NLVPD Procedure CH 11 Flashcards
(391 cards)
1
Q
Who is responsible for reviewing and updating the major emergencies or disasters plan?
A
The Homeland Security/Emergency Management Liaison
This individual ensures the plan is current and effective.
2
Q
How often must the major emergencies or disasters plan be updated?
A
Annually
Regular updates are essential to maintain preparedness.
3
Q
In an emergency concerning public health, who must be contacted for authorization for emergency purchases?
A
The Chief of Police or designee
This ensures proper oversight and accountability.
4
Q
Which of the following is NOT typically authorized for emergency purchases?
A
General office supplies
Only essential equipment and services are authorized.
5
Q
Who is responsible for ensuring that changes to plot maps are updated in the Department’s computer system?
A
The Assistant Chief or designee
This role is crucial for accurate and up-to-date operational planning.
6
Q
What division will routinely update all neighborhood map files for each Area Command?
A
The Crime Analysis Division
This division plays a key role in maintaining situational awareness.
7
Q
Who will complete monthly inspections of equipment to be used during unusual occurrences?
A
The Special Operations Division
Regular inspections ensure readiness and safety.
8
Q
What is included in the monthly inspections conducted by the Special Operations Division?
A
Location and maintenance of equipment
This process is vital for operational efficiency.
9
Q
Who assumes command of the incident when the Watch Commander arrives at the scene of a critical incident?
A
The Watch Commander becomes the Incident Commander
This transition is important for effective incident management.
10
Q
Which of the following is considered a critical incident or unusual occurrence?
A
A hazardous material spill of any type or size
Such incidents require immediate and coordinated response.
11
Q
Which incident does NOT require notification of the Watch Commander?
A
A power outage that does not require state assistance
Not all incidents necessitate immediate command notification.
12
Q
What type of incidents would require the utilization of the Mobile Command Center (MCC)?
A
All emergency incidents as requested by other jurisdictions
The MCC is essential for multi-jurisdictional coordination.
13
Q
What is the purpose of the Emergency Mobilization Plan?
A
Alert personnel to respond to duty when the demands exceed capabilities
This plan is critical for managing large-scale incidents.
14
Q
Who is responsible for requesting authorization to implement the Emergency Mobilization Plan?
A
The Incident Commander, with the concurrence of the Assistant Chief
This ensures a structured approach to mobilization.
15
Q
Who directs the implementation of Departmental emergency plans A, B, or C?
A
The Chief of Police or designee
Central command is vital for coordinated responses.
16
Q
After being notified of a mobilization, personnel should report to a _______.
A
predetermined staging area fully equipped for duty
Staging areas enhance readiness and organization.
17
Q
What is the responsibility of the Incident Commander after mobilization authorization?
A
Distribute equipment to officers at the staging area or in the field
Equipment distribution is crucial for operational success.
18
Q
If the emergency exceeds the NLVPD’s capabilities, who will the Chief of Police notify?
A
The City Manager
This ensures higher-level support and resource allocation.
19
Q
In Plan B, how many shifts are officers required to work?
A
12-hour shifts with scheduled days off
This structure helps manage personnel fatigue during emergencies.
20
Q
Who is responsible for ensuring proper staffing during an emergency mobilization?
A
Incident Command
Staffing is critical for effective response and management.
21
Q
If a supervisor cannot make contact with a subordinate, who is responsible for notifying the subordinate’s personnel?
A
The ranking supervisor
Maintaining communication is key during mobilization.
22
Q
When activating SWAT personnel, who notifies the Communications Division?
A
The SWAT Commander
This ensures timely and organized deployment of specialized units.
23
Q
Where should personnel report unless an alternate staging area has been established?
A
The predetermined assembly areas
These areas are designated for efficient mobilization.
24
Q
Which personnel will be using their normally assigned call signs during mobilization?
A
All personnel, including those with the rank of lieutenant or higher
Consistent call signs aid in clear communication.
25
If alternate transportation is required for personnel, who will handle the arrangements?
The Incident Commander
## Footnote
This role is essential for ensuring personnel can reach assignments.
