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ACLAM Boards Prep > Miscellaneous > Flashcards

Miscellaneous Flashcards

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1
Q

Which CFR is Animals and Animal Products (USDA)?

A

CFR 9

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2
Q

Which CFR is drugs and GLP (FDA, DEA)?

A

CFR 21

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3
Q

Which CFR is OSHA standards (Dep of Labor)?

A

CFR 29

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4
Q

Which CFR is NHP importation (CDC)?

A

CFR 42 Subpart 71

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5
Q

Which CFR is possession, use, transfer of select agents and toxins (HHS, CDC)?

A

CFR 42 Subpart 73

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6
Q

What are overlap select agents and toxins (HHS and USDA)?

A

Bacillus anthracis
Bacillus anthracis Pasteur strain
Burkholderia mallei (glanders)
Burkholderia pseudomallei (melioidosis)
Hendra virus (Paramyxoviridae)
Nipah virus (Paramyxoviridae)
Rift valley fever virus (Bunyaviridae)
Venezuelan equine encephalitis virus (Togaviridae)

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7
Q

What disinfectants are oxidizing agents?

A
  1. Halogens: chlorine (e.g. bleach), iodine (e.g. povidone iodine)
  2. Peroxygens: Virkon, Peroxygard, hydrogen peroxide
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8
Q

What do halogens (chlorine not iodine) and peroxygens (hydrogen peroxide) kill? What are cons?

A

Vegetative bacteria, mycoplasma, enveloped and nonenveloped viruses, fungi, acid fast bacteria, some spores

Cons: Corrosive; concentrations can cause respiratory irritation

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9
Q

What do quaternary ammonium compounds kill? What are cons?

A

Vegetative bacteria, enveloped viruses

Cons: doesn’t get pseudomonads, acid fast bacteria, non-enveloped viruses, spores

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10
Q

What does iodine kill?

A

Vegetative bacteria, pseudomonads, acid-fast bacteria, enveloped viruses, bacterial spores

Cons: Does not get non-enveloped viruses

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11
Q

What does alcohol kill?

A

Vegetative bacteria, mycoplasmas, pseudomonads, enveloped viruses

Cons: Does not get non-enveloped viruses or SPORES

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12
Q

Eligibility requirements for ALAT (Assistant Laboratory Animal Technician)

A

No diploma or GED: 2 years

high school diploma or GED: 1 year experience

Associate’s degree or higher: six months experience

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13
Q

Eligibility requirements for Laboratory Animal Technician (LAT)

A

High School Diploma or GED: three years of experience

Associate’s Degree (AA/AS) or ALAT: two years of experience

Bachelor’s Degree (BA/BS): one year of experience

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14
Q

Eligibility requirements for LATG (Laboratory Animal Technologist)

A

High School Diploma/GED: Five years of experience in laboratory animal care are required.

Associate’s Degree (AA/AS): Four years of experience in laboratory animal care are required.

Bachelor’s Degree (BA/BS): Three years of experience in laboratory animal care are required.

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15
Q

In a recent journal article discussing plans for measuring vibration and noise in a vivarium, most vibration reaching animals was described as being in which axis?

A

Z

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16
Q

Nuisance variables (variability in data which masks the real treatment effects) can be managed by using which study design?

A

Randomized block design

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17
Q

Using previous standards of research animal management and the American Public Health Association, what level of colony forming units is considered poor sanitation for a RODAC plate?

A

50-75 CFU

ABOVE 50 is bad

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18
Q

Mechanism for how UV-C radiation can be used to sanitize?

A

Produces pyrimidine dimers which damages DNA in microorganisms

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19
Q

Which stain is least useful for detecting amyloid in tissues?

A

Gram

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20
Q

Hydrogen peroxide concentration for fumigant decontamination

A

2.4 mg/L (ppm)

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21
Q

Organisms listed most to least resistant to disinfectants

A

Prions > spores > Mycobacteria > non-enveloped viruses > fungi > vegetative bacteria > enveloped viruses

Please See My New Friend Virginia Eve

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22
Q

What groups regulate transportation of infectious substances?

A

Department of Transportation (DOT)

International Civil Aviation Organization (ICAO), International Air Transport Association (IATA)

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23
Q

Category A packaging

A

Infectious substance

UN 2814: ID number for substances that cause DZ in humans or in both humans and animals

UN 2900: ID number for substances that only cause DZ in animals

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24
Q

Category B packaging

A

Biological specimen (UN 3373)

