Midterm 3 (2) Flashcards

1
Q

Porcine transmissible gastroenteritis (TGE) is completely eradicated in Europe

A

False

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2
Q

TGE causes 100% mortality in sows

A

False

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3
Q

Porcine respiratory coronavirus causes acute pneumonia in susceptible piglets

A

False

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4
Q

The incubation time of TGE is usually 5-7 days

A

False

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5
Q

TGE virus infects the digestive and the respiratory systems

A

True

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6
Q

Porcine epidemic diarrhea virus can cause disease in humans

A

False

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7
Q

Certain bovine coronaviruses can cause diarrhea in children

A

False

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8
Q

The virus causing porcine epidemic diarrhoea can replicate in the heart muscle of the foetus

A

False

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9
Q

Canine coronavirus (CCOV-1) causes diarrhea in young, susceptible dogs

A

True

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10
Q

Pantropic canine coronavirus infections are endemic worldwide

A

False

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11
Q

Feline enteric coronavirus (FECOV) can only infect Felidae

A

True

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12
Q

Germinative route is the most important in the transmission of infectious bronchitis

A

False

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13
Q

Reverse transcriptase is an important enzyme of retroviruses

A

True

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14
Q

Retroviruses results in lifelong infection

A

True

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15
Q

Retroviruses replicate mainly in the endothelial cells

A

False

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16
Q

Several retroviruses can cause malignant transformation in the hosts

A

True

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17
Q

Enzootic bovine leukosis virus has several serotypes and subtypes

A

False

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18
Q

Enzootic bovine leukosis can spread by air within the herd

A

True

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19
Q

Enzootic bovine leukosis can spread by the veterinarian

A

True

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20
Q

Clinical signs of enzootic bovine leukosis can be seen in 6-8 months old calves

A

False

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21
Q

Avian leukosis viruses can cause malignant transformation in different tissues

A

True

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22
Q

Germinative infection is an important way of transmission of avian leukosis virus

A

True

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23
Q

Clinical signs of avian leukosis can be seen typically in broiler chicken

A

False

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24
Q

Osteopetrosis can be a clinical form of avian leukosis

A

True

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25
Q

Maedi/visna is spreading slowly in the flock

A

True

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26
Q

Maedi/visna virus is shed in the milk

A

True

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27
Q

Maedi is seen in 3-4 years old sheep

A

True

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28
Q

Large amount of mucoid nasal discharge is typical in the case of maedi

A

False

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29
Q

Equine infectious anaemia virus is resistant, it can survive several months in the environment

A

True

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30
Q

Only Equidae are susceptible to equine infectious anemia virus

A

True

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31
Q

Ticks are vectors of equine infectious anemia virus

A

False

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32
Q

Febrile waves can be seen in equine infectious anaemias

A

True

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33
Q

Scrapie is spreading with per os infection

A

True

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34
Q

Genetic predisposition is needed for scrapie to develop

A

True

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35
Q

Atypical scrapie strains can cause the same clinical signs as typical scrapie

A

Flase

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36
Q

Scrapie can be prevented with live vaccines

A

False

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37
Q

Capsule is a virulence factor of B. anthracis

A

True

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38
Q

Cattle are infected with B. anthracis mainly from the soil

A

True

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39
Q

Pigs are more susceptible to B. anthracis than sheep

A

False

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40
Q

Anthrax is a per-acute or acute diseases in cattle

A

True

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41
Q

Bradsot occurs mainly late autumn and winter

A

True

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42
Q

Overeating can predispose the animals to bradsot

A

False

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43
Q

Thickening of and edema in the stomach wall are typical lesions of bradsot

A

True

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44
Q

Aminoglycosides are successfully used for treatment in the case of bradsot

A

False

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45
Q

Bacillary hemoglobinuria is caused by Clostridium septicum

A

False

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46
Q

Jaundice and anemia are important clinical signs of bacillary haemoglobinuria

A

True

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47
Q

Red urine is a typical clinical sign of bacillary haemoglobinuria

A

True

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48
Q

Phospholipase C is an important virulence factor, of the agent of bacillary haemoglobinuria

A

True

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49
Q

Overeating is a predisposing factor of pulpy kidney disease

A

True

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50
Q

Pulpy kidney disease is caused by Clostridium chauvoei

A

False

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51
Q

Neurological signs are typical in the case of pulpy kidney disease

A

True

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52
Q

Isolation of the agent is necessary to the diagnosis of pulpy kidney disease

A

False

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53
Q

Streptococcus suis can cause generalized septicemia in 1-4-week-old piglets

A

True

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54
Q

Calcium deficiency can predispose suckling piglets to streptococcosis

A

False

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55
Q

Neurological signs are frequent in the case of porcine streptococcosis

A

True

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56
Q

Abscesses in the liver frequently seen in the case of porcine streptococcosis.

A

True

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57
Q

Erysipelas can be seen only in pigs.

A

False

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58
Q

Neuraminidase is a virulence factor of the agent of erysipelas

A

True

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59
Q

High fever is a typical clinical sign of acute swine erysipelas

A

True

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60
Q

Caseous lymphadenitis of sheep is mainly seen in suckling lambs

A

False

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61
Q

Polymyxins are used for the treatment of erysipelas

A

False

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62
Q

The causative agent of caseous lymphadenitis of sheep is Corynebacterium pseudotuberculosis

A

True

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63
Q

Lesions of caseous lymphadenitis of sheep can be seen only in the lymph nodes

A

False

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64
Q

Caseous lymphadenitis can occur only in sheep

A

False

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65
Q

TGEV is widespread and fully replaced porcine epidemic diarrhea (PED) virus

A

False

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66
Q

Porcine respiratory coronavirus induces cross-protection against PED

A

False

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67
Q

Today TGE occurs in an enzootic form

A

True

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68
Q

The characteristic symptoms of TGE are vomiting and diarrhea

A

True

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69
Q

Porcine respiratory coronavirus reduced the prevalence of porcine epidemic diarrhea

