Mice Flashcards
(306 cards)
1
Q
What percent of the cage volume should be displaced per minute when administering carbon dioxide from a compressed cylinder as a
form of euthanasia for small rodents?
A
30-70%
2
Q
Which gene is associated with age-related hearing loss in several mouse strains including C57BL/6J, DBA/2J, NOD/ShiLtJ, A/J?
A
Cadherin23 (Cdh23)
Cdh23^ahl (homozygous)
3
Q
Azoxymethane induces which condition in mice and rats?
A
Colorectal cancer
4
Q
What bacterial species are associated with ulcerative dermatitis? Which is pathogenic?
A
Staph aureus - most commonly isolated and pathogenic
Staph epidermidis - nonpathogenic
5
Q
How much urine can be collected from a manually restrained mouse urinating spontaneously in a 2-minute period?
A
50-500 uL!
6
Q
Which mouse is known for being a model of alopecia areata?
A
C3H
7
Q
Which nutrient or vitamin concentrations are lowered when diets for mice and rats are autoclaved?
A
Thiamin (B1), vitamin A, vitamin E, pantothenic acid (B5), pyridoxine (B6), and B12
***BAE
8
Q
PCR for which gene will detect both minute virus of mice and mouse parvovirus?
A
NS-1
9
Q
What cage material offers superior advantages in terms of heat resistance to autoclaving without damaging viewing of animals?
A
Polycarbonate
Durability:
Polysulfone > polyetherimide (PEI) > polycarbonate > polypropylene > polystyrene
(See Everyone’s Caging PleaSe)
10
Q
Mice are inbred after ___ generations but may be considered fully inbred (no residual heterozygosity) after ___ generations.
A
20; 60
11
Q
Which rat strain is an animal model for spontaneous Type 1 diabetes mellitus?
A
BB (BioBreeding)
12
Q
Is corncob or paper bedding better at preventing ammonia in IVC?
A
Paper bedding
13
Q
Exhaust air dust testing is better at detecting ___ than soiled bedding sentinels.
A
Fur mites
Lymphocytic choriomeningitis virus (LCMV)
Rodentibacter pneumotropicus
Resp: Sendai virus, CAR bacillus, Mycoplasma
14
Q
What type of organism is Spironucleus muris?
A
Protozoa
15
Q
What is the most common sign of mucometra in an adult female mouse?
A
Abdominal distention
16
Q
T/F Prophylactic antibiotics are considered to be effective at preventing C. bovis infection in immunocompromised mice
A
True
17
Q
Water treatments for rodents:
chlorine ___ ppm, HCl pH
A
10-12
2.4-2.8
18
Q
How much water and food do mice and rats consume?
A
Water: mice 6-7 ml/day rats 8-11 ml/100 g/day
Food: mice 3-5 g/day rats 5 g/100 g/day
19
Q
Which type of bedding impedes ammonia buildup?
A
Corncob
20
Q
Soft wood shavings e.g. cedar (inhibits/stimulates) P450 enzymes
A
stimulates
21
Q
2 types of ethograms
A
1) Exclusive (can only be 1 category)
2) Exhaustive (every behavior on it)
22
Q
BALB/c mice have IgG2__ while B6 mice have IgG2___
A
a
c
(for intracellular pathogens vs IgG1 for extracellular)
23
Q
How does MHC impact behavior?
A
Mating
Maternal recognition of young
Male on male aggression
24
Q
The ___ salivary gland is mixed in most animals but ___ in mice
A
submaxillary
serous
25
The XID mouse has defect in ____ which impacts ___ cells. It is a model for human ____.
Bruton's tyrosine kinase gene (Btk)
B cells
X-linked immunodeficiency
26
The motheaten mouse (me) has defective ____ enyzme
phosphatase (Ptpn^me)
apoptosis, severe autoimmune dz (die by 3 weeks due to autoimmune pneumonitis proteinosis)
deficient in cellular and innate immunity
moth-eaten pelage due to folliculitis
27
Beige mouse has mutation on chromosome ___ and is a model for ___.
13
Mutation affects pigment granules (---> dilute coloring) and lysosomal (---> lysosomal storage disease)
Chediak Higashi
28
lpr and gld mice
Impaired apoptosis from Fas (1pr) and Fas ligand (gld) defects
Causes lymphoproliferative disorder, autoimmunity, immunodeficiency
29
IL-2 knockout mice present with
anemia, wasting, IBD (latter two conditions also for IL-10 deficient)
30
Submaxillary gland epithelial cells are ___ in female mice and ___ in male mice. Bowman's capsule is ___ in female mice and ___ in male mice.
Cuboidal
columnar
squamous
cuboidal
31
Lung lobes in mice
Single left
Four right
32
In mice, rats, and hamsters is there cartilage surrounding bronchi?
Only extrapulmonary
33
Ascending colon appearance in mice
Transverse/oblique ridges
34
Why are mice prone to rectal prolapse?
1) Colon not enveloped in serosa
2) Colon short
35
Liver lobes in mice vs rats
Both have 4 lobes
Mice: Right and left lateral, right and left medial lobes
Rat: right, left, median, caudate
36
What type of proteinemia is normally observed in mice?
Proteinuria is normal in mouse - taurine is always present in mouse urine (cysteine metabolism), tryptophan always absent (bc they metabolize all of it; not excreted)
37
Does mouse urine contain more creatinine or creatine? More allantoin or uric acid?
Creatine
Allantoin
38
Which layer of adrenal cortex is missing in mice? What extra layer do they have?
Missing zona reticularis
X zone (immature males and females)
39
What 6 sex glands do male mice have?
1. Seminal vesicles (vesicular glands)
2. Coagulating glands
3. Ampullary glands
4. Bulbourethral glands (Cowper's glands)
5. Prostate
6. Preputial glands
40
Mouse vertebral formula
C7 T13 L6 S4 Cd28
41
Twitching of pinna in response to sound is known as the ___ reflex
Preyer
42
Development of mice and rats (when eyes open, etc)
Ears open at 3 days old (mice and rats)
Incisors erupt at 10 days in mice, 6 days in rats
Molars erupt 16 days in mice, 32 days in rats
Eyes open at 12 days in mice, 14 days in rats
Hair at 14 days in mice, 10 days in rats
Ectothermic until day 20
Gut closes at 21 days (mice and rats)
43
What time of day is estrus in mice and when does ovulation occur?
Begins between 10 pm - 1 am. Ovulation within 2-3 hours of the start of estrus.
