Ruminants Flashcards
(169 cards)
1
Q
Which sheep breed is prone to Congenital hyperbilirubinemia/hepatic organic anion EXCRETORY defect (Dublin-Johnson Syndrome)?
A
Corriedale
think C for Conjugated hyperbilirubinemia
2
Q
Which sheep breed is prone to Congenital hyperbilirubinemia/hepatic organic anion UPTAKE defect (Gilbert’s syndrome)?
A
Southdown
3
Q
Which sheep breed is prone to Gamma-glutamyl carboxylase (GGCX) deficiency?
A
Rambouillets
4
Q
Which virus is associated with pulmonary adenomatosis in sheep?
A
Jaagsiekte sheep retrovirus
5
Q
Which breed of sheep is prone to beta-mannosidosis and is used for prenatal therapeutic cell transplantation strategies
A
Inbred Nubian breed
6
Q
What is scientific term for fainting goats?
A
Myotonia congenita
Mutation in chloride channel
Autosomal dominant with incomplete penetrance
7
Q
Which animal is a model for Tritrichomonas?
A
Tritrichomonas fetus in CATTLE (for human Trichomonas vaginalis)
8
Q
Which animal is model for lupofuscinosis? What is the breed?
A
CATTLE
Ayrshire breed
9
Q
Which cattle breeds are a model for glycogen storage disease?
A
Shorthorn and Brahman breed
10
Q
Which cattle breed is a model for hemochromatosis (body absorbs/excretes abnormal amounts of iron)?
A
Salers breed
11
Q
Which cattle breed is model for leukocyte adhesion deficiency syndrome?
A
Holstein
12
Q
Sheep health screening
A
Q fever (Coxiella burnetii), contagious ecthyma, caseous lymphadenitis (Corynebacterium pseudotuberculosis), Johne’s disease (Mycobacterium paratuberculosis), Ovine progressive pneumonia (OPP), Sheep keds, nasal bot flies lung and GI worms
13
Q
Goat health screening
A
Q fever, caprine arthritis and encephalomyelitis virus (Lentivirus), Brucellosis, tuberculosis, Johne’s disease, Caseous lymphadenitis, Contagious ecythma, mycoplasma
14
Q
Sheep and goat minimum vaccines:
A
tetanus toxoid and clostridials
15
Q
Which group writes the Ag Guide?
A
Federation of Animal Science Societies (FASS)
For agricultural research
16
Q
How long after birth is Intestinal immunoglobulin absorption in neonatal ruminants?
A
(crucial to the success of passive transfer)
36 hours
17
Q
Chromosome numbers for sheep, goats, and cattle
A
Sheep: 54
Goats: 60
Cattle: 60
18
Q
Dental formula for ruminants
A
Adult permanent teeth: 0033/3133 (32 teeths)
19
Q
Scientific name for goats
A
Capra hircus
20
Q
Scientific name for sheep
A
Ovis aries
21
Q
Scientific name for cattle
A
Bos taurus
22
Q
MHC for Ovis aries
A
OVAR-MHC - classes I, II, III
23
Q
MHC for Bos taurus
A
bovine lymphocyte Ag system (BoLA)
24
Q
Is ALT liver-specific in ruminants?
A
NO
25
What happens if sheep are fed horse feeds?
What would you see in the eye?
Copper toxicity
Wilson's disease (like Long-Evans Cinnamon rat)
Kayser-Fleischer (KF) Rings
26
Sheep and goat production
Seasonally polyestrous (short days)
Ewes artificially stimulated from anestrus by 8h light & 16h dark for 8-10 wk
27
Signs of estrus in sheep and goats
Sheep: mild vulvar erythema/swelling, slight increase mucus secretion
Goat: tail flagging, vulvar erythema/swelling, clear vaginal fluid becomes white
28
Rectal temp drops 24h prior to parturition in which species?
Bitch (dog) and doe (goat)
29
How to do controlled birth in doe?
GD144 (gestation day) give PGF2alpha to deliver kid within 24-57h
30
Frequency of XX/XY chimeras in different ruminants?
