the following is a feature of the nodes of Ranvier?
a. Are distributed approximately every 1 to 2 millimeters (mm) along the membrane of the cell axon.
b. Contain a high density of modality-gated K+ channels for rapid depolarization of the membrane.
c. Contain a high density of voltage-gated Na+ channels for rapid repolarization of the membrane.
d. Have low membrane capacitance, preventing the accumulation of electrical charge.
e. Are heavily myelinated, which allows for rapid diffusion of an electrical potential
A
43
Demyelination of an axon:
a. Results in decreased membrane resistance, allowing a leakage of electrical current.
b. Results in slowed propagation of action potentials.
c. May prevent propagation of action potentials.
d. Both A and B
e. A, B, and C
E
44
Peripheral demyelination:
a. Typically affects small diameter axons before large diameter axons.
b. Is a characteristic feature of multiple sclerosis.
c. Affects the structure of oligodendrocytes.
d. Typically affects the Schwann cells of large, well-myelinated axons.
e. Typically affects the axon at the ventral root of the spinal cord.
D
45
Guillain-Barré syndrome:
a. Involves demyelination of peripheral axons.
b. Results from an autoimmune attack on Schwann cells.
c. May affect cranial nerves controlling the muscles involved in swallowing, breathing, and facial expression.
d. Both A and B
e. A, B, and C
E
46
Multiple sclerosis:
a. Results from an autoimmune attack on oligodendrocytes.
b. Involves demyelination of axons in the CNS.
c. Has signs and symptoms associated with both motor and sensory impairment.
d. Both A and B
e. A, B, and C
E
47
Which one of the following is not one of the primary components of a neuron?
a. Axon
b. Soma
c. Postsynaptic membrane
d. Dendrite
C
48
The strength of local electrical potentials is modulated and integrated via:
a. Spatial summation, the combined effect of potentials generated in other parts of the neuron
b. Temporal summation, the combined effect of small potential changes occurring over several milliseconds
c. Both A and B
d. None of the above. A local potential is an all-or-none phenomenon
C
49
Which one of the following is an example of divergence?
a. Contraction of the hip flexor muscles when a painful stimulus is applied to the toe
b. Integration of taste and smell information in the temporal lobe
c. Multiple different cells synapsing with a single neuron in the spinal cord
d. All of the above
A
50
Glial cells contribute which one of the following?
a. Communication between neurons and blood vessels
b. Neural cell death
c. Action potential propagation
d. Both A and B
e. All of the above
D
51
The second messenger in a second messenger system is a(n):
a. G-protein
b. α chain of the G-protein
c. Enzyme inside the neuron that can trigger responses within the neuron
d. Neurotransmitter
e. Gene
C
52
Second messengers may initiate the:
a. Opening of membrane ion channels
b. Activation of genes, causing increased synthesis of specific cellular products
c. Modulation of Ca+2 levels inside the cell
d. A, B, and C
e. None of the above
D
53
Which one of the following can serve as the postsynaptic cell of a synapse?
a. Smooth muscle cell in an artery
b. Hepatocyte in the liver
c. Neuron in the thalamus
d. Muscle cell in the triceps
e. All of the above
E
54
ACh receptor subtypes include:
a. Adrenergic and noradrenergic
b. Nicotinic and muscarinic
c. Alpha and beta
d. Alpha and gamma
e. None of the above
B
55
How does onabotulinumtoxinA (BOTOX) therapeutically produce paresis in overactive muscles?
a. Acts as an antagonist by binding to the ACh receptor on the postsynaptic membrane.
b. Rapidly degrades ACh in the synaptic cleft.
c. Facilitates the reuptake and sequestration of ACh into the presynaptic cell.
d. Disrupts the protein structure of the muscle cell receptor, thus preventing ACh from binding.
e. Inhibits the release of ACh from the presynaptic terminal at the neuromuscular junction
E
56
N-methyl-D-aspartate (NMDA) receptors:
a. Are involved in long-term potentiation.
b. Bind glutamate.
c. Have been implicated in pathologic changes in the nervous system.
d. A, B, and C
e. None of the above
D
57
Myasthenia gravis:
a. Is caused by the destruction of gamma-aminobutyric acid (GABA) receptors on the postsynaptic membrane of muscles.
b. Results in the decreased release of ACh at the neuromuscular junction.
c. Is an autoimmune disease that destroys ACh receptors on the postsynaptic membrane of muscles, thus interferes with ACh binding for repetitive muscle contractions.
d. Is successfully treated with removal of the pituitary gland.
