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Flashcards in MSK Midterm Deck (305):
1

Where can you find embryonic connective tissue?

umbilical cord, pulp of teeth

2

embryonic CT is rich in undifferentiated mesenchymal stem cells, extracellular matrix, and sometimes collagen or reticular fiber. what is CT in the umbilical cord called?

wharton's jelly

3

embryonic CT is rich in undifferentiated mesenchymal stem cells can differentiate into what kinds of tissue?

any CT (adipose, cartilage, endothelium, osteocyte)

4

where do we find loose (areolar) CT?

mucosa and submucosa, deep to epithelium (surround vessels in tunica adventitia and nerves)

5

what are the extracellular components of areolar CT?

collagen and elastic fibers, ground substance

6

what are the cellular components of areolar CT?

mast cells, fibroblasts, macrophages

7

where in the body do we find dense regular CT?

tendon, ligament, cornea, fascia

8

fascia is made of what type of CT?

dense regular

9

where do we find dense irregular CT?

dermis and GI submucosa

10

what is the most common extracellular component of dense irregular CT?

collagen

11

what are the 2 kinds of dense irregular CT?

reticular and elastic

12

what type of cell is responsible for producing collagen, elastin, and reticular fiber as well as proteoglycans and glycoproteins for CT?

fibroblast

13

where do we find reticular CT? (dense irregular)

lymphatic tissue

14

where do we find elastic CT) (dense irregular with discontinuous lamellae around the lumen)

walls of large vessels and ligaments

15

what type of cell makes elastic fiber? (its made of elastin + fibrillin)

smooth muscle, fibroblast, chondroblast

16

this type of tissue is used as energy reserve and is unilocular

white fat (adipocytes)

17

this type of tissue is used to dissipate energy and is multilocular

brown fat (adipocytes)

18

which type of fat is rich in mitochondria and has numerous lipid deposits

brown fat

19

adipocytes are a modified form of what cell type that has used vacuole for lipid storage pushing all other cellular contents to the periphery?

modified fibroblast

20

this CT cell is spindle shaped with an oval nucleus

fibroblast

21

this is a 3 chain fibrous protein wound into a triple helix that is coiled for tensile strength

collagen

22

Where do you find Type I collagen? What are characteristics of the fibrils?

bone, tendon, dentin

banded fiber for tensile strength

23

Where do you find Type II collagen? What are characteristics of the fibrils?

hyaline and elastic cartilage

thinner fibrils

24

Where do you find Type III collagen? What are characteristics of the fibrils?

reticular lamina of the basement membrane

reticular fibrils

25

Where do you find Type IV collagen? What are characteristics of the fibrils?

basal lamina

No bundles

26

Where do you find Type v collagen? What are characteristics of the fibrils?

fetal amnion/ chorion, muscle and tendon sheaths

no banded fibrils

27

what is the only kind of collagen that is NON-fibrillar

Type IV (found in basal lamina)

28

macrophages are abundant in what organelle?

lysosomes-help breakdown phagocytized material

29

what do you call a macrophage in the liver? bone? CNS?

liver- Kupffer cell
bone- osteoclast
CNS- microglial cell

30

this cell type is abundant in cytoplasmic granules containing histamine, heparin, and other chemoattractants and can form leukotrienes to be released from the cell

mast cell

31

these cells have a well developed rER, golgi, and nucleolus and their nucleus distributes heterochromatin to look like a "cartwheel"

plasma cell (they serve to produce a single class of Ig)

32

what makes up the ECM?

proteoglycans, glycosaminoglycans, hyaluronan
water
laminin, fibronectin, integrin

33

the paraxial mesoderm differentiates into head and somites. the somites further differentiate into what?

sclerotome (cartilage)
myotome (skeletal muscle)
dermatome (dermis)

34

sensory information is carried in which horn of the spinal cord

posterior horn

35

motor information is carried in which horn of the spinal cord

anterior horn

36

visceromotor information is carried in which horn of the spinal cord

lateral horn

37

the spinal nerve proper is made of what component parts that arise from the spinal cord

anterior root and posterior root

38

which part of the spinal nerve innervates epaxial (intrinsic) mm. in the back?

dorsal ramus (posterior ramus)

39

which part of the spinal nerve innervates hypaxial (extrinsic) mm. in the trunk and limbs?

ventral ramus (anterior ramus)

40

From the posterior ramus of the spinal n. What two components arise and what do they innervate?

Cutaneous n- dermatome
Motor n- myotome

41

Which nerve innervates the skin on the top of the head

CN 1

42

Which nerve innervates the skin on the anterior neck

C3

43

The skin overlaying the deltoid muscle is innervated by what nn.?

