epidemiology Flashcards

1
Q

is the study of factors that
determine the
frequency, distribution,
and determinants of
diseases in human
populations

A

Epidemiology

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2
Q

If the infectious disease is transmissible from one human to another it is called a

A

communicable disease

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3
Q

is defined as a communicable disease that is easily transmitted from one person to another

A

contagious
disease

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4
Q

Infectious diseases that humans acquire from animal sources are called

A

zoonotic diseases or zoonoses

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5
Q

is defined as the
number of new cases of that disease in a defined population during a specific time period

A

incidence

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6
Q

expressed as the number of new cases of a particular disease that occurred during a specified time period per a specifically defined population

A

morbidity rate

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7
Q

the number of cases of the disease existing in a given population during a specific time period

A

period prevalence

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8
Q

is the number of cases of the disease existing in a given population at a particular moment in time

A

point prevalence

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9
Q

also known as the death rate is the ratio of the number of people who died of a particular disease during a specified time period

A

Mortality Rate

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10
Q

is a disease that occurs only occasionally
(sporadically) within the population of a particular geographic area

A

Sporadic Disease

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11
Q

are diseases that are always present within the population of a particular geographic area

A

Endemic Disease

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12
Q

a disease that is occurring in epidemic proportions in many countries simultaneously

A

Pandemic Diseases

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13
Q

The six components in
the chain of infection

A

(a) a pathogen,
(b) a reservoir of
infection
(c) a portal
of exit,
(d) a mode of
transmission,
(e) a portal of entry,
(f) a susceptible host.

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14
Q

The sources of microbes that cause infectious diseases are many and varied. They are known as

A

reservoirs

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15
Q

is a person who
is colonized with a particular pathogen, but the pathogen is not currently causing disease in that person

A

carrier

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16
Q

carry the pathogen without ever having had the disease.

A

Passive carriers

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17
Q

a person who is capable of transmitting a pathogen during the incubation period

A

incubatory carrier

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18
Q

harbor and can transmit a particular pathogen while recovering from an infectious disease

A

Convalescent carriers

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19
Q

carriers have completely recovered from the disease, but continue to harbor the pathogen indefinitely

A

Active carriers

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20
Q

are inanimate objects capable of transmitting pathogens. found within healthcare settings include patients’ gowns, bedding, towels, eating and drinking utensils, and hospital equipment

A

Fomites

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21
Q

The five principal
modes by which
transmission of
pathogens

A

direct
indirect contact,
droplet,
airborne,
vehicular vector
transmission

22
Q

may be generated by coughing, sneezing, and even talking.

23
Q

involves the dispersal of droplet nuclei, which are the residue of evaporated droplets, and are smaller than 5m in diameter.

A

Airborne transmission

24
Q

is predominantly a zoonosis and is usually
transmitted to humans by flea

25
All of the following are major steps in the treatment of a community’s drinking water except: a. boiling. b. filtration. c. flocculation. d. sedimentation
a
26
Which of the following are considered reservoirs of infection? a. carriers b. contaminated food and drinking water c. rabid animals d. all of the above
d
27
4. Which of the following arthropods is the vector of Lyme disease? a. flea b. mite c. mosquito d. tick
a
28
pathogens are transferred from one infected person to another person without a contaminated intermediate object or person.
direct contact transmission
29
happens when pathogens are transferred via a contaminated intermediate object or person.
* Indirect contact transmission
30
respiratory droplets carrying pathogens transmit infection when they travel from the respiratory tract of an infectious individual (e.g., by sneezing or coughing
Droplet Transmission
31
occurs with dissemination of either airborne droplet nuclei or small particles containing pathogens
Airborne Transmission
32
pertains to the numerous measures that are taken to prevent infections from occurring in healthcare settings
infection control
33
is a clean technique. Its goal is to exclude pathogens
Medical asepsis
34
kill bacterial spores with prolonged exposure times (3–12 hours); these are referred to as
chemical sterilants.
35
kill all microbes (including viruses),e except large numbers of bacterial spores.
High-level disinfectants
36
might kill mycobacteria, vegetative bacteria, most viruses, and most fungi, but do not necessarily kill bacterial spores
Intermediate-level disinfectants
37
kill most vegetative bacteria, some fungi, and some viruses within 10 minutes of exposure
Low-level disinfectants
38
items confer a high risk for infection if they are contaminated with any microbes include surgical instruments, cardiac and urinary catheters, implants, and ultrasound probes u
Critical Items.
39
items contact mucous membranes or nonintact skin and require high-level disinfection. therapy and anesthesia equipment, some endoscopes, laryngoscope blades,
* Semicritical Items
40
items are those that come in contact with intact skin, but not mucous membranes. Such items are divided into two subcategories: noncritical patient care items (e.g., bedpans, blood pressure cuffs, crutches, computers)
Noncritical Items
41
includes practices used to render and keep objects and areas sterile
Surgical Asepsis
42
The most important and most basic technique in preventing and controlling infections and preventing the transmission
Hand Hygiene
43
is the most important and frequent mode of transmission of HAIs are used for patients known or suspected to be infected or colonized with epidemiologically important pathogens that can be transmitted by direct or indirect contact.
Contact Precautions
44
The preferred placement for patients who are infected with pathogens that are spread via airborne droplet nuclei and, therefore, require
Airborne Infection Isolation Rooms
45
1. An HAI is one that: a. develops during hospitalization or erupts within 14 days of hospital discharge. b. develops while the patient is hospitalized. c. is acquired in the community. d. the patient has at the time of hospital admission.
a
46
2. An example of a fomite would be: a. a drinking glass used by a patient. b. bandages from an infected wound. c. soiled bed linens. d. all of the above.
d
47
5. A Protective Environment would be appropriate for a patient: a. infected with MRSA. b. with leukopenia. c. with pneumonic plague. d. with tuberculosis.
b
48
6. Which of the following is not part of Standard Precautions? a. handwashing between patient contacts b. placing a patient in a private room having negative air pressure c. properly disposing of needles, scalpels, and other sharps d. wearing gloves, masks, eye protection, and gowns when appropriate
b
49
7. A patient suspected of having tuberculosis has been admitted to the hospital. Which one of the following is not appropriate? a. Droplet Precautions b. an AIIR c. Standard Precautions d. use of a type N95 respirator by healthcare professional who are caring for the patien
a
50
8. Which of the following statements about medical asepsis is false? a. Disinfection is a medical aseptic technique. b. Handwashing is a medical aseptic technique. c. Medical asepsis is considered a clean technique. d. The goal of medical asepsis is to exclude all microorganisms from an area
d
51
9. Which of the following statements about an AIIR is false? a. Air entering the room is passed through HEPA filters. b. The room is under negative air pressure. c. An AIIR is appropriate for patients with meningococcal meningitis, whooping cough, or influenza. d. Transmission-Based Precautions will be necessary
a
52
10. Contact Precautions are required for patients with: a. C. difficile-associated diseases. b. infections caused by multidrug-resistant bacteria. c. viral hemorrhagic fevers. d. all of the above.
d