Endocrine System Flashcards

(250 cards)

1
Q

what are the two main types of glands?

A

endocrine

exocrine

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2
Q

____ are ductless

A

endocrine

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3
Q

_____ have ducts

A

exocrine

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4
Q

which secrete hormones into surrounding tissue fluid

A

endocrine

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5
Q

give examples of endocrine glands?

A
pituitary
thyroid
parathyroid
adrenal
pineal
thymus
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6
Q

which organs have discrete areas of endocrine tissue as well as exocrine tissue

A

pancreas
gonads
hypothalamus

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7
Q

nonhormonal products are…

A

directed to membrane surfaces

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8
Q

define hormones

A

chemical substances secreted by cells into extracellular fluids, that regulate metabolic function of other cells in the body

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9
Q

most hormones are..

A

amino acid based hormones

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10
Q

give examples of steroid hormones

A

gonadal and adrenocortical hormones

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11
Q

the main mechanism of action for hormones is

A

to increase or decrease rates of normal cellular activity

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12
Q

name some of the hormonal effects?

A
alter plasma membrane permeability
alter protein or regulatory molecule synthesis
activate or inactivate enzyme
induction of secretory activity
stimulate mitosis
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13
Q

what are some of the mechanisms that transduce hormonal signal into an intracellular change

A

G-protein linked receptor activation of intracellular second messengers
direct gene activation

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14
Q

G-protein linked receptor activation of intracellular is done by….

A

amino acid hormones

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15
Q

direct gene activation is done by…

A

steroid hormones

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16
Q

give an overview of cAMP

A
  1. signal molecule binds to cell-surface receptor protein
  2. this activates a G protein in intracellular fluid
  3. G protein GDP is replaced by GTP when that subunit is activated
  4. diffuses within plasma membrane until it reaches Adenylate cyclase
  5. it activates
  6. this produces cAMP from ATP
  7. the cAMP formed in inner surface of membrane diffuses into cytoplasm where it binds to and activates protein kinase
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17
Q

give an overview of PIP Calcium signal mechanism

A

Phospholipase is an enzyme that will cut a phospholipid
DAG remains in the membrane and this activates PKC
IP3 is soluble in cytoplasm
it works on a intracellular receptor on smooth E.R.
this causes the SER to release calcium into cytoplasm
the calcium activates PKC

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18
Q

direct gene activation mainly is for ________ hormones

A

steroid

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19
Q

steroid hormones are ____ solube

A

lipid

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20
Q

since steroid hormones are lipid soluble, they are able to pass through…

A

plasma membrane

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21
Q

once inside, what do the steroid hormones do?

A

bind to intracellular receptor

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22
Q

the binding of the steroid hormone to the intracellular receptor forms…

A

activated complex

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23
Q

what does the activated complex later do?

A

passes into nucleus and binds to specific DNA sequences

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24
Q

the association with the DNA sequence does what?