C4-5

44

Which nerve supplies a dermatome that extends across the anterior chest inferior to the clavicle and down the anterior medial aspect of the arm all the way to the wrist

T2

45

Which nerve supplies the dermatome that includes the middle finger

C7

46

Which nerve supplies the dermatome Overlaying the nipple

T4-5

47

Which nerve supplies the dermatome that covers the thumb and extends superiorly all the way to the triceps

C6

48

Which nerve supplies the dermatome overlaying the navel

T10

49

Which nerve supplies the dermatome overlaying the 5th phalange

C8

50

Which nerve supplies the dermatome of the medial foot?

L5

51

Which nerve supplies the dermatome of the lateral foot ?

S1

52

Which nerve supplies the dermatome of the heal (calcaneus region)

S1

53

Meralgia paresthetica is a nerve compression syndrome involving the dermatome overlaying the anterolateral thigh. Which nerve supplies this dermatome?

L2-L3 (lateral femoral cutaneous nerve) it gets pinched beneath the inguinal ligament

54

Which nerves are involved. In the brachial plexus

C5- T1

55

Which spinal nerves supply the cervical plexus

C1- C5

56

Which spinal nerves supply the lumbar plexus

L1- L4

57

Which spinal nerves supply the sacral plexus

L4- S4

58

What are the terminal branches of the brachial plexus

Musculocutaneous, median, ulnar, radial, axillary

59

What. Are the terminal branches of the lumbosacral plexus

Femoral, obturator, sciatic (tibial and common fibular), lateral femoral cutaneous, posterior femoral cutaneous

60

What are the 3. Types of fibrous joints

Gomphosis, suture, syndesmosis

61

Which structural classification of joints are made of bones Held together by dense regular CT?

Fibrous

62

Which structural classification of joints has no joint cavity and are made of bones joined by cartilage?

Cartilagenous

63

Which structural classification of joints are made of bones covered with articular cartilage capsule with a joint cavity

Synovial (synovial fluid in the joint cavity)

64

Which functional classification of joints are immovable

Synarthrosis

65

Which functional classification of joints are slightly movable

Amphiarthrosis

66

Which functional classification of joints are freely movable

Diarthrosis

67

Fibrous joints can have which functional classification(s)?

Synarthrosis, amphiarthrosis

68

What are the 3 sub-types of fibrous joints?

Gomphoses, sutures, syndesmoses

69

Carbilagenous joints can have which functional classification(s)?

Synarthroses or amphiarthroses

70

What are the two subtypes of cartilagenous joints

Synchondroses, symphyses

71

Synovial joints can have which functional classification(s)?

Diarthroses

72

What is the word for: fibrous, saclike structure that contains synovial fluid and is lined by synovial membrane

Bursae

73

What protective material fills the peripheral spaces as packing material in a joint cavity formed by bones moving?

Fat pads

74

What are the 6 types of synovial joints in order from least to most freely movable?

Planar, hinge, pivot, condyloid, saddle, ball and socket

75

Which muscular organizational pattern would a sphincter have? (Contraction= closure)

Circular

76

Which muscular organizational pattern involves widespread fascicles that come together at 1 common attachment (triangular in shape)

Convergent

77

Which muscle organization pattern has fascicles that run along the axis of a long bone

Parallel

78

Which muscle organization pattern have one or more tendons extending through their body and fascicles are arranged at an oblique angle to the tendon

Pennate

79

Describe first class lever

Fulcrum in middle (tilt head back)

80

Which structural classification of joints are made of bones Held together by dense regular CT?

Fibrous

81

Which structural classification of joints has no joint cavity and are made of bones joined by cartilage?

Cartilagenous

82

Which structural classification of joints are made of bones covered with articular cartilage capsule with a joint cavity

Synovial (synovial fluid in the joint cavity)

83

Which functional classification of joints are immovable

Synarthrosis

84

Which functional classification of joints are slightly movable

Amphiarthrosis

85

Which functional classification of joints are freely movable

Diarthrosis

86

Fibrous joints can have which functional classification(s)?

Synarthrosis, amphiarthrosis

87

What are the 3 sub-types of fibrous joints?

Gomphoses, sutures, syndesmoses

88

Carbilagenous joints can have which functional classification(s)?

Synarthroses or amphiarthroses

89

What are the two subtypes of cartilagenous joints

Synchondroses, symphyses

90

Synovial joints can have which functional classification(s)?

Diarthroses

91

What is the word for: fibrous, saclike structure that contains synovial fluid and is lined by synovial membrane

Bursae

92

What protective material fills the peripheral spaces as packing material in a joint cavity formed by bones moving?

