Infectious Disease Flashcards

(86 cards)

1
Q

first generation cephalosporins

A

cephalexin (Keflex) cefadroxil (Duricef)

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2
Q

second generation cephalosporin

A

cefuroxime (Ceftin), cefprozil (cefzil)

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3
Q

sulfa drugs

A

TMP/SMX (bactrim, septra)

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4
Q

primary prevention is

A

to prevent disease, injury, or condition

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5
Q

personal safety promotion such as wearing a seatbelt, airbag, and helmet is an example of

A

primary prevention

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6
Q

education about immunization and using sunscreen is an example of

A

primary prevention

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7
Q

promoting a healthy lifestyle is an example of

A

primary prevention

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8
Q

secondary prevention is to

A

detect disease as early as possible

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9
Q

a lab test used to screen for a disease (CBC for anemia) is an example of

A

secondary prevention

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10
Q

USPSTF and screening mammograms are examples of

A

secondary prevention

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11
Q

screening for suicide and depression is an example of

A

secondary prevention

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12
Q

BSE and TSE are examples of

A

secondary prevention

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13
Q

tertiary prevention is to

A

limit further harm

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14
Q

cardiac rehab, PT/OT, SLP is an example of

A

tertiary prevention

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15
Q

an exercise program for an obese person is an example of

A

tertiary prevention

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16
Q

cancer with the highest morbidity/mortality

A

lung cancer

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17
Q

most common cause of gynecological cancer

A

uterine cancer

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18
Q

when to start screening for breast cancer

A

start at age 50-75 every 2 years

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19
Q

Gluten foods

A

wheat, rye, barley, oats (breads, cereals, cookies, cakes, pasta)

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20
Q

examples of monounsaturated fats

A

nuts, olive oil, sunflower seeds

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21
Q

examples of magnesium rich foods

A

some nuts, whole wheat

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22
Q

examples of potassium rich foods

A

most fruits (apricot, banana, orange), some veggies (brussel sprouts)

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23
Q

gluten-free foods

A

rice, corn, potatoes, peanuts, soy, beans

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24
Q

screening for prostate cancer

A

not recommended

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25
influenza intranasal spray is for those
age 2-49
26
influenza intranasal spray is contraindicated in those with
asthma, COPD, renal failure, DM; pregnancy; children on ASA therapy
27
earliest a child can get flu vaccine
6 months
28
if patient had only one hep B injection, then
complete series; check hep B titers within 60 days of 3rd dose
29
cause of hand foot and mouth disease
coxsackie A16
30
hand foot and mouth disease is common in children
less than 5
31
fifth's disease is caused by
parovirus B19
32
s/s of fifth's disease
prodrome with fever, malaise, sore throat; then rash begins on cheeks and spreads to trunk (lacy rash)
33
children with fifth's disease can return to school
during rash phase when afebrile for more than 24 hours.
34
cause of roseola
human herpes virus 6
35
higher risk of Cdiff with this atbx
clindamycin
36
atbx that's only indication is for community acquired PNA
telithromycin (Ketek)
37
adverse effects of erythromycin
GI distress
38
this atbx has a risk of prolong QT intervals (torsades)
macrolides
39
MOA of beta lactam drugs
have a protective barrier over the beta lactam ring that prevent them from being destroyed by beta lactamase
40
example of beta lactam drugs
PCN, cephalosporin
41
first generation cephalosporins have activity against
gram positive bacteria
42
second generation cephalosporins have activity against
gram positive and gram negative
43
broad spectrum pcn (amoxicillin and ampicillin) have activity against
gram positive and some gram negative bacteria
44
some women will c/o this when taking amoxicillin
candida vaginitis; recommend taking with probiotic
45
cephalosporins that are good for ear infection and sinus infections
cefuroxime (2nd gen) and cefixime (3rd gen)
46
fluoroquinolones are effective against
gram negative, gram positive, and atypical
47
ciprofloxacin coverage
narrow spectrum quinolone (gram neg and atypical)
48
treatment for traveler's diarrhea
ciprofloxacin 500 mg bid x 3 days
49
This atbx has the best activity against Pseudomonas aeruoginosa (gram negative)
ciprofloxacin
50
patients at highest risk of quinolone tendon rupture
those on steroids, those older than 60
51
sulfonamides have activity against
gram negative bacteria
52
other sulfa-type drugs
TMP-SMX, thiazide, sulfonyureas, Cox-2 inhibitor
53
dosing for Hep A vaccine
2 doses at 0 and 6-12 months
54
dosing for Hep B vaccine
3 doses; first 2 one month apart, third dose 6 months later
55
Meningitis vaccine for those older than 56
MPSV4
56
HPV vaccine
for females 19-26 years old and males 9-26 years old. 3 doses at 0, 1-2, and 6 months
57
3rd generation cephalosporins provide coverage against
weak gram +; gram negative; beta lactamase; | The extended spectrum have better gram +, gram -, and beta lactam coverage
58
extended spectrum 3rd gen cephalosporins
ceftriaxone (Rocephin), cefdinir (Omnicef), cefpodoxime (Vantin), cefditoren (Spectracef)
59
regular 3rd gen cephalosporins
ceftibuten (Cedax), cefixime (Suprax)
60
top 3 gram positive bugs
staph, strept, enterococcus
61
staphylococcus is mostly a
skin bug
62
streptococcus is mostly a
throat and lung bug
63
enterococcus is mostly a
urinary tract bug
64
other misc gram + bugs
listeria, c. diff, tetanus, anthrax, diptheria
65
basis of PCN and cephalosporin allergy
each drug has a beta-lactam ring; if the patient has allergy to beta lactam ring, then they are allergic to both ceph and pcn
66
Never give a cephalosporin to a patient if PCN reaction was
anaphylaxis or hives
67
Ok to give a cephalosporin to a patient if PCN reaction was
morbilliform rash (maculopapular rash that can sometimes be itchy).
68
what is beta lactamase?
an enzyme that bacteria produce to destroy the beta lactam ring of an atbx
69
atbx that provide beta lactam coverage
Augmentin and 3rd gen cephalosporins
70
Penicillins do NOT cover
staphylococcus
71
This drug can kill DRSP at high doses
amoxicillin (2g bid in adults and 80-90 mcg/kg/day for children)
72
Augmentin coverage
gram +, gram -, beta lactamase
73
how to tell if a bug produce beta-lactamase?
if the patient had an atbx in the past 90 days
74
sulfonamides provide coverage against
gram negative (not E.coli d/t high resistance) and MRSA
75
tetracyclines provide coverage against
gram negative, atypicals, and MRSA
76
Macrolides provide coverage against
atypical pathogens (gram +); not strept or enterococcus d/t high resistance
77
3rd generation respiratory fluoroquinolones
levofloxacin
78
4th generation respiratory fluoroquinolones
moxifloxacin (Avelox), gemifloxacin (Factive)
79
difference in coverage between 3rd and 4th generation respiratory fluoroquinolones
3rd gen provide coverage for gram neg above and below belt; 4th gen only provide coverage for gram neg above the belt
80
this flouroquinolone should not be used for UTI
4th gen: moxifloxacin (Avelox), gemifloxacin (Factive); only provide gram neg coverage above the belt.
81
nitrofurantoin concentrates in
bladder
82
Metronidazole (Flagyl) provides coverage against
gram negative
83
Lincosamides (clindamycin) provides coverage against
gram positive
84
Linezolid (Zyvox) provides coverage against
gram positive
85
vancomycin provides coverage against
gram positive
86
trx for C.diff
Flagyl or oral vanc (NOT IV so that it can concentrate in gut)