26
Which division will assist with the broadcast of the mobilization on local radio and television?
The Public Information Officer (PIO)
## Footnote
The PIO manages communication with the public and media.
27
What is the primary responsibility of the Incident Commander during mobilization?
Oversee personnel assignment and coordination with other agencies
## Footnote
Effective oversight ensures a unified response.
28
What are the predetermined assembly areas for the Northwest and South Area Command personnel?
Their respective Area Command briefing areas
## Footnote
These areas facilitate organized briefings and deployments.
29
The Assistant Chief is responsible for planning responses to _______.
unusual occurrences
## Footnote
This role is vital for effective incident management.
30
In the event of an emergency situation, the _______ shall assume command of all police operations.
Watch Commander
## Footnote
This individual is crucial for maintaining command structure.
31
The first officer at the scene of an incident must assess and report the nature of the situation and _______.
establish the perimeter
## Footnote
Securing the area is essential for safety and investigation.
32
The Incident Commander is responsible for ensuring that _______ are established for safety.
inner and outer perimeters
## Footnote
These perimeters help control the scene and protect the public.
33
The _______ section is responsible for providing resources and support needed to meet operational objectives.
Logistics
## Footnote
This section is vital for operational efficiency.
34
The Incident Commander is authorized to request assistance from the _______ in case of martial law.
National Guard
## Footnote
Collaboration with military resources may be necessary in extreme situations.
35
If mass arrests are to be made, the _______ will be requested to respond for coordination.
Corrections Commander
## Footnote
Coordination is key for managing large-scale arrests.
36
The Incident Commander ensures that all personnel are provided with proper _______ during an incident.
food, water, and medical attention
## Footnote
Personnel welfare is critical for maintaining operational effectiveness.
37
When the mass booking procedure is activated, offenders must ensure that any _______ offenders are separated from adults.
juvenile
## Footnote
Protecting vulnerable populations is a key procedural aspect.
38
The Mass Booking procedure includes taking photographs of the arrestee and _______.
completing a pre-booking form
## Footnote
Proper documentation is essential for legal processes.
39
_______ officers are responsible for transporting arrestees to the designated facility.
Arresting
## Footnote
These officers ensure safe and secure transport.
40
If an incident exceeds the capabilities of on-duty personnel, the _______ Plan may be implemented.
Emergency Mobilization
## Footnote
This plan provides a framework for scaling up response efforts.
41
The PIO's role is to serve as the conduit for _______ to internal and external stakeholders.
situation updates
## Footnote
Effective communication is crucial during incidents.
42
After the conclusion of the response to an incident, all supervisors must complete a report detailing actions taken and submit it to the _______.
Incident Commander
## Footnote
Reporting is essential for accountability and learning.
43
The Incident Commander submits an after-action report to the Chief of Police within _______ days.
14
## Footnote
Timely reporting helps in evaluating response effectiveness.
44
When transporting arrestees, all individuals will be placed in _______ restraints.
waist/belly
## Footnote
Proper restraints are crucial for safety during transport.
45
In the event of combative behavior, arrestees will be _______ and placed in a separate location.
isolated
## Footnote
Isolation ensures safety for both officers and arrestees.
46
When completing the mass booking process, officers will ensure that arresting paperwork is placed in a _______.
plastic bag
## Footnote
This helps to keep documentation secure and organized.
47
The Incident Commander must establish a liaison with the _______ if deaths result from the incident.
Coroner’s Office
## Footnote
This liaison is important for legal and investigative purposes.
48
The Incident Commander retains command over _______ officers assigned to the incident.
all
## Footnote
Maintaining command over all personnel is critical for effective management.
49
A protest can include various forms of dissent, which are categorized into three types: __________, __________, and __________.
Peaceful Demonstrations, Civil Disobedience, Riots
## Footnote
Understanding these types is crucial for law enforcement response.
50
What types of dissent can a protest include?
Peaceful Demonstrations, Civil Disobedience, Riots
## Footnote
These categories help to classify the nature of protests and their potential impact on public order.