Fat pads

93

What are the 6 types of synovial joints in order from least to most freely movable?

Planar, hinge, pivot, condyloid, saddle, ball and socket

94

Which muscular organizational pattern would a sphincter have? (Contraction= closure)

Circular

95

Which muscular organizational pattern involves widespread fascicles that come together at 1 common attachment (triangular in shape)

Convergent

96

Which muscle organization pattern has fascicles that run along the axis of a long bone

Parallel

97

Which muscle organization pattern have one or more tendons extending through their body and fascicles are arranged at an oblique angle to the tendon

Pennate

98

Describe first class lever

Fulcrum in middle (tilt head back)

99

Describe a. Second class lever. System

Resistance in middle (standing on tiptoes)

100

Describe a third class lever system

Force in middle (biceps)

101

What is the most common lever system in the body?

THIRD CLASS **

102

what radiological technique uses photons from a tungsten target passing through the body to be exposed on a recorded plate? (bone appears white and soft tissues are dark)

X ray

103

which contrast agents are typically used with x rays / fluoroscopy / CT / MRI scans and in what circumstances?

barium sulfate- GI study
iodine compounds- arteriogram (2-3 frames per second for peripheral vasculature, 15-30 for coronary aa.)

104

which radiological technique uses x rays from below the patient to view movement of structure in real time?

fluoroscopy

105

in what case can fluoroscopy be used to go e 3D information

with a C arm the apparatus can rotate

106

which radiological technique uses images generated via x ray passing through the body in a helical fashion as the patient moves through a gantry that contains the x ray tube

CT scan

107

how are images created in a CT scan?

math algorithms used to reconstruct transverse plane images of the body and these are put together to view 3D renderings

108

what is the scale that measures density numbers in a CT scan? (water is zero, air is -1000, bone is +3095)

hounsfield scale

109

the number on the hound field scale is set to middle gray referred to as "window level" and range of grey scale is mapped. All CT numbers below the window display as __ whereas those above the window appear ___

black, white

110

the number on the hound field scale is set to middle gray referred to as "window level" and range of grey scale is mapped. a wide window range is great for imaging what body tissue?

bone

111

the number on the hound field scale is set to middle gray referred to as "window level" and range of grey scale is mapped. a narrow window range is great for imaging what body tissue?

soft tissue

112

which radiological technique uses no ionizing radiation but rather image is creating using radio frequent energy emitted by H's when strong magnetic fields around the body are manipulated

MRI

113

nuclear spin is altered in the magnetic field manipulation and as a tissue returns to normal (relaxation time) energy is emitted and can be measured by current in which radiological technique

MRI

114

tissues with greater relaxation times (measured in MRI) depending on what two factors

water content, molecular composition

115

radioactive molecules attach to other compounds that can be administer orally or intravenously in which radiologic technique measures physiological rather than anatomical activity?

nuclear medicine

116

in nuclear medicine, pathology can be detected by identifying areas of what?

increased physiological activity- hot spot
decreased activity- cold spot

117

which radiological technique is based on pulse echo using sound waves

ultrasound

118

neck vessels, thyroid glands, breast, and testes are great candidates for ultrasound visualization because they are what

near the skin surface

119

what are advantages to ultrasound

cheap, portable, no radiation, good for capturing motion

120

what type of ultrasound is best to use for visualizing and measuring blood flow

doppler

121

peripheral angiography is invasive and uses what fluoroscopic form of radiologic technique

digital subtraction angiography (real time x rays taken and then digitally we subtract bones and tissue to see contrast in vessels)

122

when performing angiography, what advantage do volume rendering algorithms (like those in CT scans) provide that can only be achieved by rotating the view in MIP (such as in MR) studies?

depth perpective

123

a fracture of what vertebral structure gives us the "scotty dog" x ray

lumbar vertebrae fracture of pars interarticularis

124

Hiltons law states that a joint is innervated by what nerves?

the same ones that supply muscles moving that joint and the skin over it

125

the synovium of a joint contains thinly myelinated and unmyelinated nerve fibers. what are the two types of synovial fibers?

postganglionic sympathetic andrenergic (around vessels controlling blood flow)

unmyelinated C fibers (nocireceptors: pain transmission)

126

what mediator associated with inflammation can induce signaling in nocireceptive fibers of joints causing pain in the normal ROM after trauma to that joint?

prostaglandin E2

127

what type of joint is the hip and what bony articulation does it include?

diarthrotic ball and socket joint (synovial)

femoral head + acetabulum

128

which ligament bridges the incomplete inferior part of the acetabulum (called the ace tabular notch)

transverse acetabular ligament

129

what articulates with the acetabular fossa

NOTHING (just a space for fat pad covered by synovial membrane)