e. Is all of the above
C
58
Neurons that are deprived of oxygen for a prolonged period:
a. Release glycine, which inhibits the postsynaptic neurons and prevents neural function even in neurons not directly affected by the oxygen deprivation.
b. Become inactive and slowly regenerate.
c. Release glutamate, which causes overexcitation of the surrounding neurons.
d. A, B, and C
e. None of the above
C
59
Excitotoxicity begins with:
a. Excessive production of lactic acid
b. Destruction of cellular proteins
c. Cellular edema
d. Persistent binding of glutamate to N-methyl-D-aspartate (NMDA)–type receptors in the postsynaptic cell membrane
e. Interference of mitochondria functions
D
60
Cellular effects of excitotoxicity include:
a. Excessive production of lactic acid
b. Destruction of cellular proteins
c. Cellular edema
d. Interference of mitochondria functions
e. All of the above
E
61
Which one of the following types of memory is affected by an injury to the hippocampus?
a. Memory of how to ride a bicycle
b. Memory of names and events
c. Memory of how to tie shoe laces
d. Both A and B
e. A, B, and C
B
62
In the mature central nervous system (CNS), axonal regeneration is impeded by which of the following?
a. Glial scar formation
b. Absence of neural growth factor
c. Release of growth inhibiting factors
d. Both A and B
e. A, B, and C
E
63
Constraint-induced movement after a stroke requires which one of the following?
a. Immobilization of the affected upper extremity (UE) to control spasticity
b. Repetitive closed-chain resistance training
c. Aggressive range of motion and exercise within 12 hours after a stroke
d. Repetitive, task-specific functional movements of only the affected UE
e. Weight bearing and prolonged stretching of the affected UE
D
64
Learning an individual’s name requires:
a. Sprouting
b. LTP
c. Habituation
d. Central chromatolysis
B
65
Spinal axons conveying a signal for conscious somatosensation from the upper limb ascend in which of the following?
a. Ventral horn
b. Fasciculus gracilis
c. Fasciculus cuneatus
d. Internal arcuate fibers
e. Medial lemniscus
C
66
Cell bodies of second-order neurons conveying a signal for conscious proprioceptive information from the lower limb are located in which of the following?
a. Dorsal root ganglion
b. Fasciculus cuneatus
c. Somatosensory cerebral cortex
d. Nucleus gracilis
e. Medial lemniscus
D
67
The ventral posterolateral (VPL) nucleus of the thalamus is the site of synapse for:
a. First-order neurons of the dorsal column/medial lemniscus system
b. Second-order neurons with their cell bodies in the nucleus cuneatus and/or nucleus gracilis
c. Third-order neurons with their cell bodies in the spinal nucleus of the trigeminal cranial nerve
d. Second-order neurons with their cell bodies in the nucleus dorsalis (Clarke’s nucleus)
e. Third-order neuron with their cell body the lateral cuneate nucleus
B
68
Rapidly turning the eyes and head toward a painful stimulus is a function of which one of the following tracts?
a. Trigeminoreticulolimbic
b. Spinoreticular
c. Spinomesencephalic
d. Trigeminospinothalamic
e. Dorsal column medial lemniscus
C
69
Which of the following statements is true about the homunculus for the somatosensory cortex?
a. The homunculus was developed by experimentally recording electrical potentials from cells in the somatosensory cortex during stimulation of various parts of the body.
b. The area of the homunculus that represents the foot is adjacent to the area for the hand.
c. The proportions of the homunculus are the same as the proportions of the physical body.
d. Somatotopic organization is only found in cellular organization of the somatosensory cortex.
e. The area of the homunculus that represents the torso is adjacent to the area for the face.
A
70
Which of the following is a function of the primary somatosensory cortex?
a. Discrimination of the texture of an object
b. Discrimination of the shape of an object
c. Stereognosis
d. Both A and B
e. A, B, and C
D
71
A lesion to which one of the following regions would result in crossed analgesia?
a. Dorsal horn of the spinal cord
b. Peripheral nerves
c. Medulla or lower pons
d. Thalamus
e. Cortex
C
72
Sensory extinction is the:
a. Inability to recognize any sensations consciously
b. Loss of conscious proprioception
c. Same as astereognosis
d. Awareness of stimuli on only one side of the body when both sides of the body are simultaneously stimulated
e. Inability to localize a pinprick on one side of the body
D
73
The role of enkephalins in the spinal cord is:
a. To decrease release of substance P from the primary afferent
b. To hyperpolarize spinal interneurons in the pain pathway
c. To stimulate non-nociceptive interneurons of the dorsal horn
d. A and B
e. A, B, and C
D
74
When the raphespinal tract is active, which neurotransmitter is released at the axon terminal in the dorsal horn of the spinal cord?