Anastomosing placental circulations of twin fetuses mixes blood-forming cells and germ cells
85-90% of phenotypic bovine females born twin to males, Sheep are rare, goat occurs in 6% of male-female pairs
31
What type of goats have intersex?
Breeding polled goats
32
AI breeding of sheep
The Guelph System for Transcervical AI: penetration through cervix into uterus, 75% success of ewes when inseminator is experienced
33
3 methods to synchronize goat estrus?
1. At luteal phase of estrus cycle (4-16 d) sensitive to PGF2alpha, show estrus in 36-60 h post-injection
2. Keep does w/in pheromone distant of buck will show signs of estrus and ovulate w/in 6-10 d
3. Vaginal pessaries of fluorogestone acetate left in place for 21 d followed by injection of pregnant mare serum gonadotrophin (PMSG) at time of pessary removal
34
What infectious dz can be transmitted by embryo transfer in ruminants?
BVDV (Bovine Viral Diarrhea Virus - Flavivirus), bluetongue virus (Reovirus), IBRV (Bovine herpesvirus-1), mycoplasma sp.
35
How to castrate goats/sheep and at what age?
By 1 month
Elastrator only if <1 week old
36
How short to dock the tail of sheep?
No less than 10 inches
37
Signs of pain in ruminants
bruxism, decreased time spent eating and cud chewing, prolonged recumbency w/ outstretched neck and head, hunched back when standing, thin, external lumps, swollen joints, unusual abdominal profile, rough coat
38
Enrichment for calves
Provide nipples and other clean non-injurious materials for sucking
39
Where is extra-label drug use defined?
by the Animal Medicinal Drug Use Clarification Act of 1994 (AMDUCA)
40
When is extra-label drug use ok?
FDA (under AMDUCA) allows w/in context of a valid veterinarian–client relationship under certain conditions:
1. There is no approved new animal drug that is labeled for the intended use that contains the same active ingredient in the required dosage form and concentration
2. A veterinarian has made a careful diagnosis and evaluation of the condition
3. The veterinarian has established an extended withdrawal period prior to marketing
4. The identity of the treated animal is assured and maintained
5. Ensure that no illegal drug residues occur in any food-producing animal subjected to extra-label treatment
6. Extra-label drug must bear labeling information which is adequate to assure the safe and proper use of the product
41
Which drugs are always prohibited extra-label in food animals?
chloramphenicol, clenbuterol, diethylstilbestrol, dimetridazole, ipronidazole, other nitroimidazoles, furazolidone, nitrofurazone, sulfonamide drugs in lactating dairy cattle (except approved sulfas), fluoroquinolones, glycopeptides, phenylbutazone in female dairy cattle 20 months old or older, cephalosporins (except cephapirin)
42
What is the cause of wooden tongue? Where are lesions in cattle vs sheep?
Actinobacillus lignieresii
Sulfur-like granules
Cattle: tongue
Sheep: lip
43
What causes lumpy jaw?
Actinomyces bovis
Draining tracts with sulfur-like granules
Zoonotic, poor px
44
Which bacteria is associated with umbilical infection (omphalophelbitis, omphalitis, omphaloarteritis)? What are sequela?
Trueperella pyogenes
Ddx for <1 wk animal w/ fever of unknown origin
Prevent by dipping umbilicus in betadine
Septicemia, peritonitis, septic arthritis, meningitis, osteomyelitis, & endocarditis
45
Control for anthrax (Bacillus anthracis) in ruminants
vaxx available, endemic area herds vaxx w/ Sterne-strain spore vaxx (virulent, nonencapsulated)
REPORTABLE
46
What species of Brucella are in cattle, sheep, and goats?
ZOONOTIC
Cattle: Brucella abortus
Sheep and goats: Brucella melitensis **#1 pathogen in humans**
NON-ZOONOTIC
Sheep: Brucella ovis (epididymitis)
47
What is the most important cause of ovine abortion in the US? What is pathology of aborted fetuses?