130

whats the name of the cartilaginous rim that increases the depth of the "socket" for the femoral head

acetabular labrum

131

This type of hip injury can be repaired arthroscopically and presents as:
diffuse pain
no swelling (although effusion may increase volume)
possibly feel pinching during flexion
pain reproduced while weight bearing and twisting

labrum tear

132

what structure is most important in resisting hyperextension of the hip joint?

iliofemoral ligament

133

the articular capsule of the hip joint includes ligaments that attach where?

from acetabulum to femoral neck
circularly around the neck

134

while the obturator artery supplies blood to the head of the femur early in life, which vessel is responsible for taking over this area and always supplies the neck of this large bone?

medial circumflex femoral (via retinacular branches)

135

what are the two ligamentous bands that help to keep the femoral head in the acetabulum?

orbicular zone (circle the neck)
retinacula (deep longitudinal fibers, where reticular aa. run)

136

thickened parts of the articular capsule in the hip joint are called intrinsic ligaments. what are the 3 intrinsic ligaments?

iliofemoral, pubofemoral, ischiofemoral

137

which intrinsic hip ligament is Y shaped, covers anterior aspect of the hip, runs from AIIS and ace tabular rim to the intertrochanteric line to help PREVENT OVEREXTENSION

iliofemoral ligament

138

which intrinsic hip ligament strengthens anterior and inferior aspect of the fibrous hip capsule, runs from obturator crest of pubic bone and laterally joins iliofemoral ligament to help prevent BOTH overabduction and overextension?

pubofemoral ligament

139

which intrinsic hip ligament strengthens the hip capsule posteriorly, runs from ace tabular rim to femoral neck to help prevent overextension

ischiofemoral ligament

140

what is the name of a weak intracapsular ligament of the hip that attaches to acetabular notch and fovea of the femoral head (contains an obturator vessel and may help spread synovial fluid)

round femoral head ligament // ligamentum teres

141

which type of hip dislocation is less common (10-15%) and can occur with dashboard strike if thigh is abducted or from a blow to the back while in a squatted position? (femoral neck/ gr. trochanter may impinge ace tabular rim freeing the femoral head from acetabulum)

anterior hip dislocation

142

other than the fact that it is less common, what danger ensues from a patient with an anterior hip dislocation?

may be impinging components of the femoral triangle

143

how does a posterior hip dislocation present

thigh adducted, MEDIALLY rotated, and flexed (sensory change in skin over posterolateral leg and foot)

144

why is posterior hip dislocation particularly problematic

sciatic damage can cause paralysis to hamstrings and distal to knee

145

femoral neck fracture presents how

LATERAL rotation, adduction, and flexion at the thigh (posterior hip dislocation is the same except medially rotated)

146

describe the prosthetics used in the replacement of an osteoarthritic hip

metal head and neck cemented to femur
plastic "socket" cemented to replace acetabulum

147

who has a longer load arm for the hip joint and thus a more prominent inward angle of the femur?

females

148

which small lateral rotator of the hip is least effect at abduction when the thigh is flexed

quadratus femoris

149

which glut muscles are responsible for medial rotation of the hip joint during walking

glut medius, glut minimus, and tensor fasciae latae

150

during knee extension, which muscle pulls supra patellar bursa superiorly to keep it from getting sqished

articularis genu

151

what muscles attach to the pea anserinus and what innervates these muscles

SGT FOT

sartorius- femoral n.
Gracillus- obturator n.
semitendinosis- tibial division of the sciatic n.

152

genicular branches of the popliteal artery form a genicular anastemosis which provides circulation to bypass popliteal artery in what states?

provides blood to articular capsule and ligaments of knee after long periods of flexion and when popliteal vessel narrowed

153

what type of joint is the knee

diarthrotic, synovial, hinge

154

what are the bony articulations at the knee joint

femur slants laterally at the knee, tibia is nearly vertical.
femur condyles contact tibial condyles (no involvement of fibula)

155

what are the 5 extra capsular ligaments of the knee

patellar ligament
fibular collateral ligament (aka lateral collateral)
tibial collateral ligament (intrinsic= thick)
oblique popliteal ligament (intrinsic= thick)
arcuate popliteal ligament

156

the patellar ligament is an anterior knee joint ligament that is a continuation of what muscle

quadricepts (patellar tendon)

157

name for aponeurotic expansion of vast us medial is and laterals which supports articular capsule laterally and medially

patellar retinacula

158

extra capsular ligament of knee extends from lateral femoral epicondyle inferiorly to fibular head

fibular collateral ligament

159

which tendon passes deep to fibular collateral ligament separating it from lateral meniscus

popliteus tendon

160

the tendon of which muscle is split in two before its distal attachment because of the position of fibular collateral ligament

biceps femoris

161

this ligament extends from medial femoral epicondyle to medial tibial condyle to prevent medial disruption and deep fibers attach to medial meniscus

tibial collateral ligament (taut when leg is extended preventing rotation)