A

turns on gene

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25
target cell specificity is mediated by...
specific protein receptors
26
where are the receptors localized?
to cells that are influenced by a given hormone
27
what do hormones act as?
molecular triggers
28
what are the factors affecting target cell activation?
hormonal levels number of receptors on target cell receptor affinty
29
define half-life
measure of hormonal persistence in blood stream
30
what affects the half-life?
depends on rate of synthesis and release | speed of removal or degradation
31
the onset of effect is dependent on...
hormonal type
32
steroid hormone has a slower onset and...
lower magnitude of effect and longer lifetime
33
what kind of feedback controls hormone release?
negative
34
hormone secretion is triggered in response to a
stimulus
35
as hormone level increases, what happens?
target organ is affected
36
name the 3 types of stimuli for hormone release
humoral neural hormonal
37
describe the humoral response
endocrine glands release hormones in direct response to changing levels of ions or nutrients
38
describe neural response
nerve fibers stimulate hormonal release
39
describe hormonal response
occurs when a hormone is secreted that in turn, stimulates the secretion of other hormones.
40
another name for the pituitary is the
hypophysis
41
where is the pituitary located?
rests in the sella turcica of the sphenoid bone
42
to what is the pituitary connected to?
the superiorly lying hypothalamus
43
what is the infundibulum?
its the stalk-like connection between the two
44
the hypothalamus is part of the
brain
45
what does the hypothalamus serve as?
connection between brain and endocrine system
46
what are the 2 main lobes?
posterior | anterior
47
Posterior lobe + infundibulum =
neurohypophysis
48
what is the anterior lobe comprised of?
glandular tissue
49
the two main lobes are highly....
vascular
50
posterior lobe is an...
outgrowth of the brain and maintains its neural connections
51
what do the neurons in the supraoptic and paraventricular nuclei of the hypothalamus give rise to?
the hypothalamic- hypophyseal tract
52
where are hormones synthesized?
in the secretory cells of the hypothalamus
53
when neurons fire, what happens?
hormones are released into capillary bed in posterior pituitary
54
the anterior lobe is derived from
epithelial tissue
55
the anterior lobe has no direct connection between...
posterior pituitary or hypothalamus
56
the anterior lobe has a vascular connection called
hypophyseal portal veins
57
_____ and ______ hormones secreted by hypothalamus are carried by portal system to anterior pituitary
releasing and inhibiting
58
what is the anterior pituitary referred to as?
Master gland
59
what are the anterior pituitary tropic hormones?
they regulate secretory activity of other endocrine glands
60
name the anterior pituitary tropic hormones
TSH: thyroid stimulating hormone ACTH: adrenocorticotropic hormone FSH:follicle-stimulating hormone LH: luteinizing hormone
61
what are the other 2 hormones that are not tropic?
PRL: Prolactin GH:growth hormone
62
the other 2 hormones have...
neuroendocrine targets
63
the growth hormone is controlled by the...
anterior pituitary gland
64
the growth hormone is produced by
somatotropic cells
65
what does the growth hormone do?
stimulates most cells in the body to grow and divide
66
what are the major targets of the growth hormone?
bones and muscles
67
the growth hormone can also be called the ____ hormone
anabolic
68
what does it do?
promotes metabolism
69
growth-promoting effects are mediated....
indirectly
70
what are IGF's
insulin-like growth factors
71
what produces IGF's
liver and other tissues
72
name all the effects of the growth hormone
stimulates uptake of amino acids from blood and their incorporation into proteins stimulates sulfur uptake mobilizes fats from fat deposits decreases rate of glucose uptake and metabolism
73
name the 2 regulations of the the GH by the hypothalamic hormone
GHRH | GHIH
74
name the GHRH (growth hormone releasing hormone)
somatocrinin (positive effect)
75
name the GHIH (growth hormone inhibiting hormone)
somatostatin (negative effect)
76
IGF (insulin-like growth factors) has what kind of effect on GH
negative
77
IGF has what kind of effect on somatostatin
positive
78
gigantism results from...