C. fetus subsp. intestinalis, C. jejuni (Vibriosis)
Zoonotic
Fetuses edematous, liver pale foci, thick placenta, gray cotyledons
48
What is main cause of abortion in cattle but does not affect other ruminants?
Campylobacter fetus subsp. venerealis (Bovine Vibrosis)
49
Ddx late gestation abortions in sheep?
Toxoplasma gondii, chlamydophila abortus, listeria monocytogenes, campylobacteriosis (C. fetus intestinalis, C. jejuni)
*** Campy is most imp and usually last trimester; no venereal transmission
50
Ddx abortions in cattle
Campylobacteriosis vs. trichomoniasis
Brucellosis, mycoplasmosis, IBR-pustular vulvovaginitis, BVD, leptospirosis
51
Which type of Clostridium perfringens causes 100% M&M in ruminants? What type of toxin is produced?
C. perfringens **type C** (enterotoxemia; necrotizing enteritis)
BETA toxin (necrotizing)
52
Which type of Clostridium perfringens causing pulpy kidney disease? What type of toxin is produced? What is characteristic on bloodwork/UA?
C. perfringens **type D**; mostly in SHEEP
Epsilon toxin (activated by trypsin, increases vascular permeability)
Hyperglycemia & glucosuria
53
What is most common infection site in post-parturient dairy cattle w/ retained placentas due to C. tetani?
Uterus
54
Susceptibility to C. tetani of sheep, goats, horses, cattle
Susceptibility: Horse > Sheep & Goats > Cattle
55
Which Clostridium causes red water (Bacillary hemoglobinuria)?
Clostridium hemolyticum (aka C. novyi Type D)
56
Which clostridium causes blackleg?
C. chauvoei
57
Which Clostridium causes Bighead? What species?
C. novyi
Sheep (rams)
58
Which Clostridium causes black disease?
C. novyi Type B (along with liver fluke Fasciola hepatica)
59
Which Clostridium causes malignant edema?
Clostridium septicum
60
How to serotype E. coli?
3 surface Ag complexes (O-somatic, K-envelope or pili, and H-flagellar) used to classify serotypes
61
Which type of E. coli causes gastroenteritis and/or septicemia in neonates, semifluid yellow-gray diarrhea, occasional blood in ruminants?
ETEC (same in pigs - also ETEC!)
62
Ruminant enterotoxemia ddx
E. coli, C. perfringens A, B, or C, Campylobacter jejuni, Coccidia, rotavirus, coronavirus, salmonella, streptococcus, pasteurella, cryptosporidia
63
Main ddx abscessation of LNs in goats and sheep? How to control?
Corynebacterium pseudotuberculosis (caseous lymphadenitis)
Lance and flush; isolate animal. Can prevent with vaxx.
64
What bacterium causes pyelonephritis in cattle?
Corynebacterium renale
65
What bacterium causes posthitis, pizzle rot, sheath rot in sheep and goats?
Corynebacterium cystitidis, C. pilosum
66
What causes Cutaneous Streptothricosis, Lumpy Wool, Strawberry Footrot in ruminants?
Dermatophilus congolensis
Zoonotic
67
What is the leading cause of lameness in sheep? What are risk factors?
Dichelobacter (Bacteroides) nodosus and Fusobacterium necrophorum
Also in goats
Overcrowding, warm & moist env’t are key
68
How to differentiate foot rot from heel warts?
Heel warts (aka Bovine digital dermatitis, Papillomatous digital dermatitis (PDD), Hairy foot warts) - no swelling, fever
69
Lepto serovars in different ruminants and susceptibility
MC in cattle: Pomona and hardjo
MC in sheep: hardjo
MC in cattle > sheep > goats
Zoonotic!
70
Microabscesses of midbrain with G(+) bacilli characteristic of what bacterium in ruminants?
Listeria monocytogenes
Zoonotic!
71
Most common causes of mastitis in different ruminants?