162

which knee ligament is an expansion of semimembranosis tendon that strengthens capsule posteriorly

oblique popliteal ligament

163

which knee ligament is y shaped and arches over popliteus muscle to strengthen capsule posteriorly discouraging hyperextension

arcuate popliteal

164

what are the intracapsular ligaments of the knee

anterior and posterior cruciate ligaments

165

this intracapsular knee ligament runs from anterior intercondylar area of tibia (moves superior, posterior, and laterally) before attaching to lateral condyle of femur

ACL- anterior cruciate ligament

166

this ligament prevents posterior displacement of femur and anterior displacement of tibia (and taut while extending leg)

ACL

167

this intracapsular knee ligament runs from intercondylar area of tibia superior, anterior and medial to attach at lateral surface of medial femoral condyle

PCL- posterior cruciate ligament

168

this ligament in the knee is taut when leg is flexed, prevents anterior displacement of femur and posterior tibial displacement

PCL

169

the ACL contains two bundles with separate functions. what are they?

anteromedial bundle (AMB) resists anterior tibial translation during flexion

posterolateral bundle (PLB) resist anterior tibial translation and tibial rotation in extension

170

what is the clinical test performed to determine if ACL is torn

anterior drawer sign

171

what is the clinical test performed to determine if PCL is torn

posterior drawer sign

172

menisci can move together during femur and tibial movement because they are joined by which ligament of the knee

transverse ligament

173

which meniscus of the knee is broader posteriorly and adheres to deep surface of TCL and can attach to both the ACL and PCL and tears more often

medial meniscus

174

which knee meniscus is smaller, nearly circular, joined to posterior cruciate ligament via meniscofemoral ligament, does not tear very often, and is the site where popliteus tendon passes by fibular collateral ligament

lateral meniscus

175

what is the unhappy triad of Odonahue knee injuries often occurring together?

ACL tear, TCL tear, medial meniscus torn

(if a boards question does NOT say Odonahue then lateral rather than medial meniscus is torn)

176

the function of foot arches is to absorb shock and adapt to surface and weight changes. what are the two foot arches

longitudinal arch (with a medial and lateral part)
transverse arch

177

the medial longitudinal arch of the foot is made up of which bones?

medial 3 metatarsals, cuneiforms, navicular, talus, calcaneus

178

the lateral longitudinal arch of the foot is made up of which bones?

lateral 2 metatarsals, cuboid, calcaneous

179

which bones make up the transverse arch of the foot?

cuboid, 3 cuneiforms, and metatarsal bones

180

tibialis anterior and posterior along with flexor hallucis lingua and intrinsic plantar muscles make up which component of the arches of the foot

dynamic

181

plantar aponeurosis, short and long plantar ligaments, plantar calcaneonavicular ligaments make up which component of the arches of the foot

passive

182

a passive fallen arch is primarily due to a laxity in which ligament

the spring ligament

183

flat feet (pea planus) normally develops as a result of fallen arches which causes stretching of plantar aponeurosis and plantar ligaments. which arches most commonly display this abnormality?

medial parts of longitudinal arch

184

flat feet (pea planus) normally develops as a result of fallen arches which causes stretching of plantar aponeurosis and plantar ligaments. specifically the calcaneonavicular ligament cannot support talus head causing what to happen

talar head displaces inferomedially becoming prominent

185

foot deformity characterized by lateral deviation of the great toe causing swelling of surrounding tissue

hallux valgus

186

what toe deformity causes rubbing of the medial aspect of the foot on the shoe causing an inflamed bursa (bunion) as well as thickened skin over proximal interphalangeal joints (corns)

hallux valgus

187

toe deformity where there is excess flexion in distal IP joint of toes 2-4

mallet toe

(from proximal to distal toe joints: normal, normal, flex)

188

toe deformity where there is excess extension at MP joint and flexion in proximal IP joint of toes 2-4 but usually 2 (distal IP joint is extended)

hammer toe

(from proximal to distal toe joints: extend, flex, extend)

189

toe deformity where in the BIG TOE there is excess extension at MP joint and flexion in proximal IP joint

trigger toe

(from proximal to distal toe joints: extend, flex, normal)

190

all toe deformities appear as a consequence of shortening of which muscles?

flexor muscles shorten and override lumbrical function

191

toe deformity characterized by hyperextension of MP joints and flexion of distal and proximal IP joint

claw toe

(from proximal to distal toe joints: extend, flex, flex)

