Midterm 4 (By bacteria 1) Flashcards

(437 cards)

1
Q

Actinomycosis of cattle is caused by Actinomycosis bovis

A

True

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2
Q

In the case of bovine actinomycosis lesions can be seen in the mandible or maxilla

A

True

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3
Q

Bovine actinomycosis is caused by Actinomyces bovis and Actinomyces lignieresii

A

False

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4
Q

Bovine actinomycosis causes changes in the upper and lower jaw

A

True

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5
Q

In bovine actinomycosis, the first changes are seen in the udder

A

False

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6
Q

Actinomyces causes a generalized infection

A

False

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7
Q

Lumpy jaw in cattle is caused by Actinomyces bovis

A

True

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8
Q

In the case of actinomycosis in pigs the lesions are seen in the udder

A

True

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9
Q

Dogs are resistant to actinomycosis

A

False

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10
Q

Sulphur granules are typical lesions of actinomycosis

A

True

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11
Q

Actinomyces viscosus can infect the udder of sow

A

False

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12
Q

Actinomyces can affect the retropharyngeal lymph nodes

A

True

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13
Q

In dogs, grass awns can be a predisposing factor for actinomycosis infection

A

True

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14
Q

Lumpy jaw of cattle is caused by Actinobacillus bovis

A

False

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15
Q

A. hordeovulneris and A. viscosus can cause pleuritis, peritonitis and pericarditis

A

True

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16
Q

A. israelii is the causative agent if canine actinomycosis

A

False

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17
Q

Swine actinomycosis is caused by Actinomycosis bovis

A

True

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18
Q

Actinomyces species are epiphytes

A

True

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19
Q

Actinomycosis bovis can cause udder infection in horses

A

False

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20
Q

Dogs can be infected by Actinomyces bovis

A

False

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21
Q

Vaccines in cattle can be efficient for prevention of the actinomycosis disease

A

False

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22
Q

Wound infection is the primary route of actinomycosis infection

A

True

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23
Q

Actinomycosis is a gram-negative bacterium

A

False

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24
Q

Horses are most sensitive to Actinomyces israelii

A

False

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25
Clinical signs and pathological findings of canine Actinomycosis and Nocardiosis are similar
True
26
Nocardiosis causes chronic mastitis in cows
True
27
Nocardia asteroides can cause generalized disease in dogs
True
28
Nocardia spp. in cattle primarily causes mastitis
True
29
Most susceptible species to Nocardiosis are dog and horse
False
30
N. asteroides causes cutaneous pyogranulomas in dog
True
31
Nocardia asteroides is zoonotic
True
32
Disseminated Nocardiosis in dog occurs after 1 year of age
False
33
Nocardiosis will cause acute mastitis in cattle
False
34
Bovine farcy causes chronic lesions in the superficial lymph nodes and vessels
True
35
Nocardiosis are found mostly in tropical and subtropical regions
True
36
Nocardia is a facultative aerobic bacterium
False
37
The agent of Dermatophilosis can survive in the environment
True
38
Dermatophilosis can be diagnosed by staining a direct smear from the lesions
True
39
Dermatophilosis can be diagnosed by microscopic examination
True
40
Dermatophilosis can be generalized
False
41