51
In the event of a civil disobedience protest, what is the supervisor's primary action?
Communicate with protest leader(s) to de-escalate potential conflicts
## Footnote
This action aims to prevent escalation and maintain peace during protests.
52
What constitutes a riot?
Destruction of property, arson, looting
## Footnote
Riots are characterized by violent actions that threaten public safety.
53
When a riot is deemed illegal, what order is issued?
Dispersal order
## Footnote
This order specifies the time frame for dispersal and consequences for non-compliance.
54
What is the Buffer Zone in the context of protests?
Safe area
## Footnote
It is established to create a physical separation between opposing protest groups.
55
What should the first arriving supervisor assess at a protest?
Size and violence level
## Footnote
This assessment helps determine the appropriate response to the situation.
56
If the situation exceeds NLVPD resources, who will the Watch Commander consider requesting assistance from?
LVMPD and/or neighboring agencies
## Footnote
Coordination with other agencies is essential for managing large disturbances.
57
What is the immediate action for the first officer on scene during a disturbance?
Notify Main Base
## Footnote
This notification ensures that the command structure is informed and can respond appropriately.
58
What code should be announced if an inmate disturbance occurs?
Code Red
## Footnote
This code indicates a serious situation requiring immediate attention.
59
What should the responding supervisor broadcast after a disturbance is under control?
Code Green
## Footnote
This code signifies that the situation is stabilized and normal operations can resume.
60
What documentation is required after a riot or disturbance?
Injuries
## Footnote
Video and photographs of injuries are crucial for post-incident analysis and reports.
61
What unit will be sent for mutual aid upon request from another jurisdiction?
PSU
## Footnote
The PSU provides specialized support during critical incidents.
62
What may be used to quell an inmate riot?
Restraint and control techniques
## Footnote
These techniques aim to minimize harm while restoring order.
63
What is the supervisor's first responsibility during a disturbance?
Gather records of inmate participants
## Footnote
Collecting records helps in understanding the dynamics of the disturbance.
64
Within how many days must the Incident Commander submit an After Action report?
14
## Footnote
Timely reports are essential for reviewing responses and improving future operations.
65
Who must the Watch Commander/Incident Commander contact before activating the NLVPD CNT or SWAT teams?
Tactical Commander
## Footnote
This contact ensures that the correct protocols are followed for incident activation.
66
What basic incident information must the Watch Commander/Incident Commander provide?
Type of incident, possible victims, suspect’s identity, time of day
## Footnote
This information is critical for assessing the situation and planning the response.
67
What is the responsibility of the Tactical Commander?
Location of the command post and deployment
## Footnote
This decision is vital for effective incident management.
68
What must the command post accommodate according to the Tactical Commander?
Up to 13 vehicles including two armored BearCat-type vehicles
## Footnote
Adequate space is necessary to support ongoing operations and ensure safety.
69
Who initiates the call-out/activation procedure?
NLVPD Communications Division (Dispatch)
## Footnote
Dispatch plays a key role in coordinating responses during incidents.
70
What information is included in the call-out pages sent by Dispatch?
Incident location, command post location, synopsis
## Footnote
This information is essential for all responding units to understand the situation.
71
Which teams must the Dispatcher check on the call-out page?
CNT, SWAT, and Radio Systems representative
## Footnote
Ensuring all necessary teams are activated is crucial for a coordinated response.
72
What is one responsibility of the CNT and/or SWAT Team Leader?
Necessary equipment
## Footnote
Ensuring that the team has the right tools is vital for the success of their operations.
73
To whom does the CNT report during an incident?
Tactical Commander
## Footnote
This reporting structure helps maintain clear lines of command and communication.
74
Who should be contacted for questions regarding legal standing at the incident location?
Detective Bureau
## Footnote
Legal advice is essential to ensure that actions taken during an incident comply with the law.
75
What might a call-out page include regarding an armed suspect?
Handgun
## Footnote
This detail is crucial for assessing the level of threat and preparing the response.
76
Who can activate the SWAT Unit in the absence of a Division Commander?