192

at the ankle (talocrural) joint, the malleoli grip onto trochlea the strongest during which foot motion

dorsiflexion

193

what type of joint is the ankle

hinge, synovial

194

which medial ankle ligament stabilizes during eversion (very strong)

deltoid ligament (and to some degree plantar calcaneonavicular ligament)

195

what are the 4 component parts of the deltoid ligament in the ankle?

anterior tibiotalar, tibionavicular, tibiocalcaneal, and posterior tibiotalar part

196

the lateral ligaments of the ankle consist of 3 parts that attach the lateral malleolus to talus and calcareous. what are the 3 parts?

anterior talofibular, anterior tibiofibular ligament, and posterior tibiofibular ligament

197

when the foot is surgically amputated, it is commonly transected across the transverse tarsal joint which is made of which two tarsal joints

talonavicular
calcaneocuboid

198

the subtler (talocalcanean) joint is where the talus rests on calcaneus, its fibrous capsule is supported by the interosseous talocalcaneal ligament) and its main movements are what?

eversion, inversion

199

what is the most frequently injured joint in the body

ankle (usually inversion)

200

the leg is separated into anterior, lateral, and posterior divisions by what thick septa

crural fascia

201

the crural fascia thickens distally to form what

extensor retinaculum

202

which muscles are contained within the anterior leg compartment

FEET

fibularis tertius, extensor digitorum longus, extensor hallucis longus, tibialis anterior

203

what are the primary functions of the anterior leg compartment

dorsiflex, toe extension

204

which muscle of the anterior leg originates on the lateral tibial condyle and inserts on the medial surface of the medial cuneiform to dorsiflex and invert the foot?

tibialis anterior

205

which muscle of the anterior leg originates on the lateral tibial condyle and anterior fibular surface and inserts on each of the lateral 4 tendons of the digits at the extensor retinaculum

extensor digitorum longus

206

function of tibialis anterior

dorsiflex, invert

207

function of extensor digitorum longus

extend lateral 4 toes, dorsiflex

208

which anterior leg muscle originates on the anteroinferior fibula and inserts at the dorsum of the 5th metatarsal to produce dorsiflexion and eversion in some prople

fibularis tertius

209

which anterior leg muscle is lateral to the tibialis anterior and runs form anteromedial fibula and extensor digitorum longs to the base of distal phalanx of hallux

extensor hallucis longus

210

what are the functions of extensor hallucis longus

extend big toe, dorsiflex

211

what supplies innervation to the anterior leg compartment

deep fibular nerve ( a branch of the common fibular )

212

what does the deep fibular nerve supply ?

anterior leg compartment muscles, ankle joint, MP joints of foot, dorsal intrinsic foot muscles, "flip flop skin"

213

what vessel supplies blood to the anterior leg compartment

anterior tibial artery

214

what path do anterior tibial artery and del fibular nerve take to get from knee to inferior leg (hint: anterior)

they pass anteriorly to interosseus membrane between the EHL m. and Tibialis anterior m.

215

once the anterior tibial artery crosses the ankle joint what do we call it?

dorsalis pedis a.

216

what mm. are contained within the lateral compartment of the leg

fibularis brevis, fibularis longus

217

what nerve runs in the lateral compartment of the leg supplying the two muscles which lie here

superficial fibular n.

218

which muscle of the lateral leg compartment extends superficially from fibular head, posterior to lateral malleolus, to plantar surface of first metatarsal and medial cuneiform?

fibularis longus m

219

what is the function of fibularis longus

eversion, plantar flex

220

which tarsal bones have grooves or attachment sites for fibularis longs?

groove- 5th metatarsal, cuboid
insertion- 1st metatarsal, medial cuneiform

221

which lateral leg muscle runs from inferolateral tibia, descends posterior to lateral malleolus, and inserts on dorsal tuberosity of the 5th metatarsal

fibularis brevis m

222

what cutaneous innervation is the superficial fibular nerve responsible for?

anteroinferior leg, most of dorsal surface of foot and digits

223

what is the most commonly injured lower extremity nerve

common fibular nerve (b/c it wraps around fibular head)

224

what is the clinical manifestation of common fibular nerve functional deficit

foot drop (lose dorsiflexion and eversion)

heel strike difficult, high stepping gait, loss of sensation along anterolateral leg and dorsum of foot

225

which leg compartment is the only one without a distinct arterial branch running in it/ supplying it? what supplies blood to the muscles in this compartment?

lateral compartment

(supplied by branches that pass anteriorly from the fibular a.)