Sheep = Mannheimia hemolytica MC cause of acute
Goats = **Staphylococcus epidermidis** and other coagulase-negative Staph
Cows = Staphylococcus aureus, Streptococcus agalactiae, Corynebacterium bovis (summer mastitis of heifers, dry cows, and beef breeds), E. coli & Klebsiella pneumonia, Mycoplasma bovis (California mastitis)
72
What causes Infectious bovine keratoconjunctivitis (IBK) or Pinkeye in cattle, NOT in sheep or goats
Moraxella bovis
Transmitted by nasal secretion, face flies, aerosol
73
Components of BRDC (Bovine Respiratory Disease Complex)
Bac:
Mannheimia haemolytica, Pasteurella multocida
Histophilus somni
Viruses:
PI-3, BRSV, BHV-1, BVD
74
Pneumonia with degenerate streaming nuclei of leukocytes (oat cells) pathognomonic for what bacterium in ruminants?
Mannheimia haemolytica
75
What causes Thromboembolic meningoencephalitis – TEME in ruminants?
Histophilus somni
76
CNS lesions with multifocal red-brown foci of necrosis and inflam on and w/in brain and meninges is pathognomonic for what in ruminants? What would you see in fetus/placenta?
Histophilus somni (Thromboembolic meningoencephalitis – TEME)
Aborted fetus do not show signs but necrotizing placentitis
77
Which Salmonella serovars cause abortion in sheep and goats? What is a characteristic and a pathognomonic lesion?
Dublin, Abortusovis
Salmonella causes GI and abortions
Characteristic: necrosuppurative inflammation of Peyer’s patches
Pathognomonic: Fibrinous cholecystitis
78
Which species of Mycobacteria do different ruminants get?
Sheep – M. bovis, M. avium
Goats – M. bovis, M. avium, M. tuberculosis
Cattle – M. bovis
Zoonotic
Notify state officials if intradermal test positive, quarantine
79
CS/dx/control M. avium subsp paratuberculosis (Paratuberculosis; Johne’s disease)
CS: Diarrhea despite normal appetite, anthelmintics
Dx: Culture/histo ileal/ileocecal lymph nodes = gold standard
Control: Remove calves from dam immediately, keep separate from adults for 1 year
80
What is major risk factor for Mycoplasma bovigenitalium, Mycoplasma bovis in cattle?
Unpasteurized milk
81
What species of Mycoplasma cause pneumonia in sheep and goats? Which is more clinically significant
Sheep: Mycoplasma ovipneumoniae
Goat: M. mycoides Biotype F38 - highly contagious and high M&M; even subclinical can cause anesthetic complications
82
What causes pinkeye in sheep and goats?
Mycoplasma conjunctivae
83
How to diagnose chronic Q fever (Coxiella burnetii)
High IgG against Phase I antibodies (titer at least 1:800 by microimmunofluroescence)
84
Enzootic Bovine Lymphoma (Bovine leukemia virus) genus and where tumors develop
What determines resistance?
Deltaretrovirus (like HTLVs)
abomasum, extradural spinal canal, uterus, RA or LV myocardium, retrobulbar (exophthalmos)
BoLA (bovine leukocyte antigen) genotype confers resistance
85
Caprine arthritis encephalitis virus (CAEV)
Genus Lentivirus (like HIV, FIV), SIV, OPPV)
86
What virus causes Malignant Catarrhal Fever? What is pathognomonic
Bovine herpesvirus-6 (subfamily Gammaherpesvirinae)
Sheep can get from cattle - don't mix them!
Pathognomonic: corneal edema starting at limbus progressing centripetally
87
What type of virus causes Food and Mouth Disease? Which species affected?
Picornaviridae
Swine propagate, sheep can get it, goats its subclinical, but cattle hit hardest
88
Which vesicular disease is zoonotic?
Vesicular Stomatitis Virus (VSV) - Rhabdoviridae
89
What family are the vesicular diseases in?
FMD - Picornaviridae
VSV - Rhabdoviridae
Bluetongue - Reoviridae
90
What is pathognomonic for Bluetongue (Reoviridae)?