a. Norepinephrine
b. Gamma-aminobutyric acid (GABA)
c. Dopamine
d. Substance P
e. Serotonin
E
75
Which of the following is(are) part of the fast-descending neuronal system for pain inhibition?
a. Rostral ventromedial medulla
b. Periaqueductal gray
c. Locus coeruleus
d. A, B, and C
e. None of the above
D
76
The locus coeruleus is located in which one of the following?
a. Spinal cord dorsal horn
b. Medulla
c. Pons
d. Midbrain
e. Cerebral cortex
C
77
Which one of the following proteins is NOT involved in the active process of muscle contraction?
a. Myosin
b. Actin
c. Tropomyosin
d. Troponin
e. Titin
E
78
Continuous prolonged immobilization of skeletal muscle in a shortened position results in which of the following?
a. Increased muscle tone from hyperactive reflexes
b. Contracture from loss of sarcomeres
c. Increased tensile strength from the addition of titin
d. Both A and B
e. A, B, and C
B
79
Which one of the following produces weak actin-myosin bonding?
a. Active muscle contraction
b. Muscle immobility
c. Physiologic contracture
d. Active contraction in lengthened muscles
e. Reflexive muscle contraction
B
80
What is the purpose of alpha-gamma coactivation?
a. Prevents simultaneous activation of fast twitch and slow twitch muscles.
b. Coordinates reciprocal reflex innervation.
c. Coordinates the actions of the basal ganglia and cerebellum.
d. Maintain muscle spindle sensitivity when extrafusal muscle fibers contract.
e. Prevents contraction of an antagonist muscle when the agonist is contracting
D
81
The term phasic stretch reflex is synonymous with which of the following?
a. Myotatic reflex
b. Muscle stretch reflex
c. Deep tendon reflex
d. Both A and B
e. A, B, and C
E
82
Reciprocal inhibition produces inhibition of the alpha motor neurons to which of the following?
a. Agonist muscle
b. Agonist muscle and its synergists
c. Antagonist muscle
d. Agonist muscle, its synergists and antagonists
C
83
How does motor information from the basal ganglia reach spinal lower motor neurons?
a. Neurons in the basal ganglia that have direct axonal connections directly to spinal lower motor neurons.
b. Neural connections with the cerebellum.
c. Output to the thalamus and pedunculopontine nucleus (PPN), which synapse with cortical and brainstem motor neurons that project to the spinal lower motor neurons.
d. Direct connections from the striatum to lower motor neurons.
e. Neurons from the subthalamic nucleus directly synapse with spinal lower motor neurons.
C
84
The cortico-basal ganglia-thalamus motor loop contributes to:
a. Regulation of muscle force
b. Sequencing of movements
c. Regulation of muscle tone
d. Selection and inhibition of specific motor synergies
e. All of the above
E
85
Which of the following is true about the Golgi tendon organ (GTO)?
a. Maximum GTO activation occurs before maximum voluntary contraction.
b. GTO inhibition of the agonist alpha motor neuron causes immediate muscle relaxation via the GTO reflex.
c. Effectiveness of the contract-relax technique for stretching is dependent on GTO input.
d. GTO conveys information via a type IIa afferent to the spinal cord.
e. All of the above are true statements.
B
86
Which of the following statements about fast-twitch muscle fibers is true?
a. The neuron innervating the muscle determines twitch characteristics.
b. Alpha motor neurons having large-diameter axons innervate fast-twitch muscle fibers.
c. Using a long train of repetitive contractions identifies twitch characteristics.
d. Both A and B
e. A, B, and C
D
87
Which one of the following contributes to the spinal control of walking?
a. Afferent input from muscle spindles and GTOs
b. Adaptable networks of interneurons that modulate lower motor neuron firing patterns
c. Reciprocal signals crossing in the anterior commissure of the spinal cord
d. All of the above
D
88
Which one of the following involuntary muscle contractions is always abnormal?
a. Muscle spasms
b. Cramps
c. Fasciculations
d. Fibrillations
e. All of the above
D
89
Myoclonus is:
a. Severe and painful muscle spasms
b. Quick twitches of a single motor unit
c. Brief involuntary contractions of a muscle or group of muscles
d. Persistent muscle twitching after a spinal or cerebral shock
e. None of the above
C
90
If the lower motor neurons to a muscle are destroyed, which of the following signs affects the denervated muscles?