Watch Commander
## Footnote
This ensures that there is always a clear command structure in place for emergencies.
77
What types of incidents will activate the SWAT Unit?
Barricaded suspect, hostage situations, officer/citizen rescues, dignitary protection
## Footnote
These scenarios require specialized tactical responses.
78
Who becomes the Incident Commander during a hostage/barricaded subject situation?
Watch Commander
## Footnote
This role is crucial for overseeing police operations in critical incidents.
79
What is the first action officers should take on scene during a hostage situation?
Secure the area
## Footnote
Securing the area helps prevent further escalation and protects civilians.
80
What is established to prevent outsiders from accessing the area during a critical incident?
Secondary perimeter
## Footnote
This perimeter helps to maintain control of the situation and ensures safety.
81
Who continues evacuation procedures to establish a sterile area?
Incident Commander
## Footnote
Establishing a sterile area is necessary for effective police operations.
82
If the SWAT Unit is committed to action, who assumes control of the incident?
Tactical Commander
## Footnote
This ensures that there is a clear command structure during dynamic situations.
83
What is the goal of the Crisis Negotiation Team (CNT)?
Persuasion and communication
## Footnote
The CNT aims to resolve situations peacefully and avoid escalation.
84
Who coordinates the activities of the Crisis Negotiation Team?
Crisis Negotiation Team Coordinator
## Footnote
This role ensures that the team is effective and well-prepared for incidents.
85
Who directs contact with the hostage taker during negotiations?
Tactical Commander
## Footnote
This ensures that all communication is controlled and strategic.
86
Who do Detective Bureau personnel report to at the field command post?
Personnel Control Officer
## Footnote
This reporting structure is essential for managing resources and personnel during incidents.
87
What type of radio channel is dedicated for the operation?
Non-primary
## Footnote
A dedicated channel ensures clear communication among responding units.
88
To whom does the Incident Commander submit an after-action report?
Chief of Police
## Footnote
This report is important for reviewing the incident and improving future responses.
89
What may the Incident Commander appoint in their absence?
Media Liaison
## Footnote
This role is crucial for managing public information during incidents.
90
What does __________ refer to?
an unlawful flight from custody through the use of force or deceit
## Footnote
Answer: b) Escape
91
An __________ is characterized by an unlawful release from custody due to clerical error or misinformation.
Erroneous Release
## Footnote
Answer: c) Erroneous Release
92
What does __________ mean?
an absence from custody that is not authorized
## Footnote
Answer: a) Unauthorized Absence
93
When an escape is observed, the staff member should notify __________.
Main Base
## Footnote
Answer: b) Main Base
94
After an escape is reported, Main Base will broadcast a __________.
CODE RED
## Footnote
Answer: b) CODE RED
95
Who will make the initial decision to pursue the escapee(s)?
Officer observing the escape
## Footnote
Answer: c) Officer observing the escape
96
The escapee’s __________ will be pulled for historical reference.
Inmate Master File
## Footnote
Answer: b) Inmate Master File
97
Who should be contacted if an escapee is under contract?
Proper agency
## Footnote
Answer: b) Proper agency
98
After apprehending the escapee(s), all individuals and agencies alerted will be __________.
Contacted
## Footnote
Answer: b) Contacted
99
What should be made of the incident documenting all aspects of the escape?
Photographic and written record
## Footnote
Answer: c) Photographic and written record
100
The person discovering an erroneous release will notify the on-duty __________.
NLVCCC Watch Commander
## Footnote
Answer: b) NLVCCC Watch Commander
101
Who is responsible for investigating and confirming an erroneous release?
NLVCCC Watch Commander
## Footnote
Answer: c) NLVCCC Watch Commander
102
Who will notify the Assistant Chief about the erroneous release?
Corrections Captain
## Footnote
Answer: b) Corrections Captain
103
Who will notify the victim if the inmate was charged with a violent crime?
Assistant Chief of the NLVCCC or designee
## Footnote
Answer: b) Assistant Chief of the NLVCCC or designee
104
The person responsible for the erroneous release must write a __________.