A

False

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70
Q

Bovine coronaviruses usually infect the respiratory and the digestive systems

A

True

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71
Q

Feline enteric coronaviruses may infect dogs

A

False

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72
Q

Feline infectious peritonitis viruses form a single serotype

A

False

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73
Q

Canine respiratory coronavirus infection results cross-protection against CCOV-I

A

False

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74
Q

Pantropic canine coronavirus causes a mild respiratory disease in suckling dogs

A

False

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75
Q

Feline enteric coronavirus infection usually causes sudden death of queens

A

False

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76
Q

Infectious bronchitis viruses belong into 3 distinct serotypes

A

False

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77
Q

Retroviruses are generally species specific

A

True

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78
Q

Retroviruses are generally resistant, they can survive in the environment for several weeks

A

False

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79
Q

Retroviruses frequently cause permanent infection

A

True

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80
Q

Retroviruses are generally stable viruses, mutations are very rare

A

False

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81
Q

Enzootic bovine leukosis virus cannot result tumor formation

A

False

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82
Q

Serological examinations cannot be used to the diagnosis of enzootic bovine leukosis

A

False

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83
Q

Immune tolerance can happen in the case of enzootic bovine leukosis

A

True

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84
Q

Selection cannot be used for eradication of enzootic bovine leukosis

A

False

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85
Q

Ovine pulmonary adenomatosis occurs only in South Africa

A

False

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86
Q

Metastases are rare in the case of ovine pulmonary adenomatosis

A

True

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87
Q

Ovine pulmonary adenomatosis virus has no onc-gen

A

True

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88
Q

Ovine pulmonary adenomatosis is prevented with inactivated vaccines

A

False

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89
Q

Caprine arthritis encephalitis virus is shed in the milk

A

True

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90
Q

In the case of caprine arthritis encephalitis the signs of encephalitis can be seen in 2-4 month old kids

A

True

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91
Q

In the case of caprine arthritis encephalitis, arthritis is less frequent than encephalitis

A

False

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92
Q

Kids are recommended to be isolated in a herd where caprine arthritis encephalitis is present

A

True

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93
Q

Only horses are susceptible to Borna disease virus

A

False

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94
Q

Borna disease virus is spreading from cell to cell

A

True

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95
Q

Mainly central nervous clinical signs can be seen in the case of Borna disease

A

True

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96
Q

The lethality of Borna disease is low

A

False

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97
Q

BSE is spreading fast in the infected herd

A

False

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98
Q

Clinical signs of BSE can be seen mainly in 1-1.5 years old cattle

A

False

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99
Q

Cattle with BSE become aggressive

A

True

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100
Q

Cattle with BSE have movement difficulties

A

True

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101
Q

Colic is a typical clinical sign of anthrax in horses

A

True

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102
Q

Incomplete clotting of the blood is a typical post mortem lesion of anthrax

A

True

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103
Q

Anthrax can be diagnosed with microscopic examination of blood

A

True

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104
Q

Inactivated vaccines are used for the prevention of anthrax

A

False

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105
Q

Blackleg occurs mainly in ruminants

A

True

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106
Q

Blackleg is caused by C. septicum

A

False

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107
Q

Edema is a typical clinical sign of blackleg

A

True

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108
Q

Live vaccines are used for the prevention of blackleg

A

False

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109
Q

Clostridium enterotoxaemia of piglets is caused by C. perfringens

A

True

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110
Q

C. Clostridium enterotoxaemia of piglets occurs in 2-4 days old piglets

A

True

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111
Q

Clostridium enterotoxaemia of piglets is more frequent in the case of first farrowing sows

A

True

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112
Q

Lesions of Clostridium enterotoxaemia of piglets are seen in the large intestine

A

False

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113
Q

Botulism can be seen as a result of a wound infection

A

False

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114
Q

Flaccid paralysis is the main clinical sign of botulism

A

True

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115
Q

Birds are resistant to botulism

A

False

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116
Q

Necrotic foci in the liver are typical post mortem lesions of botulism

A

False

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117
Q

Some extracellular enzymes are virulence factors of Staphylococci

A

True

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118
Q

Hemolysins are virulence factors of Staphylococci

A

True

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119
Q

Endotoxins are virulence factors of Staphylococci

A

False

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120
Q

Protein A is a virulence factor of Staphylococci

A

True

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121
Q

Listeria are soil bacteria

A

True

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122
Q

Infected silage can be the source of listeria

A

True

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123
Q

Listeria are spreading fast from animal to animal

A

False

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124
Q

Abortion is the most typical clinical sign of listeriosis in sheep

A

False

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125
Q

Corynebacterium renale is the causative agent of bovine purulent nephritis

A

True

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126
Q

Bovine purulent nephritis is mainly seen in suckling calves

A

False

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127
Q

Hematuria can happen in the case of bovine purulent nephritis

A

True

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128
Q

Penicillin is used for the treatment of bovine purulent nephritis

A

True

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129
Q

Avian Leukosis virus is uniform

A

False

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130
Q

Every avian leukosis viruses is oncogenic

A

True

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131
Q

Avian leukosis virus cannot infect by germinative way

A

False

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132
Q

Avian leukosis virus infects B lymphocytes

A

True

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133
Q

Bovine spongiform encephalopathy spread fast in the herd

A

False

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134
Q

Bovine spongiform encephalopathy symptoms are in 1-1.5 years old cows

A

False

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135
Q

Bovine spongiform encephalopathy symptoms: e.g. ataxia

A

True

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136
Q

For Bovine spongiform encephalopathy laboratory examination, we use ELISA

A

True

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137
Q

Transmissible Mink encephalopathy can be transmitted by eating infected meat

A

True

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138
Q

Transmissible Mink encephalopathy symptoms: being anxious

A

True

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139
Q

Creutzfeldt Jakob syndrome is a new type of Bovine spongiform encephalopathy in humans