Dermatophilosis can affects also birds and plants
False
42
Dermatophilosis occurs only in Africa
False
43
Focal inflammation in the liver is a typical lesion of dermatophilosis
False
44
Dermatophilosis is predisposed by wet skin
True
45
Mycobacteria can survive in the environment
True
46
Mycobacteria cannot be cultured
False
47
Waxes and lipids in the mycobacteria are virulence factors
True
48
The agent of avian tuberculosis is an obligate pathogenic bacterium
True
49
Tuberculin test is an allergic test.
True
50
Mycobacteria can be cultured, but their incubation time is long
True
51
Tuberculosis is diagnosed by detecting antibodies to M. bovis in the blood with ELISA
False
52
M. tuberculosis can cause tuberculosis in swine
True
53
Bovine tuberculosis is a zoonosis
True
54
Tuberculosis causes generalized disease by organic infection in cattle
True
55
Tuberculosis cannot infect cattle per os
False
56
The center of the tubercle is necrotized
True
57
The tubercle consists of histiocytes and foreign body giant cell
True
58
The causative agents of tuberculosis are obligate pathogenic bacteria
True
59
Köster staining is a special staining for Mycobacteria
False
60
Mycobacteria are highly resistant
True
61
Early generalization of mycobacteria occurs via lympho-hematogenous route
True
62
Tuberculosis in cattle occurs especially in young animals
False
63
In dogs’ tuberculosis can be generalized
True
64
Mycobacterium species show a close relationship between the antigens
True
65
Mycobacterium bovis can cause generalized tuberculosis in badgers
True
66
Mycobacteria are intracellular pathogens
True
67
Cattle tuberculosis can be diagnosed by serological methods
False
68
Cattle tuberculosis is always generalized
False
69
Mycobacteria are a worldwide disease
True
70
Tuberculosis in cattle is prevented with frequent vaccinations
False
71
Europe is free from bovine tuberculosis
False
72
The causative agent of bovine tuberculosis is zoonotic
True
73
Mycobacteria are resistant to environmental factors
True
74
Cattle cannot be infected with mycobacteria per os
True
75
Cattle are infected with M. bovis mainly per os and enteric tuberculosis is most frequent
False
76
Cattle infected with M. bovis will carry the bacterium for a maximum of 1 year
False
77
Late generalization can be characterized by lost resistance
True
78
In the tubercle, coagulation necrosis is seen
True
79
In the phase of early generalization Mycobacteria do not replicate in the lymph node
False
80
In intestinal tuberculosis, diarrhea is the main clinical sign
True
81
Chronic tuberculosis causes changes in the lymph node
False
82
Mycobacteria can be demonstrated from the discharge of sick animals by staining
True
83
Tuberculosis can be demonstrated earliest by ELISA
False
84
Tuberculosis can first be diagnosed by PCR
False
85
The agents causing tuberculosis are obligate pathogen
True
86
Tuberculosis can be diagnosed with certainty serology
False
87
Mycobacteria can be seen by staining discharge from diseased animals
True
88
Mycobacterium infection in pigs can be zoonotic
True
89
Mycobacterium spp. in swine can be caused by atypical mycobacteria
True
90
Mycobacteria in swine can be caused by M. bovis and produces localized lesions
False
91
M. tuberculosis is a common mycobacterium infection of pig
False
92
Avian tuberculosis usually occurs at 6-8 weeks of age
False
93
Avian tuberculosis result in local processes
False
94
Avian tuberculosis can be diagnosed by slide agglutination or ELISA
True
95
Avian tuberculosis is a common disease in large scale farms causing high economic losses
False
96
Waterfowl are more susceptible to avian tuberculosis
False
97
Crepitation during liver transection is characteristic for avian tuberculosis
False
98
Tuberculosis of poultry occur mainly in breeder flocks
True
99
Avian tuberculosis occur over 1 year of age
True
100
The tuberculin test is unreliable in poultry
True
101
Mycobacteria contain lipids and waxes in the cell wall
True
102
There is antigenic relationship between the different Mycobacteria species
True
103
Facultative pathogenic Mycobacteria cannot colonize mammals
False
104
Some facultative pathogenic Mycobacteria can cause tuberculosis in cold blooded animals
