PCM Flashcards

1
Q

gait cycle: average step length

A

14-16 inch

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

gait cycle: average cadence

A

90-120 steps/ min (higher by 6 in women)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

gait cycle: average speed

A

3 mph

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

gait cycle: definition

A

from heel strike to heel strike of the same foot

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

gait cycle: 2 phases

A

stance and swing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

gait cycle: positions

A

heel strike –> foot flat –> heel off –> toe off –>heel strike

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

gait cycle: “swing” phase occurs in between which foot positions

A

toe off to heel strike

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

gait cycle: “propulsion” is made of which 2 foot positions

A

heel off and toe off

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

whats the name for the foot joint connecting the 5 metatarsals to the distal most tarsal bones

A

lisfranc joint

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

whats the name for the foot joint connecting hind foot (calcareous and talus) to mid foot structures (cuneiforms, cuboid, and navicular)

A

midtarsal (chopart) joint

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

mm responsible for lowering foot to ground for “contact” phase of gait cycle

A

extensor digitorum longus, tibialis anterior

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

what must the tibia do after heel strike in order for calcaneus to evert and talus to drop (which unlocks mid tarsal joints for shock absorption)

A

internally rotate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

during mid stance, the body’s center of gravity shifts where

A

from behind to over the foot

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

as the body passes over mid-foot, it places ankle in maximal dorsiflexion. this puts maximal preload on what mm

A

gastroc-soleus complex

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

whats the term for the effect that occurs when 1st metatarsophalangeal joint extends resulting in plantar fascia that elevates the arch and further assists in foot supination

A

windlass effect

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

most problems with gait cycle occur during which phase

A

stance phase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

which part of gait cycle is also called initial contact

A

heel strike

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

which part of gait cycle is also called loading response

A

foot flat

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

which part of gait cycle is also called terminal stance

A

heel off

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

which part of gait cycle is also called pre swing

A

toe off (50-60% of the stance cycle is spent here)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