adolescent hypersecretion
79
acromegaly results from...
adult hypersecretion
80
progeria occurs when __________ is severe
adult hyposecretion
81
adolescent hyposcretion can be related to...
pituitary dwarfism
82
TSH stands for
thyroid-stimulating hormone
83
what does TSH do?
stimulates normal growth and activity of the thyroid gland
84
TSH can be considered what type of hormone?
tropic hormone
85
what controls the TSH?
hypothalamus
86
how does the hypothalamus control the TSH?
By releasing thyroid releasing hormone (TRH)
87
what can inhibit the release of TSH?
GHIH
88
What does ACTH stand for?
Adrenocorticotropic hormone
89
what does ACTH do?
stimulates adrenal cortex to release corticosteroid hormones
90
what can it help release?
glucocorticoids
91
what do glucocorticoids do?
offset effects of stress
92
ACTH release is controlled by ______
Corticotropin-releasing hormone (CRH)
93
what kind of hormone is CRH?
a hypothalamic hormone
94
CRH has a _____ rhythm
diurnal (24 hr)
95
name the feedback inhibition of ACTH
rising glucocorticoids
96
name the 2 gonadotropins
FSH and LH
97
what do gonadotropins do exactly?
regulate gonads
98
what does FSH stand for?
follicle stimulating hormone
99
what does FSH stimulate?
gamete production
100
what does LH stand for?
Lutenizing hormone
101
what does LLH promote?
production of gonadal hormones
102
FSH and LH work in concert to cause what?
follicle to mature
103
____ causes egg to be extruded from follicle
LH
104
In males, what does LH stimulate?
interstitial cells of the testes to produce testosterone
105
what controls the release of LH and FSH?
hypothalamus
106
how does the hypothalamus regulate the release of LH and FSH?
through the use of gonadotropin-releasing hormone (GnRH)
107
Prolactin stimulates what?
milk production
108
Prolactin is controlled by what 2 hormones?
prolactin releasing hormone (PRH) and prolactin inhibiting hormone (PIH)
109
T/F estrogen has a + effect on PRH
True
110
ADH and oxytocin are comprised of what?
9 amino acids
111
ADH and oxytocin are released as a result of what?
neural signals from hypothalamus
112
oxytocin is stored where?
posterior pituitary gland
113
what does oxytocin do?
stimulates smooth muscle contraction
114
____________depends on number of oxytocin receptors
muscle response
115
name some places where muscle responses from oxytocin could occur.
uterus breast pregnancy
116
oxytocin is a hormonal trigger for...
milk ejection
117
what does ADH stand for?
antidiuretic hormone
118
what does ADH do?
inhibits or prevents urine production
119
why does the hypothalamus release ADH?
in response to increases in solute concentration
120
what does ADH cause the kidneys to do?
reabsorb more water
121
At high doses, what does ADH cause?
vasoconstriction
122
diabetes insipidus is caused by a
deficiency in ADH secretion
123
one of the main symptoms of diabetes insipidus is...
output of huge amounts of urine and thirst
124
describe the structure of the thyroid gland
2 lobes containing follicles connected by isthmus
125
the center of each thyroid follicle is filled with _______-
colloid
126
what is colloid composed of?
thyroglobulin
127
_______ stores colloid
lumen
128
thyroglobulin is associated with?
iodine
129
the thyroid hormone is derived from what?
iodinated thyroglobulin
130
_____________ cells produce calcitonin
parafollicular
131
where do parafollicular cells lie?
in-between the follicles and make up the walls of the follicle
132
what kind of role does calcitonin play?
in reducing the concentration of calcium in body fluids
133
what does TH stand for?
thyroid hormone
134
TH is made up of these 2 things:
Thyroxine (T4) AND Triiodothyronine (T3)
135
another name for Thyroxine is...
T4
136
another name for Triiodothyronine is...
T3
137
T4 is produced by _____________
thyroid gland
138
T3 is formed at ___________-
target tissue
139
__ is converted into T3
T4
140
the thyroid hormone increases what?
metabolism in most tissues by stimulating glucose oxidation
141
the thyroid hormone can increase __________ in blood vessels
adrenergic receptors
142
the thyroid hormone can regulate what?
tissue growth and development
143
What is T4 bound to when it is transported to target tissues?
plasma proteins called thyroxine-binding globulin (TBG)
144
falling levels of thyroxine triggers...
TSH release
145