True
105
In the case of bovine tuberculosis fetuses are generally not infected
True
106
Generation shift can be used for eradication of tuberculosis
True
107
Vaccination of 6-month-old calves with BCG vaccine will result eradication of tuberculosis
False
108
Mycobacteria are acid and alcohol fast bacteria
True
109
Mycobacteria are very resistant bacteria
True
110
After infection with Mycobacterium bovis cattle remain lifelong carriers
True
111
The primary complex in cattle is generally in the lungs and the mediastinal lymph nodes
True
112
Sawdust bedding can predispose pigs to infection by facultative pathogenic mycobacteria
True
113
Facultative pathogenic mycobacteria can cause generalized tuberculosis in pigs
False
114
The habitat of pathogenic mycobacteria is the soil
False
115
The habitat of facultative pathogenic mycobacteria is the soil
False
116
Only cattle are susceptible to Mycobacterium bovis
False
117
In cattle extrapulmonary tuberculosis does not occur
False
118
Late generalization is characterized by productive processes
False
119
Chronic tuberculosis affects organs together with lymph nodes
True
120
The skin intradermal tuberculin test has to be read after 72 hours
True
121
In the exhaust phase of the tuberculosis the intradermal tuberculin test can be false negative
True
122
The skin intradermal tuberculin test is negative if the thickness of the skin increased by 4.5 mm
False
123
Tuberculin test can detect about 50% of the infected animals
False
124
Tuberculin test in poultry is only 50% accurate
True
125
The skin intradermal tuberculin test is highly sensitive in cattle
True
126
Infection of cattle by facultative pathogenic mycobacteria can result false positive reaction in the skin intradermal tuberculin test
True
127
The skin intradermal tuberculin test is negative if the thickness of the skin increased by 4.1 mm
False
128
In case of positive tuberculin reactions in a herd, movement restriction has to be implemented
True
129
The skin intradermal tuberculin test is negative if the thickness of the skin increases 4 mm
False
130
The PPD-tuberculin (purified protein derivative) contains the antigenic abstract of the agent
True
131
During the general tuberculin test we give the tuberculin SC or IV
False
132
General tuberculin test is used to trigger a hypersensitivity reaction
True
133
The general tuberculin test (name) is not really used now a days
True
134
The tuberculin test can be false negative in cattle within 3 weeks after infection
True
135
Facultative pathogenic Mycobacteria can result false negative reaction in the tuberculin test
False
136
The tuberculin test is positive if the thickness of the skin increased by 4.2 mm and it is painful
True
137
The tuberculin test is doubtful if the thickness of the skin increased by 3.5 mm and it is painful
False
138
The tuberculin test is positive if the thickness of the skin is 3.5 mm and the site is not painful and there is no edema
False
139
The tuberculin test is positive if the thickness of the skin is 3 mm and the site is not painful and there is no edema
False
140
The tuberculin test is positive if the thickness of the skin is 2.5 mm and the site is painful with edema
True
141
The tuberculin test is positive when larger than 4 mm increase in skin thickness in 72 hours
True
142
The tuberculin test is positive if the thickness of the skin is <2 mm and with a local reaction
True
143
The tuberculin test is positive if the thickness of the skin is 2-4 mm and with no local reaction
False
144
The tuberculin test is positive if the thickness of the skin is <2 mm and with no local reaction
False
145
The tuberculin test is negative if the thickness of the skin is <2 mm and with no local reaction
True
146
The tuberculin test is negative if the thickness of the skin is 2-4 mm and with local reaction
False
147
The tuberculin test is negative if the thickness of the skin is <2 mm and with local reaction
False
148
The intradermal tuberculin test can be: False positive in case of infection by Mycobacterium avium subsp. paratuberculosis
True
149
The intradermal tuberculin test can be: False positive in case of anergy
False
150