when the left foot is in mid stance where is the right foot

A

mid swing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

when the left foot is in initial contact where is the right foot

A

terminal stance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

which gait cycle phase provides limb and trunk stability

A

mid stance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

which gait cycle phase provides weight release from stationary foot

A

pre swing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
we have single limb support for how much of our gait cycle
80%
26
how much does your center of gravity move in a superior/ inferior motion during gait cycle
less than 2 in
27
how does our center of gravity shift superior/ inferior during gait cycle
early stance: weight transferred to foot. the hip on the non weight bearing side drops 2 in
28
how do we "lengthen" the femur during gait cycle
innominate (pelvis) rotates anterior 4 ish degrees
29
which gait disturbance: adopted limp to avoid pain on weight bearing structures, short stance phase on affected side
antalgic gait
30
which gait disturbance: stiffness in affected joints, plantar flex opposite to affected side to increase clearance, affected leg is circumducted, step is shorter
arthrogenic gait
31
which gait disturbance: unsteady, uncoordinated walk, broad base of support needed, loss of sensation/ control, staggering, watches feet when walking
ataxic gait
32
which gait disturbance: leg stiff, no flexion of knee and ankle, form a semicircle with rotation on each step
hemiplegic gait
33
which gait disturbance: full foot drop, hip raised high to clear toe, quiet gait usually
steppage (foot drop, high step, neuropathic) gait
34
which gait disturbance: small shuffling steps, hypokinesia (slowness of movement), reduced stride length and walking speed while cadence rate is increased
parkinsonian (festinating) gait
35
What are some causes of antalgic gait
Trauma, osteoarthritis, pelvic girdle pain, coxalgia, tarsal tunnel syndrome
36
What are some causes of arthrogenic gait
Osteoarthritis of hip/ knee, Post orthopedic surgery
37
What are some causes of ataxic gait
Vestibular, cerebellar hemmorrhage, friedreich's ataxia, pontine cerebellar atrophy, chronic mercury poisoning, posterior fossa tumor, alcoholism, drugs
38
What are some causes of stoppage gait
Peroneal nerve injury (lumbar disc herneation, MS, Giuliani barre, parkinsons)
39
Abnormal depression of the chest
Pectus excavatum
40
Abnormal expansion of the chest (pigeon chest)
Pectus carinatum
41
Curvature of cervical spine
Lordosis
42
Curvature of thoracic spine
Kyphosis
43
Curvature of lumbar spine
Lordosis
44
Curvature of sacral spine
Kyphosis
45
What does the acronym NURSE stand for
Name, understand, respect, support, explore
46
What does. CAGE stand for and when do we use it
Men. >14 drinks per week. Or 4 per day | Women >>>7. Drinks per week or 3 per day
47
What are the 5. Ps of sexual questioning
``` Partners Prevention Protection Practices Past history of STDs ```
48
What does SAFE stand for
Safety, abused, friends/ family, emergency plan For domestic violence
49
Another name for fibrous joint
Synarthrosis
50
Another name for cartilagenous joints
Amphiarthrosis
51
Another name for synovial joints
Diarthrosis
52
3 fibrous joints
Cranial sutures, syndesmosis (tibiofibular), gomphosis
53
2 kinds of cartilaginous joints
Hyaline- synchondrosis (costochondral/ epiphyseal plate) | Fibrocartilage- symphyses (intervertebral disc)
54
What covers the ends. Of bones that are involved in synovial. Joints to reduce friction
Hyaline cartilage
55
Articular (hyaline) cartilage at synovial joints does not have blood or nerve supply so how does it get nourishment?
Synovial fluid
56
Whats hiltons law
Nerves supplying a joint also supply the muscles moving the joint and skin covering it
57
What is wolfs law
Bone is increased or reabsorbed wherever needed
58
Complete loss of articular cartilage, thickening of subchondral bone
Eburnation
59
Fragments of cartilage or bone floating free in synovial fluid (often in degenerative joint disease)
Joint mice (osteochondromatosis)
60
What type of arthritis is not inflammatory
Osteoarthritis is erosion of cartilage that buffers the bones
61
Whats in the central compartment of the hip
Labrum, ligamentum teres, articular surface
62
What tests. Can be performed to assess central compartment. Of hip
Log roll, c sign, Labral load, labral distract, Scour, apprehension, faber
63
What is in the peripheral compartment of the hip
Femoral neck, synovial lining
64
What tests can assess the peripheral compartment of hip
Log roll, Ely's, rectus femoris
65
What is in the lateral compartment of hip
Glut min, piriformis, IT band, trochanteric bursae
66
What is in the anterior compartment fo hip
Iliopsoas insertion, iliopsoas bursae
67
Name the test: you ask a patient to stand with all weight on the affected leg and watch for the opposite hip to drop
Trendelenburg sign
68
DTR for. The knee tests what spinal nerve segment
L4
69
What gets injured in the unhappy triad fo the knee
ACL, MCL, medial meniscus
70
DTR of achilles tendon is checking nerve function at what spinal segment
S1
71
What spinal nerve segments are tested by biceps. Brachii DTR
C5
72
What spinal nerve segments are tested by brachii radialis DTR
C6
73
What spinal nerve segments are tested by triceps DTR
C7
74
Shoulder. Muscles that do flexion
Anterior deltoid, coracobrachialis
75
Shoulder muscles that do extension
Latissimus dorsi, teres major
76
When carrying angle is reduced
Cubitus varus
77
When carrying angle is increased
Cubitus valgus
78
Varus stress test of elbow looking at what joint structure
LCL: radial collateral ligament
79
Valgus stress test of elbow looking at what joint structure
MCL: ulnar collateral ligament
80
Radial head subluxation due to tear of the ___ is nursemaids elbow
Annular ligament
81
What elbow motion is coupled with pronation
Ulnar abduction and posterior radial head glide
82
What elbow motion is coupled with supination
Ulnar adduction, radial head anterior glide
83
How does colles fracture present
(Distal radius fracture) Dorsal and radial displacement of wrist/ hand
84
Dequervain syndrome will give what positive test
Finkelstein
85
How can you test for carpal tunnel syndrome
Phalens, tinnel, ok sign