A

True

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140
Q

In Bovine spongiform encephalopathy the meat contains high number of prions

A

True

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141
Q

Bacillus anthracis main virulence factor is in the capsule

A

True

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142
Q

The edema factor is an important virulence factor in bacillus anthracis

A

True

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143
Q

Bacillus anthracis spores: after 1 hour of boiling they are still alive

A

True

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144
Q

Bacillus anthracis makes spores only without oxygen

A

False

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145
Q

Anthrax important symptom is high fever

A

True

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146
Q

If the animals have Anthrax and they have a fever, you have to vaccinate them immediately

A

False

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147
Q

For anthrax we use inactive vaccine

A

False

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148
Q

Humans infected with Anthrax, primarily per os

A

False

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149
Q

Blackleg is caused by Clostridium septicum

A

False

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150
Q

Blackleg is mainly in ruminants

A

True

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151
Q

Blackleg infects ovine through wounds

A

True

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152
Q

In Blackleg disease we use attenuated vaccine

A

False

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153
Q

Lamb dysentery is found in 3-4-week-old lambs

A

False

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154
Q

Lamb dysentery is caused by Clostridium perfringens B

A

True

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155
Q

Pathological lesions of Lamb dysentery starts in the colon

A

False

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156
Q

We can culture the pathogen of Lamb dysentery from the intestines

A

True

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157
Q

The tetanus toxin cleaves synaptobrevin

A

True

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158
Q

The main symptom of tetanus is flaccid paralysis

A

False

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159
Q

For tetanus we use vaccines which contain toxoid

A

True

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160
Q

Morel’s disease we find in suckling lambs

A

False

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161
Q

In Morel’s disease we find abscesses in the subcutis.

A

True

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162
Q

If the ammonia level in the air is high it increases the susceptibility of rabbits to staphylococcus

A

True

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163
Q

In rabbit staphylococcosis: one symptom is otitis

A

True

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164
Q

Listeria ivanovii causes listeriosis in animals

A

True

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165
Q

Listeriosis spreads from animal to animal and causes high mortality

A

False

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166
Q

Listeriosis causes neurological symptoms in sheep

A

True

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167
Q

Listeriosis can infect rodents

A

True

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168
Q

Distemper virus infects only dogs

A

False

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169
Q

Newcastle disease virus velogen viscerotop and neurotrop causes neurological signs

A

True

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170
Q

Bovine respiratory syntitial virus is caused by pneumovirus and we use inactivated vaccines for prevention

A

True

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171
Q

In avian metapneumovirus infection the egg production drops/decreases

A

True

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172
Q

Equine viral arteritis causes reproductive problems/impotence in stallions

A

True

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173
Q

Acute equine viral arteritis is similar to Equine infectious anemia

A

True

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174
Q

PRRSV attacks the active macrophages

A

True

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175
Q

For PRRS prevention we can get a very good immunization with inactivated vaccines

A

False

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176
Q

TGE infects only swine

A

False

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177
Q

Porcine respiratory coronavirus induces cross protection from TGE

A

True

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178
Q

Porcine epidemic diarrhea virus causes more severe symptoms in adult than in young piglets

A

False

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179
Q

Bovine corona virus causes diarrhea in adult animals mainly in summer

A

False

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180
Q

In the background of FIP can be immunopathological processes

A

True

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181
Q

FIP causes infection only in cats younger than 1 year of age

A

False

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182
Q

Dog enteral coronavirus: some strains can cause hemorrhagic diseases in some visceral organs

A

True

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183
Q

Infectious bronchitis virus damages the ovaries only in hens

A

False

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184
Q

Vesicular stomatitis virus is found all over the world

A

False

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185
Q

Vesicular stomatitis virus: horse is sensitive

A

True

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186
Q

Vesicular stomatitis virus spreads with insects

A

True

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187
Q

After recovery of VSV there will be a permanent immunity

A

True

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188
Q

Rabies virus does not penetrate the blood vessels

A

False

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189
Q

Rabies: one of the important symptoms is the change of behavior

A

True

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190
Q

Rabies: one important symptom is paralysis

A

True

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191
Q

In silent/calm rabies the dogs cannot bark

A

True

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192
Q

In rabies we find purulent encephalitis in negri-bodies

A

True

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193
Q

With immunofluorescence test we can diagnose rabies

A

True

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194
Q

We can diagnose rabies by antibody detection test

A

True

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195
Q

When an animal which is infected with rabies virus attacks another dog, it should be vaccinated immediately

A

False

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196
Q

Bovine enzootic leukosis infect only bovine

A

False

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197
Q

Bovine enzootic leukosis does not spread with excretion

A

False

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198
Q

Bovine enzootic leukosis spreads slow in the herd

A

True

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199
Q

Bovine enzootic leukosis can be transmitted by blood

A

True

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200
Q

Ovine pulmonary adenomatosis spreads with nasal discharge

A

True

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201
Q

The primary replication site of OPA is in the mucosal cells of the intestines

A

False

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202
Q

Metastasis are frequently seen in parenchymal in the case of OPA

A

False

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203
Q

Ovine pulmonary adenomatosis virus is found in 2-4 months old lambs

A

False

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204
Q

Feline leukosis virus is uniform

A

False

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205
Q

In the saliva of cats is a high-titer of FeLV

A

True

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206
Q

FeLV spreads horizontally and vertically

A

True

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207
Q

Persistent infected cats maintain the FeLV infection

A

True

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208
Q

Maedi/visna spreads from sheep to other animals

A

True

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209
Q

Maedi/visna virus is shed in nasal discharge, respiratory secretions and milk

A

True

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210
Q

Clinical sign of maedi/visna appear from the age of 6-8 month

A

False

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211
Q

Meadi/visna most important clinical sign is profuse diarrhea

A

False

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212
Q

Chronic prion has no nucleic acid inside

A

True

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213
Q

Infective prions are resistant to proteases

A

True

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214
Q

Chronic prion is inactivated by boiling

A

False

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215
Q

Chronic prion form has other form than normal prions

A

True

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216
Q

Scrapie sensitivity depends on genotype of sheep

A

True

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217
Q

Scrapie can be transmitted between sheep in a flock

A

True

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218
Q

Itching is always a clinical sign of scrapie

A

False

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219
Q

In scrapie we can observe lameness

A

False

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220
Q

Bacillus anthracis, herbivores are especially susceptible

A

True

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221
Q

Bacillus anthracis is not in pig

A

False

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222
Q

Anthrax spreads rapidly in a herd

A

False

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223
Q

Anthrax is per-acute and acute in bovine

A

True

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224
Q

Bacillus anthracis is in the soil

A

True

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225
Q

In anthrax, tracheitis common in carnivores

A

False

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226
Q

Anthrax causes necrotic foci in liver

A

True

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227
Q

Anthrax diagnosis with blood/staining

A

True

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228
Q

Clostridium is anaerobe spore forming bacteria

A

True

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229
Q

Clostridium bacteria is not in the environment, because it cannot tolerate oxygen