44
Postpartum estrus is ___-___hours after parturition in mice. If bred during this, implantation and gestation can be delayed/prolonged by how long?
14-24
12-13 days (delayed due to lactation)
45
How long is pseudopregnancy in the mouse?
13 days
46
How many days post fertilization is implantation in the mouse?
4-5 days
47
Oxytocin required for nursing in mice but not ___ or ___.
parturition or reproductive behavior
48
Which effect describes group-housed females that are isolated from males --> suppression of estrus cyclicity
Lee-Boot effect
49
Which effect describes the synchronization of estrus among a group of females in response to a male
Whitten effect
50
Which effect describes pregnancy block, which occurs If pregnant mice are exposed to a strange male (esp. different strain, dominant male) during the preimplantation period (day 1-5 post breeding) the original pregnancy will be blocked/aborted (prevent implantation) and embryos resorbed?
Bruce effect
51
Which effect describes acceleration of puberty in juvenile females exposed to male urine?
Vandenbergh
52
Which effect describes the presence of urine from a foreign pregnant or lactating female prolongs estrus?
Hoover-Drichamer effect
53
What term describes a group of wild mice with high degree of inbreeding?
deme
54
Examples of pheromones in mice
Male-specific Major Urinary Protein MUP20 (darcin) - attracts females
Male lacrimal protein ESP1 - causes lordosis in females
Male lacrimal protein ESP22 - produced by younger males, inhibits older male reproductive behavior
55
How many diploid chromosomes do mice and rats have?
Mice: 40
Rats: 42
56
What term describes the specific place on a chromosome where gene is located
locus
57
Different letters used for generation #
F = filial (inbreeding)
N = backcrossing
G = non-sibling
P = cryopreservation
58
What is isogenic vs co-isogenic
Isogenic = identical at all loci
Co-isogenic = identical at all but one locus
59
Substrain if separated between generations ___-____ or separated for at least ___ generations.
20-40
100
60
What is term for breeding homozygotes of different strains? Of same strain? Heterozygotes? Heterozygote with homozygote?
Outcross
Incross
Intercross
Backcross
61
How to create recombinant inbred strain vs collaborative cross/diversity outbred strain?
RI: Outcross two inbred lines --> Intercross F1 hybrids --> Inbreed at least 20 generations to create strain
CC: After intercross, outcross
62
How to create recombinant congenic strain and what is nomenclature?
Outcross two inbred lines --> Backcross to one of the parental strains (vs RI is intercross here) --> Inbreed at least 20 generations to create strain
Strain1cStrain2(N# backcrosses)
E.g. CcS1(N4) - the first strain
63
How to create advanced intercross lines?
Goal to recombine tightly linked genes
Outcross two inbred lines --> Continue to intercross avoiding sibling matings
64
What is a segregating inbred strain?
Is a strain (isogenic), but has forced heterozygosity at a particular locus by intercrossing and backcrossing
65
Which chromosome contains MHC in mice (H2 complex)? Which mice are a, b, d, k, q, s
Chromosome 17
a: A
b: 129, B6
d: BALB/c, DBA/2
k: C3H/He, CBA
q: SWR, DBA/1
s: SJL
66
Gene and protein nomenclature for mouse and human
Gene: Both italicized, mouse first letter capitalized human all letters capitalized
Protein: Same for mouse and human (all letters cap, no italics)
67
What term describes the probability that 2 alleles at any locus are identical copies?
Inbreeding coefficient
68
What is the following nomenclature:
Lab code:Inbred strain 1,Inbred strain 2-Generation #
Example: Pri:B6,D2-G2
Advanced intercross, which avoids sibling mating thus "G" for generation rather than F
69
What is the following nomenclature:
Uppercase abbreviations of both parental strains (female first) separated by uppercase “X”
Example: CXB6-1
Recombinant inbred
Numbered sequentially for each combination of parental strains regardless of laboratory
70
What is host strain;donor strain nomenclature?
Mixed inbred
71
What is the following nomenclature:
Strain symbol – gene symbol in italics
Example: C57BL/6J-Dw
Co-isogenic strain
If heterozygous at that gene add /+ at end
72
What is the difference between co-isogenic and segregating inbred strain?
Co-isogenic - they're genetically homogeneous; differ at a specific locus
Segregating inbred - they're not genetically homogeneous; have variation at a specific locus
But seem to have the same nomenclature?
73
Which organization maintains Laboratory Code Registry?
ILAR (Institute for Laboratory Animal Research) → BAHSCR (Board on Animal Health Sciences, Conservation, and Research)
74
What is Breeder Code:Identification Code nomenclature? What if there were a mutation with or without heterozygosity
Outbred stock
e.g Crl:SD
Mutation "-gene symbol"
Heterozygosity add + "-+gene symbol"
75
What is fBR for this stock? Tac:(SW)fBR
f = foster
BR = barrier-reared
76
Name common mouse and rat stocks
Mouse: ICR, Swiss Webster, CD-1, NMRI
Rat: Sprague Dawley, Wistar, Long Evans, SHR, Wistar Kyoto
77
What is nomenclature for a hybrid stock between Sprague Dawley and Long Evans?
(SDxLE)F1
78
Breeding stocks should be large enough to have less that what % of inbreeding per generation?
1%
79
B6;129-Acvr2tm1Zuk
Which is the donor strain and which is recipient?
This is mixed inbred strain. Donor = 129, host = B6
80
C57BL/6J-Chr 19SPR is an example of a ___ strain.
Consomic (chromosome from Mus spretus)
81
C57BL/6J-mtBALB/c is an example of a ___ strain.
Conplastic (mitochondrial DNA from BALB/c)
82
For transgenic mice why is transgene symbol not italicized?
these are random insertions of foreign DNA and not part of native genome
83
How does nomenclature for knock-in and knock-out differ?
Knock-in has knocked in gene in parentheses in the superscript
84
How many backcrosses do congenic, consomic, and conplastic need?
10
85
Most common neoplasias for B6 mice
Lymphoma (follicular B cell most common), hemangiosarcoma, pituitary adenoma
86
Which strains get lethal ectromelia
Susceptible: A, BALB/c, C3H, DBA, SWR
Resistant: C57BL/6, AKR, SJL
87
Which strains have endogenous MMTV and MLV
MMTV: C3H, DBA, GRS (they carry Mtv1 and Mtv2 endogenous loci that encode infectious virus --> mammary tumors); SJL >90% lymphoma by 13m
MLV: AKR 100% thymic lymphoma b/w 6-12 mo; BALB/c late onset multicentric lymphoma
88
Which mouse strains are susceptible to Lymphocytic Choriomeningitis Virus (LCMV)?