The intradermal tuberculin test can be: False negative in case of pre-allergy
True
151
The intradermal tuberculin test can be: False negative in case of older, demarcated nodule
True
152
The intradermal tuberculin test can be: False negative in case of infection with another mycobacterium
False
153
The intradermal tuberculin test can be: False negative in case of anergy
True
154
The intradermal tuberculin test can be: False positive in case of pre-allergy
False
155
The intradermal tuberculin test can be: False positive in case of an old closed focus
False
156
Tuberculin test is false negative in case of old, encapsulated lesions
True
157
Tuberculin test is false negative in case of pre-infection
True
158
At the end of the disease the probe/intradermal skin test can be negative
True
159
In other types of tuberculosis infections the intradermal tuberculin can be positive
True
160
The tuberculin reaction is negative if the thickness of the skin is increased by 1.8 mm and not painful
True
161
The tuberculin reaction is doubtful if the thickness of the skin increased by 2.8 mm and it is painful
False
162
In the exhaustion phase of the tuberculosis the tuberculin test can be false positive
False
163
Using the thermal tuberculin test, organic reactions can be increased
True
164
In case of para-allergic reaction we carry out the comparative tuberculin test
True
165
In case of para-allergic reaction we eliminate the positive animals immediately
True
166
In case of para-allergic reaction we perform a test-cut
False
167
In addition to para-allergic test we can carry out a gamma interferon test
True
168
The tuberculin test is negative if the thickness of the skin is 3 mm and with no local reaction
False
169
Paratuberculosis is seen in young calves
False
170
Lesions of paratuberculosis are localized in the small intestine
True
171
In the case of paratuberculosis tuberculi can be seen in the anterior lobes of the lungs
False
172
Paratuberculosis can be treated with polymyxins
False
173
Paratuberculosis is seen cows above 2 years of age
True
174
Lesions of the paratuberculosis are localized in the small and large intestine
False
175
In the case of paratuberculosis no tuberculi are seen
True
176
Weight loss is a typical sign of paratuberculosis
True
177
In paratuberculosis, the nodules are seen primarily in the large intestine
False
178
Paratuberculosis can be demonstrated by LST during early stages of infection
True
179
Paratuberculosis can be prevented by early vaccination of the calves
True
180
Paratuberculosis can be treated with penicillin and enrofloxacin
False
181
Paratuberculosis can be prevented by vaccination
True
182
Paratuberculosis is believed to cause Chron’s disease
True
183
Young animals are resistant to paratuberculosis
False
184
Wasting is the main clinical sign
True
185
Paratuberculosis is also called Johne’s disease
True
186
It is a chronic disease with diarrhea affecting mainly ruminants (CS: 2-5 years)
True
187
The disease paratuberculosis can develop in animals above 2 months
False
188
Paratuberculosis can be prevented by vaccination only in countries where it is eradicated
True
189
In Paratuberculosis, nodules can be found in intestinum crassum
False
190
Young animals are more susceptible to paratuberculosis
True
191
Paratuberculosis virulence factor is phospholipase C
True
192
Paratuberculosis cause proliferative enteritis in small intestines
True
193
Cattle paratuberculosis shows more severe lesions than sheep/goat
True
194
Pneumonia caused by Rhodococcus equi is typically seen in 1-4 months old foals
True
195
Rhodococcus equi causes interstitial pneumonia in foals
False
196
Rhodococcus equi can cause only pneumonia in foals
False
197
Equine herpesvirus-2 can predispose horses to pneumonia caused by Rhodococcus equi
True
198
Rhodococcus equi can cause suppurative bronchopneumonia in foals
True
199
Rhodococcus equi can cause only respiratory disease in foals
False
200
Bronchopneumonia caused by R. equi is typically seen in foals between 1 and 4 months of age
True
201
Combination of Rifampicin and Macrolides antibiotics is used for the treatment of bronchopneumonia caused by R. equi
True
202