A

False

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230
Q

Clostridium spreads usually rapid in a herd

A

False

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231
Q

Clostridium spread mostly with insecticides

A

False

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232
Q

Malignant edema is caused due to wound infection

A

True

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233
Q

Malignant edema is only in ruminants

A

False

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234
Q

Malignant edema, one of the clinical signs is lameness/movement problems

A

True

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235
Q

Malignant edema, attenuated vaccine for prevention

A

False

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236
Q

In sheep, Clostridium septicum causes necrotic liver infection

A

False

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237
Q

Liver flukes can predispose to infectious necrotic hepatitis

A

True

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238
Q

Infectious necrotic hepatitis causes inflammation and necrotic nodules in the liver

A

True

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239
Q

There is no vaccine to prevent infectious necrotic hepatitis

A

False

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240
Q

Exudative dermatitis can be seen in suckling piglets

A

True

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241
Q

Exudative dermatitis is caused by Staphylococcus aureus

A

False

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242
Q

Exudative dermatitis is characterized by crust formation

A

True

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243
Q

Exudative dermatitis has high mortality

A

False

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244
Q

In Erysipelas the toxin is the virulence factor

A

True

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245
Q

Diamond skin disease is caused by Erysipelothrix rhusiopathiae

A

True

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246
Q

Erysipelas affects only pigs

A

False

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247
Q

Chronic form of erysipelas can cause skin necrosis

A

True

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248
Q

Distemper can cause abortion

A

True

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249
Q

Swollen head syndrome (SHS) caused by avian metapneumonia virus

A

True

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250
Q

Equine viral arteritis in mare is reactivated in pregnancy

A

False

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251
Q

Equine viral arteritis, aborted embryos have degenerated liver

A

False

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252
Q

PRRS: reproductive and respiratory problems and others with other virulence

A

True

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253
Q

Maternal immunity protects only short time against PRRS

A

True

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254
Q

TGE virus causes high morbidity

A

True

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255
Q

Swine pulmonary corona virus has a high mortality by pneumonia

A

False

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256
Q

Hemagglutination encephalomyelitis virus infects young pigs

A

True

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257
Q

Bovine corona virus can cause respiratory problems

A

True

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258
Q

Feline corona virus does not have a long infection/carrier time

A

False

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259
Q

Canine respiratory coronavirus infection results cross-protection against CCoV-114

A

False

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260
Q

Infectious bronchitis virus can cause renal problems

A

True

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261
Q

Turkey corona virus does not cause strong diarrhea and causes no necrosis

A

False

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262
Q

Vesicular stomatitis can be generalized

A

True

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263
Q

Vesicular stomatitis can cause vesicles on the foot

A

True

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264
Q

Only ruminants can have vesicular stomatitis

A

False

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265
Q

Vesicular stomatitis: animals can recover

A

True

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266
Q

Rabies is a uniform virus

A

False

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267
Q

Rabies is a resistant virus

A

False

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268
Q

Warm blooded animals can be infected with rabies

A

True

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269
Q

Rabies can be transmitted only by saliva

A

False

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270
Q

Fox rabies: we can use live vaccines

A

True

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271
Q

Since 2002 rabies is eradicated from Hungary

A

False

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272
Q

Humans can be infected by Rabies bite

A

True

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273
Q

Humans can be infected by Rabies during organ transplants

A

True

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274
Q

Retrovirus has weak resistance

A

True

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275
Q

Retrovirus has a wide host spectrum

A

True

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276
Q

Retrovirus has a good immunogenicity

A

True

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277
Q

Retrovirus infection is long-lasting

A

True

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278
Q

Bovine leukosis virus can give lifelong carriers

A

True

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279
Q

Bovine leukosis virus causes seropositivity in latency period

A

True

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280
Q

Enzootic bovine leukosis the pre-tumor phase usually in 6-10 months old animals

A

False

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281
Q

Enzootic bovine leukosis during pre-tumor phase causes lymphocytosis

A

True

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282
Q

Feline leukosis virus can cause protective immunity

A

True

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283
Q

In Feline leukosis, anemia is an important sign

A

True

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284
Q

Cat leukosis virus can be diagnosed with PCR

A

True

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285
Q

There is no vaccine against Feline leukosis virus

A

False

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286
Q

Feline leukosis can infect dogs and cats

A

False

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287
Q

Asymptomatic infection cannot happen in the case of Feline leukosis

A

False

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288
Q

The natural hosts of Influenza A viruses are humans

A

False

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289
Q

Certain antiviral drugs can inhibit the M2 ion channels of the Influenza A virus

A

True

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290
Q

The amino acid sequence of the protease cleavage site of the Influenza A virus hemagglutinin may influence the virulence

A

True

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291
Q

At least 9 different serotypes of Influenza A virus neuraminidase are known so far

A

True

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292
Q

In horses predominantly H3N8 Influenza A virus strains can cause disease

A

True

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293
Q

It is forbidden to use antibiotics for the treatment of influenza in horses

A

False

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294
Q

Swine adapted influenza A viruses cannot cause disease in humans

A

False

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295
Q

The vaccination of poultry against avian influenza is mandatory

A

False

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296
Q

Bovine parainfluenza virus 3 is frequently endemic in cattle farms

A

True

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297
Q

It is mandatory to vaccinate cattle against Rinderpest

A

False

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298
Q

Erosive lesions in the oral cavity are frequent signs of Peste des petits ruminants