Memo
## Footnote
Answer: b) Memo
105
What is the first priority at an aircraft accident scene?
Protect and assist the public
## Footnote
Answer: b) Protect and assist the public
106
What must be established quickly to preserve the scene?
Security perimeter
## Footnote
Answer: b) Security perimeter
107
The Watch Commander assumes command until relieved by a __________.
Senior command officer
## Footnote
Answer: b) Senior command officer
108
The first officer on the scene must establish the __________.
Critical zone
## Footnote
Answer: b) Critical zone
109
In case of a fire, the __________ has primary responsibility until the threat is removed.
Fire Department
## Footnote
Answer: b) Fire Department
110
The first officer must inform __________ about the incident.
The Incident Commander
## Footnote
Answer: b) The Incident Commander
111
If nuclear contamination is suspected, what should be done?
Evacuate all persons except firefighting and rescue personnel
## Footnote
Answer: b) Evacuate all persons except firefighting and rescue personnel
112
Who is responsible for coordinating with the FAA for a temporary flight restriction?
Incident Commander
## Footnote
Answer: b) Detective Bureau
113
What ensures that roadways are passable for emergency vehicles?
Traffic Section
## Footnote
Answer: a) Traffic Section
114
Who permits authorized news personnel to the scene of a civil aircraft accident?
City PIO
## Footnote
Answer: c) Authorized news personnel
115
What must the Detective Bureau obtain from all witnesses at the accident scene?
Names, addresses, and telephone numbers
## Footnote
Answer: c) Names, addresses, and telephone numbers
116
The Watch Commander must notify __________ in case of deaths from an aircraft accident.
The Coroner Medical Examiner
## Footnote
Answer: c) The Coroner Medical Examiner
117
Who coordinates to establish a temporary morgue in case of multiple deaths?
Coroner Medical Examiner
## Footnote
Answer: c) Coroner Medical Examiner
118
The __________ is responsible for monitoring safety conditions.
Safety Officer
## Footnote
Answer: b) Safety Officer
119
What is the primary responsibility of a patrol officer responding to a bomb threat?
Conduct a search for the bomb using establishment personnel
## Footnote
Answer: B
120
When responding to a bomb threat against a vehicle, what should the officer do?
Only perform a visual inspection without opening doors, trunk, or hood
## Footnote
Answer: B
121
In a bomb extortion case, who makes the decisions regarding compliance?
The representative of the establishment
## Footnote
Answer: B
122
What is the role of communications dispatch when a bomb threat is reported?
To notify the Watch Commander and patrol supervisor
## Footnote
Answer: B
123
Who is responsible for making notifications when an explosive device is found?
The communications dispatcher
## Footnote
Answer: B
124
What should be done when personnel discover a suspected explosive device?
Wait for instructions from the LVMPD ARMOR Section
## Footnote
Answer: B
125
How far should the evacuation perimeter be established when a bomb threat is located?
100 feet inside, 400 feet outside, and one floor above and below in multi-story buildings
## Footnote
Answer: B
126
What is the role of the LVMPD Explosive Detection Dog?
To search for explosive substances or evidence
## Footnote
Answer: B
127
Who should approve the request for the LVMPD explosive detection dog?
The LVMPD Watch Commander and on-duty senior area command lieutenant
## Footnote
Answer: B
128
In the event of a weapons of mass destruction incident, who is the lead agency?
LVMPD ARMOR Section
## Footnote
Answer: B
129
What action should officers take when responding to a weapons of mass destruction scene?
Remain cautious and avoid touching suspicious objects
## Footnote
Answer: B
130
What should be avoided near a potentially explosive device?
Use of radios and mobile phones due to the risk of detonation
## Footnote
Answer: A
131
Who is responsible for processing the crime scene in the event of an explosion with injury or death?
CSI Bureau
## Footnote
Answer: A
132
What is the recommended action when responding to an explosion that causes minimal damage?
Dispatch a patrol officer to confirm detonation
## Footnote
Answer: B
133
What should be considered before requesting the explosive detection dog?