Susceptibility to immune-mediated dz based on H2 haplotype
Susceptible: H-2q/q (e.g., SWR) or H-2q/k (e.g., C3H.Q) ***Q is susceptible
Resistant: H-2k/k haplotype (e.g., C3H/He) ****K is resistant
89
Which mouse strains are susceptible/resistant to MAV?
Susceptible: <3wk, C57BL/6 (need Th2 response), CD-1, DBA/2, SJL, SWR
Resistant: BALB/c, C3H/HeJ
90
Which mice are susceptible to lactate dehydrogenase elevating virus (LDV)-induced poliomyelitis?
C58, **AKR**, C3H, PL - Homozygous for the Fv-1n allele
91
Which mice are susceptible/resistant to Sendai virus?
Susceptible: C3H, **DBA/2**, 129
Resistant: C57BL/6, AKR, SJL, Swiss
92
Which mice are susceptible/resistant to EDIM (Rotavirus)?
Susceptible: BALB/c
Resistant: C57BL/6
93
Which mice are susceptible/resistant to MHV (Corona)?
Susceptible: DBA/2 (die acutely, even as adults), BALB/c (autosomal dominant)
Resistant: **A/J**, SJL, C3H
94
Mouse Norovirus (MNV) is nonpathogenic but LETHAL in what two types of mice? What cell types harbor replication?
αβγ receptor and STAT1 null mice
Macrophages, dendritic cells
95
Which mice are susceptible/resistant to Transmissible Murine Colonic Hyperplasia (Citrobacter rodentium)?
Susceptible: **C3H/HeJ** (both as sucklings and as adults)
Resistant: DBA, NIH Swiss, C57BL
96
Which strains of mice are susceptible to Staph/Botryomycosis?
C57BL/6, C3H, DBA, **BALB/c**
97
Which strains of mice are susceptible/resistant to Tyzzer's (C. piliforme)?
Susceptible: DBA/2, ICR, CBA
Resistant: C57BL/6
98
Which strains of mice are susceptible/resistant to Giardia?
Susceptible: **C3H/He**, male mice
Resistant: BALB/c, C57BL/10, female mice
99
Which strains get mammary tumors?
C3H, DBA (endogenous INFECTIOUS MMTV --> mammary tumors)
100
Which strains get thymic lymphoma?
AKR (100% by 1 year; endogenous MLV), SCID (thymic disregulation)
101
Which strains get pulmonary adenoma?
**A**, BALB/c
102
Which strains get urethane-induced neoplasia?
Susceptible: A
Resistant: C57BL/6
103
Which strains get cardiac mineralization?
BALB/c (right ventricular free wall); DBA (left ventricle; also tongue cornea etc); C3H (interventricular septum, cornea, skeletal muscle)
104
Which strains lack corpus callosum and have male aggression?
BALB/c, 129
105
Which strains get primary and secondary amyloidosis?
Primary: A, SJL (Swiss)
Secondary: **CBA**
106
Which strains have rd1 mutation and develop retinal degeneration?
CBA, C3H, FVB, Swiss (SJL, SWL)
107
Which strains are radiation sensitive/resistant?
Sensitive: BALB/c
Resistant: C57BL/6
108
Which strains get Acidophilic macrophage pneumonia aka acidophilic crystalline pneumonia aka pulmonary histiocytosis? What organs are affected
C57BL, 129S4/SvJae, Swiss mice
Observed in: resp tract (lung, trachea, nasal epithelium), gall bladder/biliary tract
109
Which mouse strains get audiogenic seizures?
Susceptible: DBA, AKR, SJL
Resistant: C57BL/6J
110
Which strains have allele Cdh23ahl(homozygous) which results in progressive hearing loss?
DBA, C57BL, NOD, A/J
111
Which strain develops plasmacytomas following injection with mineral oil
BALB/c
112
Which mouse strains have progressive muscular dystrophy due to mutation in dysferlin gene (Dysf^pmd) and dystrophin (Dmd^mdx)?
Dysferlin: A strain, SJL
Dystrophin: C57BL/10
113
Which strain gets diet-induced atherosclerosis but without developing aortic lesions?
A strain
114
Which mouse strain has Reye's-like syndrome spontaneously? What is an experimental infection that mimics it?
BALB/cByJ
MAV-1
115
Which mouse strains get myoepithelioma of salivary glands?
BALB/c, SCID
116
Which mouse strain gets accumulation of Coxiella burnettii in the placenta with abortion, stillbirth, perinatal death and endocarditis when infected?
BALB/c
117
Which mouse strains are susceptible/resistant to TMEV?
Susceptible: DBA/2, C3H/He, Swiss (SJL, SWR), PLJ
Resistant: BALB/c, B6, A, 129
118
The rd1 mutation is in which gene?
Pde6b
119
Which mice are a model of autoimmune thyroiditis (Hashimoto's)?
CBA (also Buffalo rats, beagles)
120
C3H
Rd1, alopecia areata, mammary neoplasia (endogenous MMTV), interventricular septum mineralization, incidental hemorrhagic MLN, susceptible to Giardia and Staph
121
C57BL/6
1) Th1
2) CDh23^ahl (age-related hearing loss)
3) Microphthalmia (M > F)
4) B cell lymphoma
5) Staph
6) MAdV (need Th2 response)
7) Resistant to ectromelia, radiation, MPV, H. hepaticus
122
DBA/1 (D1) and DBA/2 (D2)
Two separate strains not substrains!
D1: left ventricular mineralization
D2: mammary tumors, audiogenic seizures
Both Cdh23^ahl but D1 @ 10 months, D2 @ 3 months
Same susceptibility/resistance to infections
123
FVB
Large pronuclei, rd1, spontaneous seizures (tattooing, fur clipping, fire alarm)
124
SJL
1) Multiple sclerosis model
2) Muscular dystrophy (decreased dysferlin)
3) rd1
4) audiogenic seizures
5) Primary amyloidosis
125
Which strains are models for multiple sclerosis?