A

True

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299
Q

Nowadays Rinderpest virus is used as heterologous vaccine against the PPR virus

A

False

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300
Q

Dogs infected with Canine distemper virus usually become life-long carriers and shedders

A

False

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301
Q

Clinical manifestation of the Canine distemper is mainly seen in 3-4 months-old dogs

A

True

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302
Q

Canine parainfluenza virus 2 frequently causes encephalitis in old dogs

A

False

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303
Q

Feline morbillivirus infection may be associated with tubulo-interstitial nephritis in cats

A

True

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304
Q

Wild birds may be reservoir hosts of influenza viruses

A

True

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305
Q

Wild birds may be reservoir hosts of the Newcastle disease virus

A

True

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306
Q

Wild birds may be reservoir hosts of avian metapneumoviruses

A

True

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307
Q

Wild birds may be reservoir hosts of the Nipah-viruses

A

False

308
Q

Transmissible gastroenteritis is the more severe in piglets than in adult swine

A

True

309
Q

Porcine respiratory coronavirus is a modification of the Hemagglutinating encephalomyelitis virus

A

False

310
Q

Porcine epidemic diarrhea is present only in Africa and in the Middle East

A

False

311
Q

Hemagglutinating encephalomyelitis virus is typically vectored by mosquitoes

A

False

312
Q

Bovine coronaviruses can cause diarrhea only in calves up to one month of age

A

False

313
Q

Canine coronaviruses frequently cause encephalitis and hepatitis in puppies

A

False

314
Q

Feline infectious peritonitis (FIP) develops only in adult cats (over 1 year of age)

A

False

315
Q

Decreased serum albumin/globulin ratio may indicate FIP

A

True

316
Q

Mares are frequently life-long carriers of the Equine arteritis virus

A

False

317
Q

Subcutaneous edema is a frequent sign of equine viral arteritis

A

True

318
Q

Porcine reproductive and respiratory virus (PRRSV) can cause abortion only in the advanced stage of pregnancy (over 90 days)

A

False

319
Q

Only inactivated vaccines can be used for the prevention against PRRSV

A

False

320
Q

Rhabdoviruses are very resistant and they can survive in the environment for several weeks

A

False

321
Q

Vesicular stomatitis occurs in America

A

True

322
Q

The host range of vesicular stomatitis and foot and mouth disease is the same

A

False

323
Q

Sand flies and midges can transmit vesicular stomatitis virus

A

True

324
Q

Urban form of rabies is maintained by dogs and cats

A

True

325
Q

Rabies virus is spreading in the infected animals peri-neural

A

Flase

326
Q

Rabies virus is shed in the saliva, before appearance of the clinical signs

A

True

327
Q

The incubation of rabies is generally less than one week

A

False

328
Q

Retroviruses show high host specificity

A

True

329
Q

Retroviruses are generally not carried for more than a month

A

False

330
Q

Malignant transformation is a frequent consequence of retrovirus infection

A

True

331
Q

Retroviruses generally cannot survive in the environment for a long time

A

True

332
Q

Infection of poultry herds with avian leukosis virus is widespread

A

True

333
Q

Clinical signs of avian leukosis generally appear in day old chicken

A

False

334
Q

Lymphoid leukosis is the most frequent form of avian leukosis

A

True

335
Q

The main way of prevention of avian leukosis is vaccination using attenuated strains

A

False

336
Q

Equine infectious anemia is a vector borne disease

A

True

337
Q

Equine infectious anemia virus causes persistent infection

A

True

338
Q

There is no immune reaction in the case of equine infectious anemia

A

False

339
Q

Equine infectious anemia is zoonotic

A

False

340
Q

Scrapie occurs only in Britain and Ireland

A

False

341
Q

There is genetic predisposition in the case of Scrapie

A

True

342
Q

Scrapie prion is shed by the infected animals in different discharges

A

True

343
Q

Itching is a frequent clinical sign of scrapie

A

True

344
Q

Anthrax cannot be seen in Europe any more

A

False

345
Q

Capsule is a virulence factor of the agent of anthrax

A

True

346
Q

Carbon dioxide is needed to the spore formation of the agent of anthrax

A

False

347
Q

Pigs are more susceptible to the agent of anthrax than sheep

A

False

348
Q

Clostridium channel is the agent of malignant edema

A

False

349
Q

Malignant edema is generally a consequence of a wound infection

A

True

350
Q

Frozen food is a predisposing factor of Bradsot

A

True

351
Q

Classical swine fever is a predisposing factor of Köves disease

A

True

352
Q

Lamb dysentery can be seen in lambs around weaning

A

False

353
Q

Lesions of lamb dysentery can be seen in the small intestine

A

True

354
Q

Isolation of Clostridium perfringens from the gut confirms the diagnosis of lamb dysentery

A

True

355
Q

Lambs have to be vaccinated with attenuated vaccine in order to prevent lamb dysentery

A

True

356
Q

Staphylococcosis in rabbits typically occurs in newborn rabbits

A

False

357
Q

Aerogenic infection is common in the case of staphylococcosis of rabbits

A

True

358
Q

Arthritis can be a clinical sign of staphylococcosis of rabbits

A

True

359
Q

Abscess formation can be a clinical sign of staphylococcosis of rabbits

A

True

360
Q

Neuraminidase is a virulence factor of Erysipelothrix rhusiopathiae

A

True

361
Q

Erysipelothrix rhusiopathiae can be carried and shed by asymptomatic pigs

A

True

362
Q

Only pigs can be infected with Erysipelothrix rhusiopathiae

A

False

363
Q

Purulent pneumonia is a typical clinical form of acute erysipelas

A

False

364
Q

Ulcerative lymphangitis of horses is caused by nitrate negative strains of Corynebacterium pseudotuberculosis