The time before detonation, search feasibility, and personnel safety
## Footnote
Answer: B
134
What is the first priority in hazardous materials incidents?
Minimize loss of life and property
## Footnote
Answer: b) loss of life and property
135
Actions during a hazardous materials incident should focus on saving or protecting __________.
human life to the extent possible
## Footnote
Answer: c) human life to the extent possible
136
If the hazardous material is identified, it is important to __________.
notify qualified agencies for prompt cleanup
## Footnote
Answer: b) notify qualified agencies or personnel for prompt cleanup and disposal
137
The first officer(s) on the scene should stay __________ from the hazardous materials incident.
upwind
## Footnote
Answer: b) upwind
138
The first supervisor should establish the command post at a __________ distance from the scene.
safe, upwind
## Footnote
Answer: c) safe, upwind
139
When a hazardous material is on fire, the minimum perimeter for evacuation should be __________.
1000 feet
## Footnote
Answer: c) 1000 feet
140
Who is responsible for coordinating activities with outside agencies during a hazardous materials incident?
Incident Commander or Watch Commander
## Footnote
Answer: b) outside agencies
141
What should the Public Information Officer (PIO) do during a hazardous materials incident?
Establish a location outside the safety perimeter for media personnel
## Footnote
Answer: c) establish a location outside the safety perimeter for media personnel
142
If a hazardous materials incident involves a vehicle accident, the Incident Commander may request __________.
CSI Technician
## Footnote
Answer: a) CSI Technician
143
The Traffic Unit Personnel’s primary responsibility is __________.
traffic control and the outer perimeter
## Footnote
Answer: b) traffic control and the outer perimeter
144
Communications Personnel must notify the __________ of the nature of the incident.
Watch Commander
## Footnote
Answer: c) Watch Commander
145
The Patrol Personnel is responsible for __________.
controlling the crowd and assisting emergency personnel
## Footnote
Answer: b) controlling the crowd and assisting emergency personnel
146
What is the primary responsibility of Communications Personnel in an incident?
Notify the Watch Commander of the nature of the incident
## Footnote
This ensures a proper response and coordination of resources.
147
What is the Patrol Personnel responsible for?
Controlling the crowd and assisting emergency personnel
## Footnote
This role is critical in maintaining order during emergencies.
148
Who does the Operations Captain designate as the Intelligence Officer in the Dignitary Protection Plan?
An officer of command rank
## Footnote
This designation is crucial for effective management during dignitary visits.
149
What does the SWAT Commander coordinate during dignitary protection?
Issuance of designated vehicles, body armor, and special equipment
## Footnote
These resources are essential for ensuring the safety of the dignitary.
150
What is the role of the Intelligence Officer in the Dignitary Protection Plan?
Serve as a source of information to the SWAT Commander
## Footnote
They do not perform enforcement activities.
151
What should the SWAT personnel conduct in preparation for a dignitary's visit?
An advance inspection of sites and facilities
## Footnote
This includes identifying emergency medical facilities.
152
What is the Operations Captain responsible for in the Special Events Plan?
Planning and control of all special events
## Footnote
This ensures that events are conducted smoothly and safely.
153
During special event planning, what should be estimated?
Crowds, activity, traffic, and expected crime problems
## Footnote
This helps in preparing for potential issues.
154
What should be included in the operational instructions for a special event?
A time schedule for dates and times of special phases of the event
## Footnote
This is critical for coordination and execution.
155
What type of strikes involves participants aiming to prevent access and potentially get arrested?
Demonstrations with an obstructive purpose
## Footnote
This type of protest can escalate tensions.
156
What type of force should police use when making arrests during a demonstration?
Reasonable force
## Footnote
This is necessary to ensure compliance without unnecessary harm.
157
What is the protocol if a 'Hot Call' is received during a community-wide emergency?
Respond immediately
## Footnote
Timely response can save lives and mitigate situations.
158
Which agency is responsible for determining if an AMBER Alert should be activated?
NLVPD (North Las Vegas Police Department)
## Footnote
This agency assesses the criteria for activation.