a. Loss of reflexes
b. Atrophy
c. Spasticity
d. Both A and B
e. A, B, and C
D
91
After lower neuron motor denervation caused by poliomyelitis, how does recovery of some muscle strength occur?
a. Cell division of surviving motor neurons produces new motor neurons.
b. Loss of interneuronal inhibition causes hyperreflexia.
c. Axonal sprouting of surviving neurons innervate muscles fibers.
d. Both A and B
e. A, B, and C
C
92
Abnormal cutaneous reflexes that occur after an upper motor neuron lesion include which of the following?
a. Emergence of Babinski’s sign
b. Muscle spasms in response to normally innocuous stimuli
c. Paresthesias
d. Both A and B
e. A, B, and C
D
93
Which one of the following major factors limits movement in individuals who have had a stroke?
a. Paresis caused by decreased agonist activation
b. Loss of ability to fractionate movement
c. Abnormal timing of muscle activation
d. Both A and B
e. A, B, and C
E
94
Clonus is characterized by which one of the following?
a. Involuntary, repetitive, and rhythmic muscle contractions in response to muscle stretch
b. Decrease in resistance to passive stretch of a hypertonic muscle
c. Excessive resistance to both passive and active muscle stretch
d. Prolonged contraction of antigravity muscles
e. Brief, involuntary contraction of a single muscle fiber
A
95
Decorticate rigidity occurs with which of the following?
a. Lesions of the medulla
b. Vascular lesions of the anterior choroidal artery
c. Lesions superior to the midbrain
d. Lesion to the cerebellar lobes
e. All of the above
C
96
Myoplasticity results from which of the following?
a. Contracture
b. Increased weak actin-myosin binding
c. Spasticity
d. Both A and B
e. A, B, and C
D
97
In an individual with paraparesis secondary to an incomplete spinal cord lesion, the increase in Achilles tendon tension during gait coincides with the stretch of the triceps surae during passive dorsiflexion of the foot in the stance phase. The increase in Achilles tendon tension is not correlated with an increase in EMG. What causes the abnormal muscle resistance to stretch?
a. Spasticity
b. Contracture
c. Cocontraction
d. Hyperreflexia
e. Atrophy
B
98
What is the mechanism by which onabotulinumtoxinA (BOTOX) decreases muscle activation?
a. Blocks the binding of acetylcholine (ACh) to the motor end plate.
b. Inhibits the binding of myosin to active sites on actin.
c. Blocks the release of Ca+2 from the sarcoplasmic reticulum.
d. Inhibits the release of ACh from the presynaptic terminal.
e. None of the above occurs
D
99
How does motor information from the basal ganglia reach spinal lower motor neurons?
a. Neurons in the basal ganglia that have direct axonal connections directly to spinal lower motor neurons.
b. Neural connections with the cerebellum.
c. Output to the thalamus and pedunculopontine nucleus (PPN), which synapse with cortical and brainstem motor neurons that project to the spinal lower motor neurons.
d. Direct connections from the striatum to lower motor neurons.
e. Neurons from the subthalamic nucleus directly synapse with spinal lower motor neurons
C
100
The cortico-basal ganglia-thalamus motor loop contributes to:
a. Regulation of muscle force
b. Sequencing of movements
c. Regulation of muscle tone
d. Selection and inhibition of specific motor synergies
e. All of the above
E
101
Major roles of the cerebellum are to:
a. Compare actual movement to intended movement.
b. Adjust movements to existing conditions.
c. Provide conscious awareness of proprioceptive information.
d. Both A and B
e. A, B, and C
D
102
Dyskinesia is a side effect caused by prolonged use of which one of the following chemical agents for treatment of Parkinson’s disease?
a. Acetylcholinesterase
b. L-dopa
c. Botulinum
d. Baclofen
e. Gamma-aminobutyric acid (GABA) agonists
B
103
Deep-brain stimulation of which structure is safe and effective for reducing tremors in Parkinson’s disease?
a. Putamen
b. Caudate
c. Thalamus
d. Substantia nigra
e. Red nucleus
C
104
Which of the following is/are associated with the emergence of focal hand dystonia?
a. Excessive repetition or overuse
b. Somatotopic degradation of somatosensory cortex
c. Central impairment of proprioception
d. Both A and B
e. A, B, and C
E
105
What is the most functionally important branch of the cervical plexus?
a. Branch to the sternocleidomastoid muscle
b. Branch to the biceps brachii
c. Branch to the triceps
d. Phrenic nerve
e. Musculocutaneous nerve
D
106
Which one of the plexes innervates the posterior thigh and most of the leg and foot?
a. Cervical
b. Brachial
c. Lumbar
d. Sacral
e. None of the above
D
107
Miniature endplate potentials are essential for which of the following?