226

due to the "toughness" of crural fascia, trauma which causes hemorrhage, edema, and inflammation can result in the need for what procedure?

fasciotomy to relieve pressure (avoid ischemia)

227

repetitive trauma to which leg muscle causes "shin splints" (small tears in tibial periosteum)

tibialis anterior

228

shin splints are a mild form of what condition? Hint tibialis anterior swells with repetitive trauma

compartmental syndrome

229

which bones make up the hind foot

talus, calcaneus

230

which bones make up the mid foot

navicular, cuboid, cuneiforms

231

which bones make up the forefoot

metatarsals, phalanges

232

the extensor retinaculums of the foot assist in which movements

dorsiflexion, toe extension

233

what are the two surfaces of your foot called?

top- dorsum
bottom- plantar

234

laxity of the spring ligament is associated with fallen arch: which bones are connected by the spring ligament

also called plantar calcaneo-navicular ligament

235

the sustentaculum talk serves as an insertion site for which ankle ligament that also attach to the tibia?

tibiocalcaneal part of the medial (deltoid) ligament of the ankle

236

which tendon in the ankle joint is supported by a bursa?

calcaneal tendon

237

which muscles insert onto the calcaneal tendon

gastrocnemeus, soleus, plantaris

238

which side of the ankle joint is made up of "weaker" tendons and thus is more susceptible to sprain/ tearing

lateral (this is also why we cannot evert our foot as far as we can invert it)

239

when patient comes in with inversion sprain of the ankle which ligament is most likely stretched the furthest?

anterior talofibular ligament

(nicknamed: always tears first)

240

which lateral ankle ligaments are responsible for keeping the fibula in place?

calcaneofibular
anterior talofibular
posterior talofibular

241

when a patient has an inversion ankle sprain what is the order of tearing of the lateral ligaments?

ATFL
calcaneofibular
PTFL

242

which foot arch is mainly utilized for weight bearing

medial arch

243

which foot arch is mainly utilized for providing balance

lateral arch

244

which bone is part of both foot arches

calcaneous

245

the central fascia on the bottom surface of the foot is called what

plantar aponeurosis

246

overuse of running or high imp ace aerobics can often cause inflammation of plantar fascia (plantar fascists) and sometimes it gets so bad that it causes pain on the medial side of the foot when walking. What happens that causes this secondary tenderness?

heel spur- abnormal bony process often accompanied by a bursa that is inflamed and tender

247

which muscle of the foot originates on the calcaneus and causes abduction and flexion of the first digit

abductor hallucis

248

which muscle of the foot originates on the calcaneus and causes flexion of lateral 4 digits

flexor digitorum brevis

249

which muscle of the foot originates on the calcaneus and causes abduction and flexion of the little toe

abductor digiti minimi

250

which muscle of the foot originates on the calcaneus and assists FDL in flexing lateral 4 digits

quadratus plantae

251

which muscle of the foot originates on the tendon of FDL and flexes proximal phalanges, extends MP and DP of lateral 4 digits

lumbricals

252

which muscle of the foot originates on the plantar cuboid and cuneiforms and causes flexion of 1st digit

flexor hallucis brevis

253

which muscle of the foot originates on the base of metatarsals and plantar ligaments and functions to adduct 1st digit as well as assist in transverse arch medially

adductor hallucis

254

which muscle of the foot originates on the 5th metatarsal and flexes the proximal phalanx of 5th digit

flexor digit minimi brevis

255

which muscle of the foot originates on the plantar metatarsals and adducts digits 3-5 and flexes metatarsophalangeal joints

plantar interossei (3 of them we call them PAD's because they ADduct)

256

which muscle of the foot originates on the metatarsals 1-5 and abducts digits 2-4and flexes metatarsophalangeal joints

dorsal interossei (4 of them we call DAB's because they ABduct)

257

which muscle of the foot originates on the calcaneus and aids extensor digitorum longs in extending 4 medial toes and metatarsophalangeal and interphalangeal joints

extensor digitorum brevis

258

which muscle of the foot originates with extensor digitorum previs and aids in extending hallucis longs at MP joint

extensor hallucis brevis

259

which muscles of the foot are innervated by medial plantar nerve (S2-S3)?

abductor hallucis
flexor digitorum brevis
lumbricals (medial 1)
flexor hallucis brevis

260

which muscles of the foot are innervated by the lateral plantar nerve (S2-S3)

abductor digiti minimi
quadratus plantae
lumbricals (lateral 3)
adductor hallucis (deep branch of LPN)
flexor digit minimi brevis (superficial branch of LPN)
all interossei

261

which muscles of the foot are innervated by deep fibular nerve (L5 or S1)

extensor digitorum brevis and extensor hallucis brevis

262

layer one of the foot muscles includes

abductor digiti minimi
abductor hallucis
flexor digitorum brevis

263

layer two of the foot muscles includes

lumbricals and quadrates plantae

264

the lumbrical muscles of the foot lie within which tendon

flexor digitorum longus tendon

265

layer three of the foot muscles includes

adductor hallucis (both oblique and transverse head)
flexor halucis brevis
flexor digiti minimi

266

layer four of the foot muscles includes

plantar interossei (PAD)
dorsal interossei (DAB)
and tendons of fibularis longs and tibialis posterior mm.