Rhodococcus equi can cause pneumonia in foals of 5-6 months of age
False
203
Pneumonia caused by Rhodococcus equi is a chronic disease
True
204
Serous pneumonia is caused by Rhodococcus qui
False
205
Pneumonia caused by Rhodococcus equi is treated with penicillin
False
206
Rhodococcus equi can cause clinical signs in humans
True
207
R. equi causes pneumonia in foals aged 6-8 months
False
208
R. equi pneumonia is transmitted from foal to foal
False
209
R. equi causes severe catarrhal pneumonia
False
210
Pneumonia caused by R. equi can be treated with rifampicin and erythromycin for 4-5 days
Fale
211
R. equi is an obligate anaerobic bacterium
False
212
R. equi causes high mortality in infected foals
True
213
R. equi can cause ulcerative enteritis
True
214
Rhodococcus equi is usually seen during the winter
False
215
R. equi causes pneumonia with large abscesses
True
216
R. equi pneumonia can be treated with rifampicin and erythromycin for 4-10 weeks
True
217
Foals suffering from Rhodococcus equi can be treated with any antibiotic
False
218
Pneumonia caused by R. equi is a fast spreading acute disease
False
219
Many of the clinically sick animals recover after treatment for R. equi infection
True
220
R. equi pneumonia is transmitted by inhalation of contaminated dust
True
221
R. equi cause purulent pneumonia
True
222
Enterotoxic E. coli strains attach to enterocytes
True
223
The enterotoxic E. coli strain produces verotoxins
False
224
The enterotoxic E. coli strains cause edema disease
False
225
Enterotoxic E. coli strains attach to enterotoxins
False
226
Enterotoxic E. coli strains produce fimbriae
True
227
Enterotoxigenic E. coli strains produce fimbriae
True
228
Enterotoxin cause enteritis in the large intestine
False
229
Enterotoxigenic E. coil strains produce fimbria and enterotoxins
True
230
Verotoxins inhibit protein synthesis
True
231
Verotoxins damage the endothelial cells
True
232
Coli-diarrhea of calves is caused by verotoxic E. coli strains
False
233
Coli-diarrhea of calves is caused by E. coli strains equipped with fimbriae
False
234
In coli-diarrhea of calves we can see severe inflammation of the colon
False
235
Coli-diarrhea of the calf is caused by fimbriated E. coli strains
True
236
Coli-diarrhea of calves is caused by enterotoxic E. coli strains
True
237
Coli-diarrhea of the calf is characterised by a severe inflammation of the large intestine
False
238
Transport is the most important predisposing factor in coli-diarrhea
False
239
Coli-septicaemia is a disease of weaned calves
False
240
Coli-septicaemia causes severe hemorrhagic diarrhea
False
241
Coli-septicaemia causes high fever
False
242
Calf dysentry is caused by verotoxigenic E. coli
True
243
Transportation is an important predisposing factor of coli-septicemia
False
244
Coli-septicaemia is seen in day-old calves
True
245
Pneumonia is an important clinical sign of coli-septicaemia in calves
False
246
Coli-diarrhea of calves appears in the first week of life
True
247
Coli-diarrhea of calves can be treated with per oral polymyxin
True
248
E. coli can cause bloody diarrhea in calves
True
249
Fimbria F5 is an important virulence factor of E. coli strains causing neonatal diarrhoea of calves
True
250
Enterotoxigenic E. coli strains causes diarrhoea in new-born calves
True
251
Verotoxigenic E. coli strains are present in the gut of cattle without clinical signs
True
252
E. coli diarrhea in swine occurs in sows in their first pregnancy
False
253
E. coli diarrhea in swine occurs in large scale farms worldwide
True
254
The feces of weaned piglets with coli-diarrhea has a strong smell
True
255
E. coli diarrhea in swine is caused by enterotoxigenic E. coli
True
256
E. coli diarrhea occurs in weaned piglets at 1-2 weeks after weaning
True
257
Coli-diarrhea of newborn piglets is caused by enterotoxigenic E. coli strains
True
258
There are no vaccines to prevent coli-diarrhea of newborn piglets
False
259
Weaning can predispose piglets to diarrhea caused by E. coli
True
260
Weaning can predispose piglets to septicemia caused by E. coli
False
261
Less colostrum is a predisposing factor for coli-diarrhea in weaned pigs
Fasle
262