SJL, SWR
126
129
1) ES cell donor
2) Lack corpus callosum
3) Acidophilic macrophage pneumonia 129S4/SvJae
4) Testicular teratoma (129/Sv)
127
NZB x NZW F1 (NZBWF1)
SLE, IMHA, immune complex glomerulopathy (autoimmunity)
F > M
128
What is difference between db/db and ob/ob mice
db/db = Lepr^db (leptin receptor mutation)
ob/ob = Lep^ob (leptin deficiency)
Both have diabetes
129
Which mouse strain develops T1DM and T2DM?
T1DM: NOD (like BB rat)
T2DM: Lethal yellow agouti (A^y)
130
The Hairless Rhino mouse has a mutation on chromosome ___ and is a model for ___. Hair loss begins at day ___ and they're hairless by ___ weeks.
Chr 14
Alopecia universalis
13; hairless by 5 weeks
Have comedones that rupture leading to inflammation/ulcers, rudimentary mammary glands, nail overgrowth, thymic lymphoma
131
Which mouse is a model of Hirschsprung's disease (aganglionic megacolon)?
Piebald (mutation in Ednrb gene on Chromosome 14)
Like Spotting Lethal Mutant Rat
132
Mice homozygous for the reeler (Reln^rl) mutation exhibit ____
Lissencephalic disorders with "reeling" gait
133
The weaver mutation (Kvnj6^wv) is associated with ___ due to mutation in ___.
clinical signs similar to Parkinson's
potassium channel
134
Of rag and SCID mice which is more leaky and which is more radiation sensitive?
SCID mice more leaky and sensitive to radiation (Rag mice have intact DNA repair machinery while SCID mice have defect in Pkrdc which encodes DNA protein kinase important in DNA repair)
135
Five main genes responsible for coat color and what chromosome
Nonagouti (a): 2
Brown (Tyrp1): 4
Albino (Tyr): 7
Dilute (Myo5a): 9
Pink-eyed (Oca2): 7 (tightly linked to albino)
136
The mottled (mo) mouse is a model of ___ and has mutation in which gene on which chromosome?
Menke's (copper storage disease); mutation in ATP7a gene
X chromosome
Mottled/tortoiseshell/brindle in females; may have curly whiskers/wavy fur
Males/homozygous females usually lethal and if survive often ataxic
137
Agouti protein partially interferes with ___.
alpha MSH, which binds to surface of melanocytes and triggers pigment production
138
____ complexes with tyrosinase and promotes eumelanin over pheomelanin leading to darker mouse
Tyrosine-related protein
139
Myo5a transports pigment from ___ to ___.
Melanocytes to keratinocytes
140
Dominance of tyrosinase mutations
Tyr^c = epistatic to other coat color genes
Tyr+> all others which act in semidominant manner (intermediate phenotype between the two)
141
What chromosome is kit and what is phenotype of kit and kit ligand mutations?
Chromosome 5
White spotting; dominant mutation
Homozygotes usually lethal in utero or neonatal
Severe macrocytic anemia
142
Dominance order for nonagouti gene
A^y > A^vy > A^W > A ~ a^t > a > a^e > a^l
Yellow (embryonic lethal if homozygous) > viable yellow > white-bellied agouti > agouti ~ tan and black > nonagouti > extreme non-agouti > non-agouti lethal
143
Mutation in what gene causes pink eyes and dilute coat color in mice?
Oca2 (Chromosome 7, closely linked to tyrosinase)
e.g. would be brown --> pink eyes, champagne color
144
Phenotype for Lyst^bg and Lyst^bg-J mice
First one is induced; second is spontaneous
Mimics Chediak-Higashi syndrome in humans
Defective granulocytes, NK cells, T/B cell responses, platelet storage pool --> bleeding
145
What are two main mutations at hairless locus (Hr)?
Chr 14
Hr^hr mutation = hairless; lose hair at 10 days; sparse hair and whiskers regrow and shed repeatedly; toenails long and curved
Hr^rh mutation = rhino; lose hair at first cycle ~12 days and does not regrow; thick and wrinkled skin with long toenails
146
Coat color genetics for C57BL/6J
a Tyrp1+ Tyr+ Myo5a+
Black
147
Coat color genetics for A strain
a Tyrp1b Tyrc Myo5a+
Albino
148
Coat color genetics for BALB/c
A Tyrp1b Tyrc Myo5a+
Albino
149
Coat color genetics for CBA and C3H
A Tyrp1+ Tyr+ Myo5a+
Agouti
150
Coat color genetics for DBA/1 and DBA/2
a Tyrp1b Tyr+ Myo5ad
Dilute, brown, non-agouti
151
Coat color genetics for SJL vs SWR
SJL: A Tyrp1+ Tyrc Myo5a+ Ocap (pink-eye)
SWR: A Tyrp1+ Tyrc Myo5a+
Albino
152
Coat color genetics for 129
129S1/SvImJ
Aw (white-bellied) Tyrp1+ Tyrc-ch Myo5a+
light-bellied agouti chinchilla
129P3/J
Aw (white-bellied) Tyrp1+ Tyrc Myo5a+ Ocap
albino pink-eyed
153
Pathognomonic for ectromelia
Lesions in skin, liver, spleen, intestine w/ intracytoplasmic inclusion bodies
154
Ectromelia (poxvirus) pathogenesis
Skin invasion --> multiply in regional lymph node --> primary viremia --> to liver/spleen --> secondary viremia --> skin infection (swelling then papules then ulceration)
155
Which mice are affected by cytomegalovirus? What is pathognomonic? How to differentiate from MTV?
Neonates
Subclinical in immuncompetent
IN inclusions in cervical salivary gland
MTV causes lytic lesions of lymphoid tissues
156
Which mice are susceptible/resistant to cytomegalovirus?
Susceptible: A, BALB/c
Resistant: B6, B10, CBA, C3H
157
What is species name for Mouse Thymic Virus? What is pathognomonic? How is it shed/transmitted?
Murid herpesvirus 3; a betaherpesvirus like cytomegalovirus
Thymic necrosis with IN inclusions (tropism for CD4+ T cells)
Persistent shedding in saliva
158
Which proteins to use for screening and species differentiation for mouse parvo?
**NS-1**, NS-2 (nonstructural proteins) highly conserved --> use for screening
VP-1, **VP-2** (viral capsid proteins) --> differentiate MVM from MPV
159
2 types of MVM
Minute Virus of Mice (parvo)
MVMp = prototype; MVMi = immunosuppressive
160
Of MPV and MVM which has persistent shedding?
MPV in all mice especially immunodeficient mice
Can use quarantine for MVM because does not persistently infect
161
What are the variants of MPV?