rising levels of thyroxine inhibits...
TSH release
146
conditions in which there is _______________ requirements causes TRH release from hypothalamus
increased energy
147
name the 3 examples of metabolic disturbances associated with thyroid gland activity
Myxedema Cretinism Grave's disease
148
Myxedema is a ______ disorder
hypothyroid
149
If Myxedema is caused by a lack of iodine, what is the condition called?
endemic (colloidal) goiter
150
what is Myxedema?
condition where colloid can be made by follicles but end up accumulating because the colloid cannot be iodinated to make functional hormone
151
cretinism is _______ in infants
hypothyroidism
152
Grave's disease is ________________ pathology
hyperthyroid
153
what kind of disease is Grave's disease?
autoimmune disease
154
Grave's disease is associated with what?
abnormal antibodies that mimic TSH
155
what is the main function of calcitonin?
lowers blood calcium levels
156
calcitonin is ___________ to the effect of parathyroid hormone
antagonist
157
calcitonin inhibits calcium release from bones by
osteoblast activity
158
calcitonin can stimulate...
calcium uptake and incorporation
159
calcium acts as a _______ signal for calcitonin release
humoral
160
describe the structures of the parathyroid glands
2 pairs of glands in the posterior aspect of the thyroid gland
161
______ screte PTH
chief cells
162
what does PTH stand for?
parathyroid hormone
163
the parathyroid hormone can control
calcium balance
164
the parathyroid hormone is released in response to what?
falling blood calcium levels
165
PTH stimulates _____ activity
osteoclast
166
the osteoclast activity caused by PTH allows
digest bone matrix and releases calcium
167
the parathyroid hormone enhances...
reabsorption by kidney tubules
168
the parathyroid hormone increases calcium absorption by...
intestine
169
the increased calcium absorption by the intestines stimulates....
conversion of vitamin D into active form
170
T/F hyperparathyroidism is not rare
false
171
what happens in hyperparathyroidism?
calcium is leached from bones and replaced by connective tissue
172
hypoparathyroidism is a PTH _______
deficiency that increases NS excitability
173
name the 2 endocrine adrenal glands
adrenal medulla | adrenal cortx
174
the adrenal medulla acts part of the...
sympathetic NS
175
the adrenal cortex is involved in responses to....
stressful conditions
176
name the 3 zones of the adrenal cortex from closest to the medulla, out
zona reticularis zona fasciculata zona glomerulosa
177
the zona reticularis releases...
gonadocorticoids which are involved in estrogen, progesterone, and testosterone
178
the zona fasciculata releases...
glucocorticoids which is involved with cortisol
179
the zona glomerulosa releases...
mineralocorticoids which is involved with aldosterone
180
the adrenal cortex releases....
corticosteroids
181
the corticosteroids are synthesized from...
cholesterol
182
what does mineralocorticoids regulate?
electrolyte concentrations in extracellular fluid
183
in mineralocorticoids, ______ is most abundant
aldosterone
184
what does aldosterone do?
reduced excretion of sodium from the body and thus increases ADH levels
185
mineralocorticoids stimulates reabsorption of sodium in the _________________
distal tubule of kidney
186
there are ___ mechanisms controlling aldosterone secretion
4
187
what happens during Renin-angiotensin mechanism?
JGA releases renin in response to blood pressure decrease, initiates cascade forming angiotensin II formation, angiotensin II stimulates aldosterone release from adrenal cortex
188
aldosterone can be secreted through direct stimulation by....
plasma sodium and potassium ions
189
aldosterone can be secreted due to high levels of...
ACTH
190
describe importance of ANP (atrial natriuretic peptide)
when blood pressure is high, heart release ANP to inhibit renin and aldosterone secretion
191
what do glucocorticoids influence?
metabolism and mediate response to stress
192
name 3 glucocorticoids.
cortisol cortisone corticosterone
193
only the _____ glucocorticoid is secreted in significant amounts
cortisol
194
what is gluconeogenesis?
the primary effect of cortisol; conversion of fats into glucose
195
Cushing's disease results from...
excess cortisone
196
what is Cushing's disease characterized by?
persistent hyperglycemia
197