Coli-diarrhea of newborn piglets occurs mainly in the litter of sows in their first pregnancy
True
263
Coli-diarrhea of weaned piglets is generally prevented by vaccinating sows
False
264
Enterotoxic E. coli strains can cause disease in swine
True
265
Enterotoxigenic strains are the causative agents of coli-diarrhoea in weaned piglets
True
266
Verotoxins are involved in the pathogenesis of coli-diarrhoea in suckling piglets
False
267
The enterotoxigenic E. coli strains cause neonatal diarrhea in calves and piglets
True
268
E. coli in chicken found worldwide
True
269
E. coli is caused by enteroinvasive E. coli
True
270
Germinative infection occurs in case of E. coli disease in poultry
True
271
Enterotoxigenic E. coli strains can cause septicemia in day old chicken
False
272
Enterotoxigenic E. coli causes death in young chicks
False
273
E. coli is not a normal inhabitant of the gut flora in rabbits
True
274
Caused by Enteropathogenic E. coli
True
275
E. coli kills the embryo in the egg
True
276
PO antibiotics via drinking water is a good way of treating E. coli in poultry
True
277
E. coli disease in poultry mostly occurs in layers at beginning of egg-laying period
False
278
E. coli disease in poultry causes severe encephalitis in septicemic form
False
279
Vaccines can be used for the prevention of E. coli disease in poultry
False
280
E. coli strains cause generalized infection in day old chicken
False
281
Retarded absorption of the yolk sack is a post mortem lesion in coli-septicemia in chickens
False
282
E.coli strains cannot cause germinative infection in chickens
False
283
Edema disease of swine occurs before weaning
False
284
Edema disease may be lethal after paralytic symptoms
True
285
Edema disease is seen mainly in large scale farms with poor hygiene
False
286
Edema disease is caused by VTEC strains
True
287
In edema disease, antibiotics are used to treat diseased piglets
False
288
Edema disease occurs in the first week of life
False
289
V erotoxins damage the endothelial cells
True
290
Verotoxins cause diarrhea in young piglets
False
291
Edema disease of swine may cause paralysis prior to death
True
292
Edema disease of swine occurs at 1-2 weeks old
False
293
Insufficient colostrum is an important predisposing factor for edema disease
False
294
The feces of weaned piglets with coli-diarrhea contains undigested particles
True
295
The lesions in Necrobacillosis are restricted to the mouth
False
296
Necrobacillosis occurs mainly in young animals
False
297
There is no treatment for Necrobacillosis
False
298
Umbilical disinfection has an important role in the prevention of Necrobacillosis
True
299
Necrobacillosis in lambs can be seen as a result of an umbilical infection
True
300
Fusobacterium necrophorum subsp. necrophorum strains can cause Necrobacillosis of calves
True
301
F. necrophorum subsp. necrophorum strains are involved in the pathogenesis of foot rot
True
302
You can find necrosis in the mouth in case of Necrobacillosis in lambs
True
303
You can find liver abscesses in case of Necrobacillosis
False
304
Animals with softened hoof wall are more susceptible for panaritium (foot rot)
True
305
Contaminated, dirty bedding is a predisposing factor for foot rot
True
306
In the development of foot rot, fimbriae of the pathogen have an important role
True
307
Treatment of foot rot is using foot bath containing formalin and sterogenol
True
308
For treatment of panaritium, formalin foot baths are recommended
True
309
Foot rot is a very rare disease in Europe
False
310
Fimbria and extracellular enzymes are the virulence factors of the agent of foot rot
True
311
Changes caused by Necrobacillosis are only seen in the oral cavity
False
312
Dichelobacter causes Necrobacillosis
False
313
The causative agent of foot root can produce exotoxins
False
314
The causative agent of foot root can produce enzymes
True
315
Foot rot can be prevented by foot bath
True
316
Animals with soft horn are more predisposed to panaritium
True
317
Strongly contaminated bedding is a predisposing factor to panaritium
True
318
The fimbriae of the pathogens play an important role in the development of panaritium
True
319
To treat severe foot rot we use parenteral antibiotics