MPV-1, MPV-2, MPV-3 (last one is closely related to hamster parvo)
162
Is humoral immunity cross-protective against MPV and MVM?
No not cross-protective
163
How does MPV enter body and does it cause lesions in that organ?
Intestines, but does not cause lesions (like TMEV!)
164
Which mouse strains are resistant to MPV?
B6
165
What are the two strains of MAV? Where are the lesions for each? For serology which strain is used?
MAV-1 = historic/extinct, polytropic (necrosis and IN inclusions of brown fat, myocardium, adrenal cortex, salivary gland, and kidney)
MAV-2 = enterotropic (IN inclusions in intestine especially distal SI)
For serology use MAV-2 (is the one that will cross-react with both)
166
What two polyomaviruses affect mice? What viral antigen causes tumorigenesis?
1. Polyomavirus (PyV)
PyV has "T" antigens - large, middle, small
Middle T is considered the major oncogene
2. K virus (murine pneumotropic virus)
Vascular endothelium, esp lung = primary target
Both have IN inclusions
167
Which mice are susceptible/resistant to polyomavirus?
Susceptible: AKR, C3H, C58, CBA, SWR
Resistant: C57BL/6, DBA/2, BALB/c
168
What viral family contains Lactate Dehydrogenase Elevating Virus? What is tropism/target cell type? What are clinical signs?
Arteriviridae (RNA, enveloped) - like PRRSV
Macrophages
Lifelong viremia, otherwise subclinical EXCEPT can see poliomyelitis if:
1. Immunosuppressed
2. Neurotropic strain
3. Endogenous MLV
4. Homozygous for Fv-1n (C58, AKR, C3H, PL)
169
Infection with what murine virus is a model for ALS?
Lactate dehydrogenase elevating virus (if present with poliomyelitis)
170
Which viral family contains LCMV? What are the clinical forms?
Arenaviridae (RNA, enveloped) - also Lassa, Junin
1. Late form - congenital infection (vertical) --> immune complex glomerulonephritis
2. Cerebral form - intracerebral inoc
3. Mortality - runting/death in neonates
4. Visceral form - adults inoculated with viscerotropic strain
171
What is natural host for LCMV and what causes zoonotic transmission (i.e. don't house these two together)
Natural host = mouse
Zoonotic transmission from hamsters
172
LCMV multiplies in ___ and ___, while ___ are resistant to replication but the cause of clinical signs
What strain of mouse doesn’t develop clinical dz, but amplifies and can spread to humans?
B cells and macrophages; T cells
NUDES
173
What cell type is responsible for clinical signs with LCMV?
T-cell mediated immune injury
174
How to manage Sendai Virus in immunocompetent vs immunodeficient mouse colonies
Burn-out in immunocompetent (self-limiting)
Euthanize immunodeficient especially nude mice harbor and amplify the virus
175
Main viruses that cause pneumonia in mice? Which spreads rapidly with high M&M including immunocompetent?
1. Sendai Virus
2. Pneumonia virus of mice (PVM)
Both Paramyxoviridae
Sendai Virus, but self-limiting in immunocompetent thus for both viruses can use burn-out.
176
Reoviridae in mice contains what viruses
1. Reovirus 1, 2, 3 (all cross-reactive)
2. EDIM (Rotavirus)
Reovirus 3 most common in mouse colonies; Reovirus 2 similar to EDIM (enterotropic)
177
Like Yellow Fever Virus, mice infected with ____ can have necrosis and Councilman bodies in liver
Reovirus 3; see JAUNDICE
178
Which virus affects mice <2 weeks and see milk spot because continue to suckle leading to high morbidity but low mortality? Which virus causes the opposite?
Rotavirus (EDIM; Reoviridae)
MHV (LIVIM; Coronaviridae)
179
What pathology in intestine is seen with EDIM/Rotavirus?
Vacuolation of villar epithelial cells with cytoplasmic swelling, which give villi a clubbed appearance
No necrosis or inflammation
180
Routes of transmission for MHV. What is hallmark on pathology?
Aerosol (polytropic strain --> necrosis in multiple organs esp liver), fecal-oral (enterotropic strain)
Gross path: no milk spot
Histopath: syncytia (liver, intestines based on strain of virus)
181
___ cells are needed for immunity against MHV
T cells (nudes cannot fight off)
182
Mice susceptible to what two Cardiovirus species? What viral family are they in?
TMEV and EMCV (Encephalomyocarditis virus) (latter infects wild mice but not known to affect laboratory mice)
Picornaviridae
183
What infection causes mice to present with flaccid posterior paralysis (may see limb weakness first) but mice otherwise alert? What is route of transmission?
Theiler's Murine Encephalomyelitis Virus (TMEV) - Picornaviridae, Cardiovirus genus
Fecal-oral --> replicates in intestinal mucosa but no enteric disease (like MPV) --> spreads slowly to CNS --> affects especially ventral horn of spinal cord
184
How to disinfect TMEV?
Picornaviridae (nonenveloped, RNA)
TMEV is rapidly destroyed by temperatures over 50°C and by alcohol but not by ether
185
What viral family is Mouse Norovirus?
Caliciviridae (RNA, nonenveloped) - like feline calicivirus, rabbit hemorrhagic disease virus (RHDV)
186
Mouse retroviruses are in which genera? Compare to other species
MMTV (Betaretrovirus like SRV)
MLV (Gammaretrovirus like FeLV)
Others:
Lentivirus - FIV, SIV
Deltaretrovirus - STLVs
Spumavirus - FFV, SFV (foamy viruses)
187
In which murine retrovirus does the LTR also makes a superantigen (Sag)?
MMTV (Betaretrovirus)
Causes massive T cell activation which helps viral spread
188
What is exogenous vs endogenous retrovirus in mice?
Exogenous - horizontally transmitted via milk
i.e. Bittner Milk Agent (MMTV) and Friend, Moloney, Rausher (MLVs)
Endogenous - integrated into genome and transmitted vertically
189
How to classify murine endogenous retroviruses based on infectivity to mice and other species and what are examples of each retroviral element disrupting certain genes in mice?
Ecotropic – endogenous retrovirus still infectious to other mouse cell targets
Ex: Dilute mutation (DBA) – insertion for ecotropic virus into Myo5a locus
Xenotropic – endogenous retrovirus no longer infectious for mouse cells, but can infect other mouse cells
Ex: Rodless retina allele (rd1) – integration of a xenotropic virus into Pde6b locus
Polytropic – endogenous retrovirus capable of infecting cells of mice and other species
Ex: Athymic nude allele, Hairless allele (hr) – polytropic virus integration in the hr locus
190
Which virus has up to 22% prevalence in mouse colonies (immuno-competent and -deficient) but no clinical signs?