A

False

365
Q

Ulcerative lymphangitis of horses can be a consequence of umbilical infection

A

True

366
Q

Abscess formation can be seen in the case of ulcerative lymphangitis of horses

A

Ture

367
Q

Ulcerative lymphangitis of horses is typically an acute disease

A

False

368
Q

Influenza viruses are sensitive to detergents

A

True

369
Q

Certain antiviral drugs can inhibit the Influenza A virus neuraminidase activity

A

True

370
Q

At least 16 different serotypes of Influenza A virus haemagglutinin are known so far

A

True

371
Q

The antigenic structure of influenza viruses is very stable

A

False

372
Q

Racing horses must be yearly vaccinated against equine influenza

A

True

373
Q

In dogs mainly H3N8 strains can cause influenza

A

True

374
Q

Waterfowl are more sensitive to avian influenza than chicken and turkey

A

False

375
Q

Highly pathogen avian influenza strains, may cause encephalitis in birds

A

True

376
Q

The Peste des petits ruminants are endemic in North- and South America

A

False

377
Q

The Canine distemper virus can infect only dogs

A

False

378
Q

The outcome of Canine distemper virus infection is very much influenced by the immune response of the dog in utero

A

True

379
Q

Canine distemper virus may result in abortion

A

True

380
Q

The virulence of Newcastle disease strains can be determined by sequence analysis of certain genes

A

True

381
Q

Newcastle disease virus cannot survive long in the environment

A

False

382
Q

Newcastle disease virus is typically vectored by ticks

A

False

383
Q

Only inactivated vaccines can be used against Newcastle disease virus

A

False

384
Q

Parainfluenza virus 2 infection is frequent in the aetiology of kennel cough

A

False

385
Q

The natural hosts of Hendra-viruses are flying foxes (Pteropus bats)

A

True

386
Q

Hendra-viruses can cause encephalitis in horses and in humans

A

True

387
Q

Avian metapneumoviruses can cause respiratory signs and egg production problems

A

True

388
Q

Porcine respiratory coronavirus infection usually provides cross-protection from Transmissible gastroenteritis virus infection

A

True

389
Q

Transmissible gastroenteritis virus can infect only swine

A

False

390
Q

Bovine coronaviruses may cause respiratory signs in calves

A

True

391
Q

Canine alphacoronavirus type II may cause hemorrhagic disease in 1-2-month-old pups

A

True

392
Q

Feline enteric coronavirus usually causes severe, hemorrhagic enteritis in kittens

A

False

393
Q

Cell-mediated hypersensitivity plays a major role in the background of non-effusive feline infectious peritonitis

A

True

394
Q

Infectious bronchitis virus can cause inflammatory lesions in the oviduct of chicken

A

True

395
Q

Infections bronchitis virus vaccines are used against turkey enteritis

A

False

396
Q

Pregnant mares usually abort in the acute phase of equine viral arteritis

A

True

397
Q

Equine viral arteritis is diagnosed by agarose-gel immunodiffusion (Coggins test)

A

False

398
Q

Porcine reproductive and respiratory virus (PRRSV) propagates in lymphatic cells

A

True

399
Q

PRRSV infection may influence the reproductive performance of boars

A

True

400
Q

In the case of vesicular stomatitis vesicles are formed only at the place of entry of the virus

A

False

401
Q

Salivation is a clinical sign of vesicular stomatitis

A

True

402
Q

Vesicular stomatitis cannot be prevented with vaccines

A

False

403
Q

Vesicular stomatitis is zoonotic

A

True

404
Q

The rabies virus is a uniform virus without serotypes, genotypes, subtypes etc

A

False

405
Q

Only carnivorous animals are susceptible to rabies virus

A

False

406
Q

High amount of rabies virus is shed in the saliva

A

True

407
Q

Sylvatic rabies is maintained by foxes in Europe

A

True

408
Q

Bovine enzootic leukosis virus can be transmitted with lymphoid cells

A

True

409
Q

Iatrogenic infection is frequent in the epidemiology of bovine enzootic leukosis

A

True

410
Q

The target cells of the bovine enzootic leukosis virus are the T-lymphocytes

A

False

411
Q

The typical signs of bovine enzootic leukosis can be seen in cattle under 1 year of age

A

False

412
Q

All avian leukosis viruses are oncogenic

A

False

413
Q

Avian leukosis viruses are shed in the feces

A

True

414
Q

There is no germinative infection in the case of avian leukosis viruses

A

False

415
Q

The target cells of the avian leukosis viruses are the B lymphocytes

A

False

416
Q

Borna disease is widespread all over the world

A

False

417
Q

Only horses are susceptible to Borna disease virus

A

False

418
Q

Pneumonia is the main clinical sign of Borna disease

A

False

419
Q

Most animals showing clinical signs of Borna disease die due to it

A

True

420
Q

Infective prions are resistant to proteases

A

True

421
Q

Only a few animals show clinical signs of BSE in an infected herd

A

True

422
Q

BSE prions are shed in the feces and it is transmitted to other cattle in the herd

A

False

423
Q

The incubation time of BSE is 3-5 years

A

True

424
Q

Anthrax cannot occur in dogs and cats

A

False

425
Q

Bacillus anthracis generally infects animals per os

A

True

426
Q

Anthrax is an acute or per-acute disease in cattle

A

True

427
Q

Anthrax cannot be prevented with vaccination

A

False

428
Q

Blackleg is caused by Clostridium septicum

A

False

429
Q

In the case of sheep, blackleg is generally consequence of a wound infection

A

True

430
Q

Edema in the muscles is a typical clinical sign of blackleg

A

True

431
Q

Attenuated vaccines are used for the prevention of blackleg

A

False

432
Q

Tetanus occurs only in horses

A

False

433
Q

The tetanus toxin cleaves the synaptobrevin

A

True

434
Q

The clinical signs of tetanus are inducible

A

True

435
Q

Tetanus cannot be prevented with vaccination

A

False

436
Q

Extracellular enzymes are important virulence factors of pathogenic Staphylococci