True
320
All Salmonella species are zoonotic
False
321
Salmonella are generally resistant bacteria
False
322
We use isolation and ELISA for detection of Salmonella
True
323
The cell wall, flagella and virulence factors are the antigens of Salmonella
True
324
Septicemia is the most common presentation of human salmonellosis
False
325
We use tetracyclines in the treatment of human gastroenteritis caused by Salmonella spp.
False
326
Salmonellosis mostly affect the elderly and young people (children)
True
327
All Salmonella serotypes can infect humans
False
328
Salmonellosis can sometimes be generalized
True
329
Exotoxins are important virulence factors of salmonella
False
330
An allergic test can confirm salmonellosis
False
331
Salmonella is cultivated from parenchymal organs
True
332
Septicemia is always seen in salmonellosis
False
333
Swine typhoid is spread by rodents
False
334
In swine typhoid transport is an important predisposing factor
False
335
Swine typhoid are mostly seen in 2-3-week-old piglets
False
336
In swine typhoid, bacterial isolation is the best way to detect the bacteria
True
337
Serology is an important tool to identify S. Typhisuis
False
338
In swine typhoid, pathological changes are seen in the large intestine
True
339
In swine typhoid, pathological changes are seen in the whole intestines
False
340
Swine typhoid is caused by S. typhi
False
341
Swine paratyphoid is a sporadic rare disease
False
342
Swine paratyphoid occurs in piglets between 2-5 weeks of age
False
343
Swine paratyphoid is caused by S. typhisuis
False
344
In the case of swine paratyphoid, enteritis can be seen in the small intestines
True
345
Hyperemic enlargement of the spleen is typical in the case of swine paratyphoid
False
346
Swine paratyphoid most often occurs in 2-5 months old piglets
True
347
Inactivated vaccines can be used in the prevention of swine paratyphoid
True
348
Cyanosis can be seen in swine paratyphoid
True
349
In swine paratyphoid lesions are seen in SI and LI
True
350
In case of swine paratyphoid, it is easy to diagnose in the feces
False
351
Cyanosis of lower parts of the body can be seen in swine paratyphoid
True
352
Swine typhlocolitis is a common disease with high mortality
False
353
High fever is an important clinical sign in case of swine typhlocolitis
False
354
In case of swine typhlocolitis are mostly seen in the large intestines
True
355
Swine typhlocolitis can be transmitted with birds and rodents
True
356
Salmonellosis in cattle is an endemic disease in young animals
True
357
We can use vaccination in cattle to prevent salmonella
True
358
Salmonellosis in cattle, lesions are mostly seen in the stomach
False
359
Salmonella of calves causes bloody diarrhea
True
360
S. abortusovis can cause sporadic abortions in cattle
False
361
Calf salmonellosis causes inflammation of the small intestine
True
362
Salmonella in calves can be treated successfully with penicillin
False
363
Salmonella can cause generalized disease/fever in caves
True
364
Salmonellosis in calves cause ileitis
True
365
We can use isolation or ELISA for detection of Salmonellosis in cattle
False
366
We can use quinolones to treat salmonellosis in cattle
True
367
Age is the most important predisposing factor in the case of cattle salmonellosis
False
368
Salmonellosis of calves occur in increased number if calves were brought from different farms
True
369
Salmonella is seen in the large intestine of cattle
False
370
Parasitic infections are an important predisposing factor of salmonella in sheep and goat
True
371
In the generalized form of salmonellosis in sheep and goat, a watery foamy diarrhea can be seen
True
372
Abortion caused by S. abortusovis is very common in goats
False
373
Mixing of young and older ewes is the most important predisposing factor in the abortive form
True
374
Venereal infection is the primary mode of infection in case of S. abortusovis
False
375
Serology is a good way to diagnose abortive salmonellosis in sheep
True
376
Vaccination is the best way to prevent S. abortusovis
False
377
Salmonella abortion of sheep occurs in late winter
True
378
Focal inflammation and necrosis is seen in the liver of lambs in case of salmonellosis