Astrovirus (MuAstV) in Astroviridae
191
Ddx intestinal hypertrophy in mice
1. Lawsonia intracellularis
2. Citrobacter rodentium (Tranmissible Colonic Hyperplasia)
3. Enterohepatic Helicobacter (typically in ID strains)
192
Which infectious agent causes suppurative rhinitis, otitis media (head tilt), and chronic pneumonia (chattering, dyspnea) in mice?
Mycoplasma pulmonis
Can also cause repro tract infections with experimental inoculation and CNS
193
What species is a major reservoir for Mycoplasma pulmonis?
RATS
194
Which strains of mice are susceptible/resistant to Mycoplasma pulmonis?
Susceptible = AKR, BALB/c, C3H, CBA, DBA/2, Swiss inbred (SWR, SJL)
Resistant = C57BL
195
Major histopath feature for Mycoplasma pulmonis. What immune cell is the major defense against this bacterium?
Disruption and loss of cilia
Alveolar macrophages (innate immune response is protective)
T cell responses exacerbate thus T cell deficient mice are somewhat protected but tend to get systemic infection
196
Ddx for pneumonia in mice
Ddx CAR bacilli (r/o with silver stain), SV (r/o with serology, IHC), PVM, corynebacteriosis, Pneumocystis murina (immunodeficient mice), Mycoplasma pulmonis
197
Is tetracycline treatment effective for Mycoplasma pulmonis in mice?
Treatment with tetracycline suppresses clinical disease but does not eliminate infection
198
What is commonly seen in histopath with Mycoplasma pulmonis in mice but not rats? What is common to both?
Multinucleated giant cells
Loss of cilia, inflammation, purulent exudate
199
Which non-pulmonis species of Mycoplasma is also seen in mice and is nonpathogenic (but causes arthritis with experimental inoculation)?
Mycoplasma arthritidis
200
Which non-pulmonis species of Mycoplasma causes rolling disease in mice, a rare syndrome within hours of experimental IV infection of exotoxin?
M. neurolyticum (ddx = otitis caused by Pseudomonas, Rodentibacter pneumotropicus)
201
What two bacteria are trophic for RBCs and cause hemolytic anemia?
Mycoplasma hemomuris
Mycoplasma coccidiodes
202
What is primary vector for Mycoplasma coccidioides?
Polyplax serrata (mouse louse)
Also transmitted via tumor transplant
203
How to diagnose Mycoplasma coccidioides?
Inoculate test material into splenectomized mice --> blood smears q6h, beginning at 48 h after splenectomy
204
CAR Bacillus Infection is caused by ___ and causes what in mice? How is it transmitted? Dx? Tx?
Filobacterium rodentium
Likely an opportunist in mice because often + for SV, PVM; in rats clinical signs similar to Mycoplasma pulmonis
Direct contact; dirty bedding sentinels do not detect well
Silver stains
Tx with sulfamerazine may eradicate
205
Fatal bronchopneumonia due to CAR bacillus was reported in ____ mice
OB/OB
206
Is Citrobacter rodentium found incidentally in mice?
Not in the GI flora of normal mice --> no carrier state
207
What pathology from Citrobacter rodentium is similar to certain types of E. coli?
Attaching and effacing lesions (mediated by host intimin receptor which translocates to luminal surface of epithelial cell)
208
Pseudomonas aeruginosa clinical signs in mice
In immunocompromised mice: septicemia; otitis; torticollis; GI ulceration; severe leukopenia; **conjunctivitis**
GPs= pulm lesions, bronchopneumonia, OM, conjunctivitis
Severe/lethal in nude and SCID mice
Rats: hx of irradiation, indwelling catheter
209
How to detect mouse carriers of Pseudomonas?
Detect carriers by nasal culture or placing sterile, nonacidified, nonchlorinated water on cages for 24–48 h, then culturing sipper tubes
210
Which mouse strains are susceptible to vestibular signs from Pseudomonas aeruginosa?
C3H, Swiss Webster
211
Clinical signs for Rodentibacter pneumotropicus in mice
Suppurative or exudative lesions: eye, conjunctiva, skin, mammary glands, etc
rats = conjunctiva, mammary gland, uterus
212
Of Pseudomonas aeruginosa and Rodentibacter pneumotropicus, which is ubiquitous in skin, URT, and GIT of mice and which is not a normal colonizer? Which is treatable with antibiotics?
Rodentibacter pneumotropicus - normal inhabitant --> often no seroconversion
Pseudomonas - NOT
Pseudomonas abx resistance; Rodentibacter pneumotropicus can tx with enrofloxacin in drinking water 85 mg/kg SID x 7 days
213
Mice with Rodentibacter pneumotropicus (prev. Pasteurella pneumotropica) kpresent with ___ and ___ abscesses especially in ___ mice.
Preputial and orbital abscesses especially in athymic mice
May also have cutaneous abscesses without other lesions
214
Ddx suppurative lesions in mice
Rodentibacter pneumotropicus, Staphylococcus, Streptococcus, Corynebacterium, Klebsiella, and Mycoplasma
215
Mice and rats should not be cohoused as rats carry and can pass ___ and ___ to mice.
Helicobacter bilis
Streptobacillus monoliformis
216
H. hepaticus and H. bilis associated with ___ in A/J mice and ___ in immunodeficient mice.
Typhlitis and hepatitis
IBD/colon cancer
217
Which strains are susceptible to Helicobacter-induced hepatitis?
***A/JCr***, C3H/HeNCr, and SJL/NCr mice (C57BL/6 = resistant)
218
Which Helicobacter is nonpathogenic, although it can colonize the stomach of mice and induce gastritis under certain circumstances?
Helicobacter muridarum
219
Salmonella enterica serovars in mice
typhimurium
enteritidis
220
What is triple therapy for Helicobacter?