267

the second digit of the foot only has which kind of interosseous muscles attached to it?

dorsal interossei (DAB's)
... since this toe is the "midline" of the foot moving either direction is considered abduction

268

what does cutaneous innervation in the "flip flop" region

deep fibular nerve

269

what supplies cutaneous innervation to the medial ankle

saphenous nerve

270

the tibial nerve leaves the posterior compartment and passes deep to the flexor retinaculum and then splits into what two nerves

medial and lateral plantar nerves

271

the tibial nerve leaves the posterior compartment and passes deep to the flexor retinaculum between the medial malleous and calcaneus which can pinch together causing what

tibial nerve entrapment (tarsal tunnel syndrome)

272

which of the two plantar nerves supplies more of the foot? which artery supplies more?

medial plantar n.
lateral plantar a.

273

the anterior tibial artery becomes what artery distally while also giving off lateral malleolar and lateral tarsal aa.?

dorsalis pedis a.

274

the dorsalis pedis a. gives rise to which two branches in the foot?

arcuate a (anastemoses with lateral tarsal)
deep plantar a (anastemoses with lateral plantar a. to form plantar arch)

275

what region of the foot receives blood supply from posterior tibial a

plantar surface

276

the deep fibular nerve runs through the foot adjacent to which artery

dorsalis pedis a.

277

what is the purpose of gastrulation

formation of 3 germ layers

278

when does neurulation happen in the developing embryo

week 3

279

at which somite in the developing embryo do we see a division between the brain and the spinal cord

between somite 4 and 5 (1-4 is brain)

280

where do autonomic pathways run in the spinal cord

lateral horn

281

from which spinal nerves do sympathetics arise

T1-L2

282

from which spinal nerves do parasympathetics arise

brainstem and S2-S4

283

the sulcus limitans divides the developing somites into what two plates?

alar and basal

284

what are the 3 zones in the developing spinal cord and in which zone do we find neural development

1. ventricular zone
2. intermediate zone (NEURONS DEVELOP HERE)
3. marginal zone

285

what is the only CNS cell that does not derive from neural tube formation?

microglial cells (derived from monocytes)

286

high levels of what signal activate PAX3 and 7 allowing SENSORY neurons to develop in the alar plate

BMP

287

BMP activates PAX3 which causes what to happen

tells alar plate to develop sensory neurons

288

high levels of what signal activate NKX allowing MOTOR neurons to develop in the basal plate

SHH

289

SHH activates NKX causing what to happen

tells basal plate to develop motor neurons

290

what are examples of cells derived from neural crest

dorsal root ganglia
sensory ganglia of spinal nerves
schwann cells
sympathetic ganglia

291

what do general somatic efferent neurons supply innervation to

somatic muscle

292

what do general visceral efferent neurons supply innervation to

smooth and cardiac autonomics

293

what do special visceral efferent neurons supply innervation to

muscle derived from pharyngeal arches

294

what do general somatic afferent neurons supply innervation to

sensory in skin, joint capsule, tendon, muscle

295

what do general visceral afferent neurons supply innervation to

sensory of visceral structures

296

what do special somatic afferent neurons supply innervation to

CN8 to hearing and CN2 to balance and height

297

what do special visceral afferent neurons supply innervation to

taste (CN7,9,10) and smell (CN1)

298

which segment of the nervous system has short and myelinated preganglionic neuron and a long unmyelinated postganglionic neuron

sympathetic autonomics

299

which segment of the nervous system has long and myelinated preganglionic neuron, synapses in wall of viscera, and a short unmyelinated postganglionic neuron

parasympathetic

300

what causes myelination in the CNS

oligodendrocytes

301

what causes myelination in the PNS

schwann

302

which tissues show up dark in T1 MRI

water, edema, inflammation, tumor, infection, hemmorage

303

which tissues appear bright on T1 MRI

fat, melanin, subacute hemmorage, protein rich fluid, slowly flowing blood

304

which tissues appear dark on T2 MRI

calcification, fibrous tissue, protein rich fluid

305

which tissues appear bright on T2 MRI

water, edema, inflammation, tumor, infection, subdural collection