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25
How often to validate ventilation for ABSL-3Ag and -4Ag
Annually
26
6-8 week 'burnout' method best for what type of viruses?
Enveloped
27
Which is easier to control, the source or reservoir of an infectious agent?
These are not necessarily the same Usually the source
28
Which pathogens are not readily transmitted by dirty bedding sentinels?
Sendai Virus, Hantavirus (through aerosol) Helicobacter (host-adapted, fecal-oral) internal/external parasites eg fur mites Enveloped viruses (less stable in bedding) Need direct contact (Proteus)
29
Most rodent pathogens are spread horizontally. Which rodent pathogens are exceptions?
Lactate dehydrogenase-elevating virus (LDV) LCMV Spread parenterally through cell lines
30
Appropriate length of quarantine for rodents from non-approved vendors
Usually 4-8 wk (allows for infection, seroconversion) OR bypassed w/ PCR testing with noninvasive samples to reduce quarantine to 2 wk (this more sensitive than indirect sentinel testing)
31
____ help preserve the nutritional value of food by promoting rapid and uniform steam penetration, which allows autoclave times to be kept short.
Presterilization vacuum cycles (removes air before the cycle so steam will penetrate faster)
32
What is the most common gamma radiation source?
Cobalt 60
33
What wavelength has peak bactericidal activity
260 nm (near peak of DNA absorption) UV-C which is germicidal is 180-280
34
What is resistant to UV and gamma irradiation
Small nonenv viruses (e.g. parvo), bacterial spores, protozoan cysts, and vegetative bacteria w/ highly efficient DNA repair capabilities Don't rely on this as primary method for gnotobiotic!
35
3 types of filtration based on pore size
Microfiltration - does not get viruses Ultrafiltration - gets viruses Reverse osmosis - gets everything including salts
36
3 mechanisms of chemical disinfection. Which is most effective?
1. Denaturants (of protein, lipid) 2. Reactants (break covalent bonds) 3. Oxidants Oxidants generally used as they get spore-forming bacteria, nonenveloped viruses, and free-living forms of parasites.
37
Examples of denaturants
Phenols Quaternary ammonium compounds Alcohols
38
Examples of reactants
Aldehydes (formaldehyde, glutaraldehyde) Ethylene oxide
39
Examples of oxidizing agents
Peroxygens - Peroxigard Halogens - chlorine (bleach, chlorine dioxide), povidone-iodine
40
What scheme is used to define viral sensitivity to chemical disinfectants?
Klein–DeForest Scheme (A most resistant then B then C most susceptible)
41
What are Categories A, B, and C of Klein–DeForest Scheme?
A: Lipophilic (enveloped viruses) B: Hydrophilic (non-enveloped viruses) C: Intermediate (e.g. Adeno (MAV-1,2), Reo (Reo-3), and Rota (EDIM, IDIR))
42
What are Categories A-D for pathogen susceptibility to disinfectants?
A: enveloped viruses, non-spore forming bacteria B: intermediate viruses C: non-enveloped viruses D: bacterial spores, parasite ova and spores *In order from least to most resistant **B and C are switched from the Klein-DeForest
43
Using chlorine as an example, how do environmental factors affect effectiveness?
Increasing the pH or temperature of water reduces the concentration of hypochlorous acid in favor of the hypochlorite (OCl−) ion, which is less biocidal Chlorine also reacts with organic/inorganic materials making less chlorine available for disinfection
44
How to remove biofilms (e.g. Pseudomonas) from water systems?
Hydrogen peroxide, alkaline peroxide (hydrogen peroxide in basic solution)
45
Are most Mycoplasmas in cell lines, cultures etc infectious to rodents and rabbits?
No; 99% are human/bovine/swine origin
46
Examples of selective culture media
Enrichment media can be used – selenite broth for salmonella MacConkey’s agar has crystal violet and bile salts to inhibit growth of G(+) --> Lactose fermenting bacteria in pink (E. coli), non-lactose fermenters (Salmonella, Shigella) colorless SS agar: Salmonella black
47
Homogenous vs heterogenous serology tests
Homogenous - everything is liquid mixed together (hemagglutination, virus neutralization) Heterogenous - antigen attached to surface; more sensitive e.g. ELISA, IFA, multiplexed immunoassay ELISA more high-throughput (screening) vs IFA higher resolution (confirmatory)
48
Examples of inclusive vs exclusive test
Inclusive: can detect multiple viruses (e.g. nonstructural protein of parvo) Exclusive: unique to a single virus; good for confirmatory testing
49
Alternative to serology
Dried blood spot (DBS) - only 1 drop of blood, can be collected minimally invasively Can use multiplexing to test for many antigens
50
Limitations to serology
Bacteria and fungi stimulate relatively weak adaptive immune responses - Exceptions: M. pulmonis, CAR bacillus, E. cuniculi Require immunocompetent host Takes time to become positive: at least 7-10 days to seroconversion
51
Common molecular target for PCR assays
Ribosomal genes
52
Types of blot assays