Pathognomonic: subintimal hemorrhage of large pulmonary arteries
91
Which virus is most important in bovine respiratory disease complex?
Bovine Viral Diarrhea Virus (BVDV) - Flaviviridae (causes immunosuppression)
92
What is pathognomonic for IBRV (Infectious Bovine Rhinotracheitis Virus)?
Which age group develops CNS signs?
What other clinical syndrome can develop
fibrinonecrotic rhinotracheitis
Encephalitic form: Young most susceptible, fatal in 5 days
Infectious pustular vulvovaginitis (IPV)
93
The C/S of IBK (Infectious Bovine Keratoconjunctivitis) tend to be more severe in cattle that are also infected with _____ or have been recently vaccinated with ___________.
IBR (Bovine Herpesvirus-1) modified live IBR vaccine
94
Which virus causes emphysema of dorsal subcutis from ruptured bullae?
Bovine respiratory syncytial virus (BRSV) (Paramyxoviridae)
95
Which virus causes Pulmonary adenomatosis in sheep?
Betaretrovirus
96
Which virus causes joint and haircoat changes on fetus in small ruminants?
Border dz (shaker disease) - Flaviviridae, Pestivirus; closely related to BDVD (Flavi, also Pestivirus)
97
Which virus causes ring/horseshoe-shaped scabs around teats
Pseudocowpox (Parapoxvirus related to Orf)
98
What type of virus cause Aujueszky’s Disease/Pseudorabies and what species affected?
Alphaherpesvirinae (Suid herpesvirus-1)
Cattle and swine, less so sheep and goats
99
Which sheep breed is most susceptible to scrapie? What confers resistance?
Suffolk breed – susceptible
3 nonsynonymous genetic polymorphisms in PRP gene
-Codons 136, 154, 171
-VRQ/VRQ animals are most susceptible
-ARR/ARR animals are resistant (R’s are resistant)
100
What do different Chlamydia species cause in small ruminants?
Chlamydophila abortus - Enzootic Abortion of Ewes (EAE) - ***infected <120 days into gestation
Chlamydophila pecorum = Chlamydophilal Polyarthritis of Sheep
Chlamydophila psittaci, Chlamydophila pecorum = Chlamydophilal conjunctivitis (infectious KCS)
101
What transmits Bluetongue Virus (Reoviridae) to small ruminants?
Melophagus ovinus (Sheep Keds, Sheep ‘tick’)
Culicoides variipennis (biting midge)
102
Ringworm sheep and goats
Trichophyton mentagrophytes, T. verrucosum
103
What is inheritance and sex predilection of Congenital Myotonia of Goats?
Autosomal dominant
More severe in males
104
What breed of goat gets Beta Mannosidosis?
Nubian kids
Autosomal recessive lysosomal storage dz
105
Which breeds get Spider Lamb Syndrome (Hereditary Chondrodysplasia)? It is similar to what syndrome in humans?
Suffolk and Hampshire breeds
Similar to Marfan Syndrome in humans
106
Ketone bodies in cattle with ketosis
acetone, acetoacetate, and betahydroxybutyrate
107
What causes goat kids to be weak, tremble, characteristic concavity to spinal cord (swayback)?
Copper deficiency (Enzootic ataxia, Swayback)
108
Which ruminant is highly susceptible to Copper toxicosis with severe acute hemolytic anemia?
Sheep especially growing lambs
109
Most common neoplasias in different ruminants?
Cattle: ocular SCC and lymphoma (BLV)
Sheep: Pulmonary adenoma (Jaagsiekte sheep retrovirus), lymphoma (BLV)
Goats: Thymoma, cutaneous papillomas (most common skin & udder tumor)
110
What order, suborder, & family do sheep, goats, & cattle belong to?
Order-Artiodactyla (even toed ungulates or animals w/ cloven hooves)
Suborder-Ruminantia (ruminants or cud chewing animals)
Family-Bovidae
111
What is the genus & species of domestic sheep?