name the symptoms of Cushing's disease
loss of muscle and bone protein water and salt retention "moon" face redistribution of body fat
198
Addison's disease is ______ disorder of adrenal cortex
hyposecretory
199
name some of the symptoms of Addison's disease
weight loss reduced plasma glucose and sodium levels severe dehydration and hypotension
200
gonadocorticoids are primarily _________
androgens
201
___________________ is only a fraction of gonadal sources
adrenal cortex secretion of sex hormones
202
gonadocorticoids have a possible role in what?
puberty
203
androstenedione is converted to
testosterone and dihydrotestosterone
204
the adrenal medulla contain ____cells
chromaffin cells
205
what are chromaffin cells?
modified postganglionic sympathetic neurons
206
what do chromaffin cells secrete?
epinephrine and norepinephrine
207
initial response to stress is mediated by
sympathetic NS
208
activation of adrenal medulla and associated release of EPI and NE prolong what?
sympathetic response
209
activation of adrenal medulla and associated release of EPI and NE can cause...
elevated BP and heart rate mobilization of glucose shunt blood from GI
210
_______ contains both exocrine (GI enzymes) and endocrine cells
pancreas
211
name the 2 populations that can be found in the pancreatic islets
alpha cells | beta cells
212
what do alpha cells produce?
glucagons
213
what do beta cells produce?
insulin
214
insulin is a ______ hormone
hypoglycemic
215
glucagon is a ________ hormone
hyperglycemic
216
name the 3 effects of glucagon
breakdown of glycogen to glucose synthesis of glucose from lactic acid, fatty acids, and amino acids release of glucose from liver
217
what can regulate glycogen?
humoral response to decreased circulating glucose
218
name the 4 effects insulin has
lower blood glucose alter protein and fat metabolism inhibits breakdown of glycogen triggers enzymatic activity
219
insulin is able enhance __________ of glucose into body cell
membrane transport
220
oxidation of glucose is able to produce...
ATP
221
what can regulate insulin?
humoral response to increased circulating glucose
222
what is diabetes mellitus?
hyposecretion or hypoactivity of insulin
223
in diabetes mellitus, excessive hyperglycemia triggers what?
sympathetic response
224
in lipidemia, why are fats mobilized?
to use as cellular food
225
fatty acid metabolites accumulate as _______________
ketone bodies
226
what is ketoacidosis?
accumulating of ketones and a drop in blood pH
227
name the 3 signs of diabetes mellitis
polyuria polydipsia polyphagia
228
in polyuria, excessive glucose in kidney filtrate acts as a what?
diuretic which inhibits water reabsorption
229
in polyuria, increased urine output causes what?
dehydration and decreased blood volume
230
in polyuria, electrolyte loss is associated with...
excretion of excess ketones
231
describe polydipsia
dehydration stimulates thirst centers in brain
232
describe polyfagia
glucose cannot be used because it cannot be absorbed by cells and this results in hunger
233
Type I DM is named...
insulin dependent diabetes mellitus
234
Type II DM is named....
non-insulin dependent diabetes mellitus
235
which diabetes mellitus is related with autoimmune destruction of beta cells
Type 1 IDDM
236
which diabetes mellitus starts usually after age of 40
Type II NIDDM
237
Type 1 IDDM usually has what kind onset?
juvenile onset
238
which diabetes mellitus is related with lack of insulin activity?
Type 1 IDDM
239
which type of diabetes mellitus is most common in 90% of cases?
Type 2 NIDDM
240
what is the main characteristic of Type II NIDDM?
insulin is produced in inadequate quantities or with faulty receptors
241
ovaries produce...
estrogens and progesterone
242
the ovaries help regulate....
sexual maturation and menstrual cycle
243
the testes produce....
testosterone
244
the testes hep regulate....
sexual maturation and sex drive
245
release of gonadal hormones is regulated by what?
gonadotropins
246
the pineal gland can be found where?
floor of third ventricle within diencephalons
247
the pineal gland's primary secretory product is?
melatonin
248
the pineal gland receives indirect inputs from?
visual system
249
______ is large in children but decreases with age
thymus
250
name the 2 hormonal products from the thymus that is important for T cell maturation
thymopoietin | thymosins