a. Inhibiting the action of lower motor neurons
b. Initiating contraction of muscles
c. Preventing atrophy of muscle fibers
d. A and B
e. All of the above
C
108
Trophic changes after denervation include which of the following?
a. Muscle atrophy
b. Shiny skin
c. Brittleness of fingernails and toenails
d. A and B
e. All of the above
E
109
In a recording from a nerve conduction velocity (NCV) study, decreased amplitude of recorded potentials, combined with slowing of NCV, indicates which of the following?
a. Myelinopathy
b. Myopathy
c. Myasthenia gravis
d. Upper motor neuron lesion
e. Axonopathy
E
110
If NCV studies show that conduction is slowed at a single site in one nerve, yet the NCV is normal throughout the remainder of the nerve and in other nerves, the disorder is characterized as which of the following?
a. Traumatic myelinopathy
b. Axonopathy
c. Severance injury
d. Myopathy
e. Polyneuropathy
A
111
If the NCV is normal along the length of the peripheral nerve, yet the amplitude of the electromyogram (EMG) potential is decreased, the disorder is:
a. Myelinopathy
b. Myopathy
c. Lower motor neuron lesion
d. Upper motor neuron lesion
e. Axonopathy
B
112
Myasthenia gravis is an autoimmune disease affecting the:
a. Myelin of peripheral nerves
b. ACh receptors at the neuromuscular junction
c. Release of ACh from the presynaptic terminal
d. Storage of calcium in the sarcoplasmic reticulum
e. Alpha motor neurons in the ventral horn of spinal cord
B
113
Guillian-Barré syndrome is an autoimmune disease that causes:
a. Necrosis of the alpha motor neuron
b. Degeneration of the motor endplate
c. Spasticity
d. Peripheral demyelination
e. Degeneration of the C-fiber axons
D
114
Reciprocal activation of a stepping pattern generator (SPG) is thought to be coordinated by signals conveyed in the:
a. DCML
b. Golgi tendon organs (GTOs)
c. Posterior commissure of spinal cord
d. Anterior commissure of spinal cord
e. Ventral horn gamma motor neurons
B
115
Which one of the following is NOT a sign of an upper motor neuron lesion?
a. Muscle paresis
b. Hyperreflexia
c. Dystonia
d. Positive Babinski’s sign
e. Spasticity
C
116
After a complete spinal cord injury affecting S2-4, a bladder that cannot be emptied is which of the following?
a. Hypertonic and hyperreflexive
b. Flaccid and paralyzed
c. Spastic
d. Autoreflexive
e. None of the above
B
117
Complete spinal cord lesions above which one of the following level results in long-term ventilator dependence?
a. C4
b. C5
c. C6
d. C7
e. All of the above
A
118
Loss of descending sympathetic control as a result of complete spinal cord lesions above T6 result in which of the following?
a. Orthostatic hypotension
b. Autonomic dysreflexia
c. Poor thermoregulation
d. Both A and B
e. A, B, and, C
E
119
Autonomic dysreflexia is characterized by which one of the following?
a. Abrupt decrease in blood pressure because of sympathetic vasoconstriction
b. Abrupt increase in blood pressure and pounding headache
c. Profuse sweating below the level of the lesion
d. Excessive activation of the parasympathetic nervous system
e. Excessive shivering associated with hyperthermia
B
120
Dorsal rhizotomy is the selective surgical ablation of which of the following?
a. Dorsal horn neurons
b. Posterior commissural axons
c. Dorsal roots
d. Dorsal columns
e. Nucleus dorsalis
C
121
Loss of pain and temperature sensation in a capelike distribution over the shoulders, lower limb paresis, hyper-reflexia, and loss of bowel and bladder function are characteristic of which of the following?
a. Multiple sclerosis
b. Cervical spondylosis
c. Meningomyelocele
d. Syringomyelia
e. Erb’s paralysis
D
122
Klumpke’s paralysis is the result of which of the following?
a. Avulsion of the C5 to C6 ventral roots
b. Mechanical irritation of the C7 to C8 dorsal roots
c. Traction force applied to the cervico-occipital region
d. Lesion of the dorsal root ganglion because of a herniated disk
e. Avulsion of the C8 through T1 motor nerve roots
E
123
Vertebral canal stenosis is associated with which one of the following?
a. Narrowing of the vertebral canal caused by bone growth or tissue hypertrophy
b. Compression of neural and vascular structures of the spinal cord
c. Radiating pain with numbness and loss of proprioception
d. All of the above
e. None of the above
D