Ovis aries
112
What is the genus & species of the domestic goat?
Capra hircus
113
What are the 2 common genera & species of domestic cattle?
Bos taurus & Bos indicus
114
The ________ breed was developed from crossbreeding British stock w/ Egyptian & Indian goats, it is relatively heat tolerant, & produces milk w/ highest butterfat (~4-5%).
Nubian
115
The ________ breed, a newer breed of dairy goat, has rudimentary ears that are a genetically dominant distinguishing characteristic of the breed.
LaMancha
116
How many blood group systems do cattle, sheep, and goats have?
Cattle - 11
Sheep - 7
Goats - 5
117
Uses of ruminants in research
Cardiac transplantation, preclinical models of cardiac assist/prosthetic devices, Ab production, repro studies, embryo transfer, gene transfer, cloning
118
_________ cattle serve as a model for leukocyte adhesion deficiency syndrome.
Holstein
119
What is the main source of energy for ruminants?
VFAs (glucose formed from propionic acid)
120
Normal _______ erythrocytes lack central pallor because they are flat & lack biconcavity.
Caprine
121
Puberty in sheep
7-8 mos in both rams & ewes
122
What is the length of the estrous cycle in sheep vs goats?
Sheep (ewe): 14-19 d (avg 17d)
Goats (doe): 18-24 d
123
What is the gestation length in sheep vs goats?
Ewe: 147-150 d
Doe: 145-155 d (avg 150 d)
124
What is the drug of choice to induce parturition in goats?
PGF2α
125
The ______ is one of the few ungulates that will exhibit pseudopregnancy.
Goat
126
To control _____, kids should be immediately removed from the dam & hand-fed heat tx colostrum.
CAE (Caprine Arthritis and Enteritis) - Lentivirus
127
How long & at what temp should the colostrum be heat-treated?
1 hr @ 131ºF
128
What does FARAD stand for?
Food Animal Residue Avoidance Databank
129
If you observe ***incomplete rigor mortis***, rapid putrefaction, & dark, uncoagulated blood exuding from all body orifices of an animal, what dz is this? What would be necropsy findings
Anthrax; reportable
Splenomegaly, cyanosis, epicardial & sc hemorrhages, & lymphadenopathy
130
Why are ruminants especially sensitive to Brucella ("Bang's Disease")?
Higher levels of erythritol (sugar alcohol), growth stimulant for the organism
131
What causes Bighead, black dz, bacillary hemoglobinuria?
Clostridium novyi
132
T or F: Sheep & goats are more susceptible to tetanus than cattle.
C. tetani toxins are composed of ____________, which is neurotoxic & ____________, which is hemolytic.
The toxin inhibits the release of ______ & _________ from Renshaw cells (inhibitory interneurons)
TRUE
Tetanospasmin, tetanolysin
Glycine & γ-aminobutyric acid (GABA)
133
3 forms of Listeria in ruminants
1) Encephalitis
2) Placentitis with abortion
3) Septicemia with hepatitis & pneumonia
134
The encephalitic form of Listeriosis is most common in ______.
The neck will be flexed (away from or toward) the affected side.
Sheep
Away from
135
What are the official anatomical sites for TB testing in cattle & goats?
Caudal fold, single cervical, & comparative cervical (last one is injecting both bovine and avian)
136
What tissues provide the best samples for histo & acid fast staining for Johne's Disease in cattle?
Mycobacterium paratuberculosis
Ileal/ileocecal lymph nodes
137
What causes foot rot in small ruminants vs cattle?
Sheep and goats: Dichelobacter (Bacteroides) nodosus & Fusobacterium necrophorum
Cattle: F. necrophorum & Bacteroides melaninogenicus
138
What vector is associated w/ epizootic foothill abortion?
What happens if cows are infected before & after 6 mos of gestation?