Amoxicillin, clarithromycin or metronidazole, PPI +/- bismuth
221
Which of the following from mice ferments lactose: Salmonella enterica, Citrobacter rodentium, E. coli
S. enterica: no
Citrobacter rodentium: yes
E. coli: no (although E. coli usually does)
222
Clinical signs/pathology in mice with Salmonella enterica
Acute: Gastroenteritis but may not have diarrhea, conjunctivitis
Subacute: Hepatosplenomegaly (can also die without lesions)
Chronic: Weight loss, arthritis, granulomatous lesions
(Similar signs in guinea pigs)
If recover --> subclinical carrier
223
Deficiency in ___ is protective during Salmonella infection
Iron
224
Dx of Salmonella in mice
1. Culture MLN
2. Fecal culture using selective enrichment media (Selenite F broth plus cystine followed by streaking on brilliant green agar)
3. Antibody agglutination test
225
Clinical signs Strep monoliformis in mice. It can look like what viral infection?
Acute - high mortality
Subacute
Chronic - arthritis, gangrenous amputation (ddx Ectromelia), hind limb paralysis, stillbirths/abortions
226
What is the causative agent of pseudotuberculosis in mice and rats?
Corynebacterium kutscheri
In immunosuppressed, see signs of sepsis (gray-white nodules in multiple organs, cervical lymphadenopathy, arthritis)
Also arthritis
227
Transmission routes for C. bovis
transmission = direct contact, fecal– oral contact, AEROSOL
228
How to tell differentiate abscesses from C. kutscheri from other agents
caseous nature
229
What environmental condition can cause scaly skin/hyperkeratosis that looks like C. bovis?
Low humidity
230
___ mice have impaired NK cells making them prone to S. xylosus-induced necrotic dermatitis on tail
SJL
231
Top ddx for muzzle furunculosis in athymic mice
Staph
232
Pathogenic Strep infections in mice and guinea pigs are ___-hemolytic and in Lancefield group ___.
However, SCID mice can present with ___-hemolytic Strep infections.
Beta hemolytic (compete lysis) Strep in Lancefield Group C (Strep equi spp zooepidemicus in GPs)
vs rats Strep pneumoniae = alpha hemolytic, no Lancefield group
alpha
233
What presents with SEGMENTAL thickening of the colon or cecum in SCID mice?
E. coli
234
Which bacteria causes antibiotic-associated hemorrhagic colitis (AAHC) in humans and suppurative urogenital lesions (endometritis, salpingitis, perioophoritis) and peritonitis in aged B6C3F1 mice?
Klebsiella oxytoca
235
What is the name of the cytotoxin from Klebsiella oxytoca?
tilivalline
236
What is a common culture medium for C. diff? How do colonies appear on blood agar?
Cycloserine-cefoxitin-fructose agar (CCFA) - obligate anaerobe, can have ground-glass appearance
Blood agar colonies are non-hemolytic and gray with fluorescence under UV light
237
Spore shedding begins less than 2h post-ingestion for ___ in mice.
C. diff
238
C. diff two toxins
A and B
TcdA = Toxin clostridial difficile A (the enterotoxin)
TcdB = Toxin clostridial difficile B (the cytotoxin)
239
Which bacteria has double zone of hemolysis on blood agar?
Clostridium perfringens
240
Types of C. perfringens in mice
Type A is normal flora; is an opportunist associated with sudden diet change, poor husbandry, etc
Tx: chlortetracycline, Pen G, change diet
Epizootics of C. perfringens type D (d = deadly!) infection with high mortality in 2- to 3-week-old suckling mice.
241
Which Clostridium is gram negative?
C. piliforme (Tyzzer's)
242
What is primary transmission for Tyzzer's?
ingestion of spores, which are infective at room temperature for at least 1 year and are primary means of spread
243
Stains for Tyzzer's
Do not stain well with H&E
Silver stains, Giemsa stains, or PAS stains
See INTRACELLULAR bundles of rods
244
Main ddx umbilicated lesions on liver
Tyzzer's
245
What 2 mycobacteria are known to be pathogenic for laboratory mice
Mycobacterium avium-intracellulare - granulomatous pneumonia with Langhans giant cells (type of multinucleate giant cell with nuclei arranged like horseshoe; found at center of granuloma esp Mycobacterium)
M. lepraemurium - skin lesions; model for human leprosy
246
2 bacteria associated with pyelonephritis in mice
1. Pseudomonas aeruginosa
2. Proteus mirabilis
Both cause septicemia
247
3 main zoonoses from laboratory mice
1. Lepto
2. Hanta
3. LCMV
248
Why should serologic testing be used with caution for Lepto in mice?
neonatal exposure = persistent infection without seroconversion
249
What is used experimentally to model human chlamydia infection in mice?
Chlamydia muridarum
"mouse pneumonitis agent" - acute dyspnea, pneumonitis
cyanosis with chronic infections
Mice can also be experimentally infected with C. trachomatis
250
Where in the gut would you find Segmental Filamentous Bacteria (SFB) in mice?
ILEUM
Closely related to Clostridia
Has not been cultured
Has nipple-like appendance called "holdfast"
251
___ cells are required to control infection with Pneumocystis murina in mice.
T cells
252
Which viral infection worsens Pneumocystis murina infection in SCID mice?
PVM (Pneumonia virus of mice; Paramyxoviridae)
253
What special stain for Pneumocystis murina?
GMS
254
What is the most common fungal agent of mice? Where are lesions and how to dx?
Trichophyton mentagrophytes (same in GPs)
Lesions on head, tail, limbs
Culture Sabouraud agar, silver stain, Schiff's reagent (part of PAS)
255
How to treat Giardia muris and Spironucleus muris in mice
Treated by 0.1% dimetridazole to water for 14 days
256
How does morphology differ between Giardia muris and Spironucleus muris?
Giardia has anterior sucking disk; Spironucleus does not
Giardia tumbles/rolls, Spironucleus does not
257
What age mice are most susceptible to Spironucleus muris?
3-6 weeks old (post-weaning)
258
Spironucleus muris can be transmitted between mice and ___.
hamsters (does not appear to transmit between mice and rats)
259
Clinical signs with Tritrichomonas muris
None; asymptomatic colonizer of small and large intestine. Does not form cysts.
Affects mice, rats, hamsters
260
Causative agent of renal coccidiosis in mice
Klossiella muris
Infection is usually nonpathogenic and subclinical
Oral transmission
261
How does E. cuniculi differ in mice vs rabbits
In contrast to rabbits, affected mice do not develop interstitial nephritis
262
Cestodes/tapeworms in mice and how do they differ
1. Hymenolepsis (Rodentolepsis) nana
- eggs have prominant polar filaments, adults have hooks
- the only tapeworm that can have DIRECT as well as indirect life cycle (& zoonotic!)