A

True

437
Q

Morel’s disease is mainly seen in suckling lambs

A

False

438
Q

Diarrhea is the main clinical sign of Morel’s disease

A

False

439
Q

Isolation of the agent from lesions of Morel’s disease confirms the diagnosis

A

True

440
Q

Listeriosis can only be seen in sheep

A

False

441
Q

Abortion is the most frequent form of listeriosis in sheep

A

False

442
Q

Aerogen infection is the most important form of infection with Listeria in sheep

A

False

443
Q

Listeriosis is spreading fast from one animal to the other

A

False

444
Q

Caseous lymphadenitis is caused by nitrate positive strains of Corynebacterium pseudotuberculosis

A

False

445
Q

Caseous lymphadenitis is only seen in suckling lambs

A

False

446
Q

Arthritis can be a clinical sign of caseous lymphadenitis

A

True

447
Q

Vaccination can be used for the prevention of caseous lymphadenitis

A

True

448
Q

The mortality caused by transmissible gastroenteritis of swine is the highest among old sows

A

False

449
Q

Transmissible gastroenteritis of swine is a widespread disease, causing high losses in Europe

A

False

450
Q

Pulmonary coronavirus provides cross protection to the virus of transmissible gastroenteritis of swine

A

True

451
Q

The lesions of transmissible gastroenteritis of swine are in the gastric mucosa and in the small intestine

A

True

452
Q

Infectious bronchitis virus can cause severe respiratory signs in young chicken

A

True

453
Q

Infectious bronchitis virus can damage the oviduct

A

True

454
Q

Infectious bronchitis can spread very slowly in the flock causing chronic disease

A

False

455
Q

There are no vaccines for the prevention of infectious bronchitis of chicken

A

False

456
Q

The Equine arteritis virus (EAV) may cause abortion in pregnant mares

A

True

457
Q

Vaccination of colts before puberty can prevent the development of EAV-carrier status

A

True

458
Q

Porcine reproductive and respiratory virus (PRRSV) is a zoonotic agent

A

False

459
Q

Porcine parvoviruses and PRRSV may cause similar disease in sows

A

True

460
Q

Rhabdoviruses are enveloped viruses

A

True

461
Q

Ephemeral fever occurs only in America

A

False

462
Q

The morbidity is high, the mortality is low in the case of ephemeral fever

A

True

463
Q

Drop of milk production is a common sign of ephemeral fever

A

True

464
Q

The causative agent of rabies is a uniform virus, without different types or groups

A

False

465
Q

The resistance of the rabies virus is good, it retains infectivity for several months in the environment

A

False

466
Q

All warm-blooded animals are susceptible to rabies virus

A

True

467
Q

Rabies virus is shed in high titre in the saliva

A

True

468
Q

Paralysis is a clinical sign of rabies

A

True

469
Q

Foxes are vaccinated with attenuated bait vaccine

A

True

470
Q

Cattle bitten by rabid animals may be vaccinated post exposition or slaughtered

A

True

471
Q

Humans can be infected with rabies, only by being bitten by rabid animals

A

False

472
Q

Retroviruses are enveloped viruses

A

True

473
Q

Retroviruses transcribe their nucleic acid to DNA

A

True

474
Q

Retroviruses generally have a wide host range

A

False

475
Q

Frequent genetic changes of retroviruses are common

A

True

476
Q

Antibodies against enzootic bovine leukosis virus can be detected in the ELISA test

A

True

477
Q

Antibodies against enzootic bovine leukosis virus can be detected in the milk

A

True

478
Q

Selection (test and slaughter) method cannot be used to eradicate enzootic bovine leukosis virus

A

False

479
Q

Generation shift method cannot be used to eradicate enzootic bovine leukosis virus

A

False

480
Q

Ovine pulmonary adenomatosis occurs only in South Africa

A

False

481
Q

Ovine pulmonary adenomatosis virus is replicating in the epithelium of the airways

A

True

482
Q

Tumors can frequently be seen in the liver and the spleen in the case of ovine pulmonary adenomatosis

A

False

483
Q

Ovine pulmonary adenomatosis can be complicated by Pasteurella and Mannheimia strains

A

True

484
Q

Maedi/visna virus is shed only in tracheal discharge

A

False

485
Q

Clinical signs of maedi are mainly seen in lambs below half a year of age

A

False

486
Q

Maedi/visna virus causes interstitial pneumonia in sheep

A

True

487
Q

Clinical signs of the central nervous system can be seen in the case of visna

A

True

488
Q

Prions contain protein and DNA

A

False

489
Q

Infective prions are resistant against proteases

A

True

490
Q

Mutations can result infective prions

A

False

491
Q

Infection with infective prions generally happens per os

A

False

492
Q

Bovine spongiform encephalopathy is widespread in Europe; it is common in most European countries

A

False

493
Q

Bovine spongiform encephalopathy is spreading fast within an infected herd

A

False

494
Q

The agent of bovine spongiform encephalopathy is not shed by the infected animals

A

True

495
Q

Antibodies against bovine spongiform encephalopathy are detected with ELISA

A

False

496
Q

The agent of anthrax can infect only herbivorous animals

A

False

497
Q

The agent of anthrax is not spreading from animal to animal

A

True

498
Q

There is a septicemia in cattle in the case of anthrax

A

True

499
Q

There are no vaccines for the prevention of anthrax

A

False

500
Q

Blackleg is mainly seen in ruminants

A

True

501
Q

Blackleg is caused by Clostridium chauvoei

A

True

502
Q

Severe diarrhea is the main clinical sign of blackleg

A

False

503
Q

Anaculture or anatoxin vaccines are used for the prevention of blackleg

A

True

504
Q

Infectious necrotic hepatitis is caused by Clostridium septicum

A

False

505
Q

Infectious necrotic hepatitis is mainly seen in suckling lambs

A

False

506
Q

Parasite infection is a frequent predisposing effect of infectious necrotic hepatitis