Ornithodorus coriaceus (tick)
Before- abort or give birth to weak calves (no C/S of infection)
After- give birth to normal claves
139
Congenital defects caused by BVDV (Flaviviridae)
Thymic atrophy, cerebellar hypoplasia, ocular defects, alopecia or hypotrichosis, demyelinogenesis, hydranencephaly, hydrocephalus, & intrauterine growth retardation
140
What dz is considered the most important viral dz of goats? How is it transmitted?
CAE, Lentivirus of Retroviridae
Primarily by ingestion of colostrum & milk
141
What are the 2 different clinical syndromes that can occur?
What are characteristic lesions for both?
Polysynovitis-arthritis (6 mo or >) & leukoencephalomyelitis (2-6 mo)
Arthritic: Thickening of the synovium
Encephalitic: Demyelinating lymphocytic leukoencephalomeningitis
142
T or F: Intranuclear inclusions are a common finding with Infectious Bovine Rhinotracheitis Virus (IBRV). What lesion is pathognomonic?
F
Bovine herpesvirus 1 but NO IN inclusions
Fibrinonecrotic rhinotracheitis
143
What is incubation period for scrapie? What organs have highest and lowest levels?
T or F: The cerebral cortex is largely unaffected.
2-4 years
Highest = brain
Lowest = liver
T
144
What are two forms of OPP? Which is more common in the US?
Lentivirus Retroviridae
Respiratory and mastitis
Respiratory more common in US
145
Which sheep breed is prone to Glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase deficiency
Dorset
146
Which sheep breed is prone to GM1 gangliosidosis
Suffolk
147
What breeds of cattle are primarily affected with congenital erythropoietic porphyria? What are clinical signs? What enzyme is affected?
Holsteins, Herefords, & Shorthorns
Reddish brown discoloration of teeth & bones
Uroporphyrinogen III synthase
148
What anatomy predisposes male sheep/goats vs cattle to urinary calculi?
Sheep & goats- urethral process
Cattle- urethra narrows @ sigmoid flexure
149
What causes “gun metal” kidneys? Which ruminant is susceptible? What is a common cause of this?
Copper toxicosis
Sheep are most susceptible
Feeding them cattle concentrates
150
The use of what agent should be avoided in sheep due to the potential for development of methemoglobinemia?
Benzocaine!
151
Which bacterial disease is zoonotic and reportable in humans but not Bos taurus?
Listeria
152
Which sheep breed gets Huntington's disease, GM1 gangliosidosis?
Suffolk
153
What causes "pepperoni placenta" in ruminants?
Necrosis of cotyledons
infectious agents: Q fever, Brucella, Chlamydia abortus, Toxo
154
What order, suborder, and family are ruminants?
Artiodactyla order , Ruminantia suborder, Bovidae family
155
Immune-mediated arthritis model in small ruminants
Lentivirus infection in sheep and goats
156
What small ruminant used to study hemophilia?
Sheep
157
Surveillance screening in ruminants
Q fever
Brucellosis
Johne's Disease (reportable)
TB
BVD
BLV
Famacha and fecal egg counting
158
How should livestock vary by transporting diff ag species?
Ventilation at top - may be appropriate for horses, cattle but not swine and small ruminants that are lower to the ground
159
Transportation of ruminants - temp and humidity based on...
THI (Temperature and humidity index)
160
Ruminants pH of urine
Alkaline
161
Main leukocyte in ruminants
Lymphocyte (like rodents)
162
Can you use BUN for renal in ruminants?
No because produced in rumen
163
What species has the smallest RBC?
Goat
164
Do not feed goats ___ to reduce risk of urolithiasis
Alfalfa
165
Colostrum contains ___ that allows for absorption of intact antibody.
trypsin inhibitors
166
Photoperiodicity of ruminants
Small ruminants - short day breeder (breed in fall)
Cattle - nonseasonal (have been selected that way)
167
Gestation of cattle vs small ruminants
Cattle - 280 days
Small ruminants - ~150 days
168
Malignant catarrhal fever is in what viral family?
Herpesviridae (gamma)
169
Bovine corneal opacity and permeability test is a replacement for ____
Draize test in rabbit