Southern blot = DNA Northern blot = RNA Western blot = protein
53
How to adjust cutoff for test for rare and common pathogens?
Rare: Increase cutoff to increase DSp and avoid FP Common: Decrease cutoff to increase DSe to reduce FNs
54
Sensitivity is measured as the _____, which is the lowest [ ] of target analyte in a specific matrix (eg serum) that can consistently yield (+) results
Limit of detection (LOD)
55
Analytical specificity is defined as the ability of an assay to distinguish target from nontarget analytes, including matrix (i.e., specimen) components. What are the three components?
selectivity, inclusivity, and exclusivity
56
How is the analytical specificity of serologic and PCR assays determined?
Serology: amount of antigen bound to the immunoassay solid phase PCR: the genomic sequences to which the primers (and probe for qPCR) anneal
57
Low prevalence is associated with ____ positive predictive value.
Decreased (get more FPs)
58
Considerations for using principle animals and sentinels for testing
Principle animals: ***Age - older animals likely seropositive but cleared the infection so PCR negative. If enzootic choose weanlings (when they lose maternal antibody protection) Sentinels: mature immune system, outbred stocks (cheaper, stronger immune responses), female (less likely to fight if in direct contact with principal animals)
59
How often to perform sentinel testing
Quarterly 3x yearly for prevalent or more common agents 1x yearly for more comprehensive panel
60
Best confirmatory testing methods after serologic (+) for murine rotavirus, MPV, and MNV
Rotavirus: agent cleared (seropositive result --> PCR cagemate less helpful to confirm --> serology or pooled PCR feces or IVC exhaust) MPV: persistent infection + waning shedding (viral DNA persists in mesenteric lymph node --> test that by PCR) MNV: persistent infection + prolonged shedding (a negative PCR would help support it was a false positive)
61
___ consecutive negative screens ___ days apart of 100% of cages in room are required to lift quarantine
2 at 21-28 day intervals
62
Genetically engineered mice at academic institutions have high prevalence of infection with which 4 pathogens (or groups of pathogens)?
Helicobacter, MNV, Pasteurella pneumotropica (Rodentibacter pneumotropicus), parasites
63
The use of soiled bedding sentinels as a part of a health monitoring system is effective for which pathogen?
MHV (Coronavirus) MNV ***fecal-oral***
64
Environmental monitoring is helpful for what pathogen that is otherwise hard to detect?
Myobia musculi (fur mite)
65
Which agents have been shown to be transmitted by vertical transmission in the mouse?
LCMV, LDV, P. pneumotropica, Mycoplasma
66
AALAS requirements for Assistant Laboratory Animal Technician (ALAT)
High school diploma or GED: 1 year experience Associate's degree or higher: 6 mo experience
67
AALAS requirements for Laboratory Animal Technician (LAT)
High School Diploma or GED: 3 years of experience Associate's Degree (AA/AS) or ALAT: 2 years of experience Bachelor's Degree (BA/BS): 1 year of experience
68
AALAS requirements for Laboratory Animal Technologist (LATG)
High School Diploma/GED: 5 years of experience in laboratory animal care are required. Associate's Degree (AA/AS): 4 years of experience in laboratory animal care are required. Bachelor's Degree (BA/BS): 3 years of experience in laboratory animal care are required.
69
AALAS requirements for Certified Manager of Animal Resources (CMAR)
HS/GED: 10 years total, 3 years managerial AA/AS: 8 years total, 3 years managerial BA/BS: 5 years total, 3 years managerial
70
What are transmitted by Culex, Aedes, and Anopheles mosquitoes?
Culex - WNV Aedes - Dengue, yellow fever Anopheles - Malaria
71
Ebola Reston is endemically associated with animals located within which country?
Philippines (outbreak in Maryland with NHPs from here)
72
Viral family and host species for Hepatitis A and E
Hep A = Picornaviridae - host = NHPs especially chimps Hep E = Hepeviridae - host = swine
73
What immune cell mediates Type IV hypersensitivity?
T cells
74
How to convert between Fahrenheit and Celcius
(___°F − 32) × 5/9 = ___°C
75
What is capsid structure (helical or icosahedral) for DNA viruses, RNA viruses, and naked viruses?
DNA viruses all icosahedral RNA viruses can be either Naked viruses all icosahedral
76
How many years of experience needed for experience route for ACLAM certification?
6 years
77
For AALAS certifications, 0.5 years in a non-lab animal environment = ___ of lab animal experience.
1 month
78
What is the herpesvirus GENUS for the following: Macacine herpesvirus 1 Cercopithecine herpesvirus 9 Macacine herpesvirus 4 Porcine lymphotrophic herpesvirus
Alpha: Simplexvirus Varicellovirus (simian varicella virus) Gamma: Lymphocryptovirus (rhesus lymphocryptovirus) Macavirus
79
What is mechanism of action of buprenorphine?
Partial mu agonist, kappa ***antagonist***

ACLAM Boards Prep (21 decks)

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