A

True

507
Q

Focal necrosis in the liver is a typical post mortem lesion of infectious necrotic hepatitis

A

True

508
Q

Pulpy kidney disease is caused by Clostridium perfringens D

A

True

509
Q

Pulpy kidney disease is typically seen in lambs below 2 weeks of age

A

False

510
Q

The toxin of the agent of pulpy kidney disease damages the endothelial cells

A

True

511
Q

Inactivated vaccines are used for the prevention of pulpy kidney disease

A

True

512
Q

Strangles is caused by Staphylococcus aureus subsp. aureus

A

False

513
Q

The morbidity of strangles is high, but the mortality is low

A

True

514
Q

Abscesses are the typical clinical signs of strangles

A

True

515
Q

Horses with strangles have to be treated with penicillin

A

True

516
Q

Hemolysins and leucocidins are important virulence factors of Staphylococci

A

True

517
Q

Morel’s disease can be seen in sheep and goats

A

True

518
Q

Morel’s disease can mainly be seen in suckling animals

A

False

519
Q

Abscesses and purulent inflammation are the typical lesions in the case of Morel’s disease

A

True

520
Q

Listeria can be found only in infected animals, they cannot survive in the environment

A

False

521
Q

Listeria are transmitted from animal to animal very fast in the infected flock

A

False

522
Q

The most frequent sign of bovine listeriosis is abortion

A

True

523
Q

There is widespread vaccination for the prevention of listeriosis

A

False

524
Q

Caseous lymphadenitis is caused by nitrate-negative Corynebacterium pseudotuberculosis strains

A

True

525
Q

Wound infection can predispose to caseous lymphadenitis

A

True

526
Q

Caseous lymphadenitis can be generalized in sheep

A

True

527
Q

Antibiotics cannot be used for the treatment of caseous lymphadenitis

A

False

528
Q

Coronaviruses are enveloped viruses

A

True

529
Q

Coronavirus diarrhea occurs in young calves between a few days and 3-4 weeks of age

A

True

530
Q

Coronaviruses cause winter diarrhea in dairy cows with hemorrhagic access

A

True

531
Q

There are no vaccines for the prevention of coronaviral diarrhea in cattle

A

False

532
Q

All species of Felidae are susceptible to feline coronaviruses

A

True

533
Q

Coronaviruses can cause asymptomatic infection in cats

A

True

534
Q

Feline coronaviruses can cause mild watery diarrhea

A

True

535
Q

Feline infectious peritonitis is an acute disease, it appears after a 2-3 days long incubation

A

False

536
Q

Stallions may be long-term carriers of the Equine arteritis virus

A

True

537
Q

Conjunctivitis and subcutaneous edema are possible signs of equine viral arteritis

A

True

538
Q

Porcine reproductive and respiratory vines (PRRSV) does not cause clinical signs in boars

A

False

539
Q

Inactivated vaccines alone cannot induce protective immunity against PRRSV

A

True

540
Q

Rhabdoviruses have high resistance they keen their infectivity for several months in the environment

A

False

541
Q

Vesicular stomatitis is a common disease all over the world

A

False

542
Q

Vesicular stomatitis can occur in ruminants, pigs and horses

A

True

543
Q

The mortality of vesicular stomatitis is very high

A

False

544
Q

Sylvatic rabies is maintained by foxes in Europe

A

True

545
Q

Rabies virus is spreading along the nerves to the central nervous system

A

True

546
Q

Rabies virus is shed in the saliva only after the appearance of the clinical signs

A

False

547
Q

Changed behavior is a typical sign of rabies

A

True

548
Q

Focal necrosis in the liver is a typical lesion of rabies

A

False

549
Q

Immunofluorescence test is widely used diagnostic method in the case of rabies

A

True

550
Q

Virus neutralization test is used to the laboratory diagnosis of rabies cases

A

False

551
Q

Dogs have to be vaccinated for the prevention of rabies at the age of 3 months for the first time

A

True

552
Q

Retroviruses carry reverse transcriptase enzyme

A

True

553
Q

Retroviruses generally cause long, frequently life-long infection

A

True

554
Q

Malignant transformation can be caused by retroviruses

A

True

555
Q

Retroviruses are generally genetically very stable

A

False

556
Q

Enzootic bovine leukosis virus is spreading horizontally in a cattle herd

A

True

557
Q

Enzootic bovine leukosis virus cannot infect fetuses

A

False

558
Q

Enzootic bovine leukosis virus is passed to newborn calves mainly with colostrum in endemically infected herds

A

False

559
Q

Enzootic bovine leukosis virus can be transmitted in blood

A

True

560
Q

Sheep cannot be infected with the caprine arthritis-encephalitis virus

A

False

561
Q

Kids can be infected with caprine arthritis encephalitis virus through the milk

A

True

562
Q

Encephalitis caused by caprine arthritis encephalitis virus is typically seen in 2-4 months old kids

A

True

563
Q

Arthritis caused by caprine arthritis-encephalitis virus is typically seen in kids below half a year of age

A

False

564
Q

Equine infectious anemia is caused by a lentivirus

A

True

565
Q

Blood sucking arthropods are mechanical vectors of equine infectious anaemia virus

A

True

566
Q

There is no immune reaction in horses against equine infectious anaemia virus

A

False

567
Q

Agar gel precipitation test can be used to the detection of antibodies against equine infectious anaemia virus

A

True

568
Q

Transmissible encephalopathies are slow diseases

A

True

569
Q

In the case of transmissible encephalopathies encephalitis can be seen in the gray material of the brain

A

False

570
Q

Transmissible encephalopathies are caused by prions

A

True

571
Q

PCR is used to the detection of prions

A

False

572
Q

The agent of bovine spongiform encephalopathy infects animals per os

A

True

573
Q

The agent of bovine spongiform encephalopathy is spreading along the nerves in the infected animals

A

True

574
Q

The agent of bovine spongiform encephalopathy is shed in large number in the milk

A

False

575
Q

Changed behavior is a typical sign of bovine spongiform encephalopathy