- life cycle 20-30 days
2. Hymenolepsis diminuta
263
2 pinworms in mice and their morphology
1. Syphacia obvelata - crescent moon shaped
2. Aspirculuris tetraptera - oval shaped
Syphacia muris = rat pinworm
264
Life cycle of pinworms in mice and how to diagnose/treat
Syphacia 11-15 days; eggs infectious within 6 hours; anal tape; fenbendazole week on/week off
Aspiculuris 23-25 days; eggs infectious within 6-7 days; fecal float; frequent cage changes
(but fecal PCR best and can speciate)
265
Immune expulsion of parasites and resistance to reinfection = hallmarks of ____(pinworm) infection.
A. tetraptera
266
What are the three main fur mites in mice?
1. Myobia musculi
2. Radfordia affinis
3. Myocoptes musculinus
267
Which part of body of mouse primarily affected by fur mites?
Dorsal anterior aspect
268
Placing recently euthanized mouse on black paper and when body cools seeing parasites is used for...
Fur mites (they spend entire life on host)
269
How to differentiate fur mites in mice based on appearance?
Myocoptes musculinus = more round
Myobia musculi and Radfordia affinis both elongated; Myobia has single tarsal claw on second pair of legs while Radfordia has two
270
Life cycle and time to egg hatching in fur mites
Myocoptes musculinus: 8-14 days; 5 days
Myobia musculi: 23 days; 7-8 days
Radfordia affinis: nonclinical
271
Where in hair shaft is Myocoptes musculinus vs Myobia musculi
Middle 1/3rd
Base
272
Which fur mite is associated with hypersensitivity dermatitis? Which strain of mouse is most susceptible?
Myobia musculi; C57BL
273
What is a fourth potential fur mite in mice and where does it inhabit?
Psorergates simplex
Inhabits the hair follicle --> see cyst-like white nodules in subcutis
274
Sites of amyloidosis in mice
Liver, lung, spleen, kidney, intestine, heart, vessels, nasal
275
Pseudoxanthoma elasticum (PXE), a heritable ectopic mineralization disorder in humans, is caused by mutations in the ___ gene which can be knocked out in mice. In KO mice where is mineralization classically observed?
ABCC6
Classic biomarker for KO mouse = mineralization of the vibrissae dermal sheath
276
DBA/2J and C3H/HeJ mice only develop tissue mineralization when fed an experimental diet enriched in ___ and low in ___.
phosphate
magnesium
277
Mouse models of Vit E deficiency lack ___ and present with ____.
α-tocopherol transfer protein (α-TTP)
muscular dystrophy --> convulsions, heart failure
278
Mice have an absolute requirement for a dietary source of ___ and/or ___ acid
linoleic, arachidonic (if get linoleic mouse can make arachidonic from that)
279
Ulcerative dermatitis is associated with what type of diet?
High fat, ad lib
Also rule out mites (hypersensitivity can contribute)
Seasonal fluctuation suggests changes in temp/humidity may exacerbate
280
Postpartum ileus in primiparous female mice during the second week of lactation has been seen in what strain? This is now associated with what bacterium?
C57BL/6
C. perfringens
281
Spontaneous atrial thrombosis seen in what strains of mice
RFM (associated with kidney disease and amyloidosis)
BALB/c (auricular; spontaneous)
282
Auricular thrombosis seen in what strain of mice
BALB/c
283
What condition is associated with ear tags in mice?
Auricular chondritism
284
Which mouse strain gets PCKD?
BALB/c
285
Which mouse strains get mucometra/hydrometra?
BALB/c, B6, and DBA
See abdominal distention
286
Microphthalmia and anophthalmia in B6 mice usually seen in which eye and which sex?
Right eye, female
287
rd1 mutation is a model for ___ in humans.
retinitis pigmentosa (RP)
288
Another name for forced swim test in mice
Porsolt swim test
289
Another term for operant conditioning chamber where rodent presses lever
Skinner box
290
Top ddx mouse presents with soft feces and rectal prolapse
Citrobacter rodentium
291
For Taenia taeniaformis the mouse and the rat = intermediate hosts of the cestode. What is the definitive host?
Cat
292
Where do polytropic strains of Mouse Hepatitis Virus initially infect?
Respiratory tract (Coronavirus!)
293
What viral family and genus contains Ectromelia? What other viruses are in the same genus?
Poxviridae
Orthopoxvirus (also Vaccinia, smallpox, monkeypox)
Orf = Parapoxvirus
294
What is the most common ectoparasite in mice?
Myocoptes musculinus
(Myobia musculi associated with hypersensitivity, but not most common)
295
What occurs secondary to fur mite infection in mice?
Lymphadenopathy, hypergammaglobulinemia, secondary amyloidosis, lymphocytopenia and splenic hypertrophy
296
Which sex and age are most likely to support heavy infestations of Mycoptes musculinus?
Group-housed females; 4-6 weeks old
297
Which strain can develop mineralization in the tongue and cornea?
DBA (also left ventricle)
298
For MHV, what internal antigen do strains of this virus share?
What specific antigen is used to distinguish different strains?
M and N antigens
Spike protein
299
IL-10 KO, SCID mice (immunodeficient) develop what with Helicobacter infection?
IBD
300
What virus and environmental condition can precipitate or increase susceptibility to Mycoplasma pulmonis?
Increased susceptibility with concurrent viral pneumonia (Sendai, MHV), high ammonia, high relative humidity, decreased ACH
301
Which sex and strains are prone to pituitary adenoma with aging?
Females
C57BL/6 and FVB
Secrete prolactin
302
Which mouse Helicobacter species are urease-negative?
Negative: H. ganmani, H. rodentium, H. Typhlonius
Don’t have the GRiT to live in stomach
303
Helicobacter ___ is used as a model of H. pylori-induced gastritis in mice. What is susceptibility of C57, C3H, and BALB/c?
felis
BALB/c minimal, C3H moderate, C57 severe
304
Which mouse has thymic lymphoma/leukemia from exogenous vs endogenous retrovirus?
SJL - exogenous MMTV
AKR - endogenous MLV
305
What 2 rodent viruses that infect both macrophage and dendritic cells may enhance the progression of atherosclerotic plaques in mouse models of atherosclerosis by inducing the production of pro-inflammatory cytokines?
Mouse Norovirus and Lactate Dehydrogenase Elevating Virus
306
Similar to other spontaneous cancers, plasmacytoma development in mice is inhibited by innate immune responses of NK cells which when activated by viruses
will release ____.
γINF