True
379
Salmonella abortion of sheep occurs mainly in older ewes
False
380
S. abortusovis can cause abortion only in sheep
True
381
Salmonella spp. can cause abortion in horses
True
382
Foal septicemia in case of salmonellosis causes bloody diarrhea
True
383
Foal septicemia in case of salmonellosis is highly age-related
False
384
Mycotoxins are an important predisposing factor in foal septicemia
True
385
Foal septicemia is caused by S. typhimurium
True
386
Abortion caused by S. abortusequi occurs a few days after the infection
False
387
Salmonellosis of horses in abortive form, most often occurs in older mares
False
388
Abortion caused by S. abortusequi most often occurs in the 2nd trimester
False
389
Salmonella in carnivores is mostly caused by S. typhimurium
True
390
High number of bacteria are needed to cause an infection in case of salmonellosis in carnivores
True
391
Carnivores usually contract salmonella by eating contaminated raw meat
True
392
Salmonellosis in carnivores can be seen only in young and weak animals, or immunodeficient animals
True
393
CNS signs can occur in foxes in case of salmonellosis
True
394
Asymptomatic carriage of Salmonella can occur in poultry
True
395
Arthritis can be a clinical sign of Salmonellosis in birds
True
396
Fowl typhoid have an exponential loss curve
False
397
Fowl typhoid can infect the ovaries
True
398
White diarrhea is a sign in young chickens with fowl typhoid
True
399
We can use slide agglutination to detect fowl typhoid
True
400
We can use tetracyclines to treat fowl typhoid
True
401
Fowl typhoid is caused by facultative pathogenic Salmonella
False
402
Rotting eggs are an important clinical sign of fowl typhoid
False
403
Dead eggs can be seen in fowl typhoid
True
404
Fowl typhoid can be seen only in adult birds
False
405
Decreased hatchability is an important clinical sign of fowl typhoid
True
406
Fowl typhoid propagates by germinative infection
True
407
Diarrhea is not a typical clinical sign of fowl cholera
False
408
Fowl typhoid is more frequent in water fowl than hens
False
409
Fowl typhoid is usually a disease of waterfowl
False
410
The highest infection rate of fowl typhoid is between days 8-10
False
411
The susceptibility to fowl typhoid increases with age
False
412
Fowl paratyphoid is a rare and sporadic disease
False
413
Fowl paratyphoid mostly occurs in 0-2 weeks old chickens
True
414
Fowl paratyphoid infection occurs by PO or germinative routes
True
415
Purulent conjunctivitis can occur as a clinical sign in ducks with fowl paratyphoid
True
416
Fluoroquinolones can be used to treat fowl paratyphoid
True
417
Fowl paratyphoid can be spread by rodents
True
418
Fowl paratyphoid can occur alone only in the first 2 weeks of life
True
419
Live and attenuated vaccines can be used to prevent fowl paratyphoid
True
420
Fowl paratyphoid usually causes generalized disease
True
421
Fowl paratyphoid causes disease mainly in water fowl
False
422
We can certify “Salmonella-free” status of poultry stocks with serological tests
False
423
Fowl paratyphoid causes high morbidity mostly in water birds
True
424
Primary replication sites of Y. enterocolitica are the tonsils and lymphoid tissue of gut
True
425
Y. enterocolitica has a narrow host range
False
426
Y. enterocolitica can be treated with tetracyclines
True
427
Swine is an important host of Y. enterocolitica
True
428
Chronic lesions caused by Y. enterocolitica resemble the lesions of tuberculosis
False
429
Hare and chinchilla are most susceptible to Y. enterocolitica
False
430
Rodentiosis is caused by Y. pseudotuberculosis
True
431
Y. pseudotuberculosis is relatively resistant and replicates in the environment
True
432
Arthritis can occur in the chronic form of the Y. pseudotuberculosis
True
433
Lesions are most often seen in the small intestines in case of Y. pseudotuberculosis
False
434
Y. pseudotuberculosis is normally present in rodents
False
435
Y. pseudotuberculosis sporadically causes abortion in cattle
True
436
Y. pseudotuberculosis can cause inflammatory necrosis lesions in rodent
True
437
Disease caused by Y. pseudotuberculosis is common in rodents and hares
True