159
What is NOT a requirement for activating an AMBER Alert?
The child must have been missing for at least 24 hours
## Footnote
An AMBER Alert can be activated immediately under certain conditions.
160
What should the Incident Commander ensure is available for mass arrests if necessary?
Flex-cuffs
## Footnote
These are essential tools for managing large-scale arrests.
161
What is the expected action for a Level 2 emergency call?
Refer the call to a station or EPolice
## Footnote
This helps prioritize resources for more urgent situations.
162
What should be done if a demonstrator refuses to cooperate during an arrest?
Check if they have a disability requiring special transport adjustments
## Footnote
This is important for ensuring humane treatment.
163
What is the minimum time a child must be missing for an AMBER Alert to be considered?
24 hours
## Footnote
The child must have been missing for at least 24 hours.
164
Which agency is responsible for determining if an AMBER Alert should be activated?
NLVPD (North Las Vegas Police Department)
## Footnote
NLVPD is the agency tasked with this responsibility.
165
How is a child defined for the purposes of an AMBER Alert?
A person under 18 years of age, or over 18 if they have the mental capacity of someone under 18
## Footnote
This definition is critical for the activation of AMBER Alerts.
166
An AMBER Alert may be activated within _______ hours of the initial report, unless extenuating circumstances exist.
2
## Footnote
This time frame is crucial for the timely response to abductions.
167
Who can request the activation of an AMBER Alert for out-of-state cases?
Law enforcement officials from outside the state to the Nevada Department of Public Safety
## Footnote
This allows for broader communication in abduction cases.
168
Who is authorized to activate the AMBER Alert?
The On-Call Detective Bureau Supervisor or Watch Commander
## Footnote
This individual has the authority to initiate the alert.
169
What is the responsibility of the Public Information Officer (PIO) in the AMBER Alert process?
Completing the AMBER Alert Activation Form and providing information for the activation
## Footnote
The PIO plays a key role in communication.
170
Which entity administers the Nevada AMBER Alert Program?
Nevada AMBER Alert Review Committee
## Footnote
This committee oversees the program's implementation and effectiveness.
171
The Nevada AMBER Alert Review Committee is responsible for all of the following EXCEPT:
Supplying the public with rewards for information
## Footnote
This is not within their responsibilities.
172
How often do officers and dispatchers receive training on the AMBER Alert system?
Annually
## Footnote
Regular training ensures that personnel are prepared to respond effectively.
173
To activate a Nevada Silver Alert, the person must be at least ________ years old.
60
## Footnote
This age requirement is a key factor in the activation of Silver Alerts.
174
What type of circumstances must be present for a Silver Alert to be activated?
Suspicious or unexplained
## Footnote
These circumstances indicate potential danger.
175
Which agency must conduct an investigation to verify the circumstances of a Silver Alert?
NLVPD (North Las Vegas Police Department)
## Footnote
This investigation is essential to ensure proper activation.
176
A Silver Alert can only be activated if the disappearance is still within ________ hours.
72
## Footnote
Timeliness is crucial for locating missing persons.
177
How often will the Nevada Department of Public Safety broadcast an attempt to locate for the missing person after a Silver Alert is activated?
Every 4 hours
## Footnote
This frequent broadcasting helps in locating the missing individual.
178
Which action is NOT taken by the NLVPD to activate the Silver Alert?
Calls the media outlets directly
## Footnote
They do not contact media directly as part of the activation process.
179
For how long will the Nevada Department of Public Safety activate the Silver Alert?
48 hours
## Footnote
This duration is set for the alert's effectiveness.
180
If an extension of the Silver Alert is needed, when must the NLVPD request it?
Prior to or during the 23rd hour notification
## Footnote
This timing is critical for maintaining the alert.
181
The Silver Alert will be canceled when:
The NLVPD submits a cancellation request form
## Footnote
This is the official process for canceling an alert.
182
Once a Silver Alert is activated, which partner is NOT notified?
National Weather Service
## Footnote
They are not involved in the Silver Alert notification process.
183
The concept of __________ is that all human blood and certain human body fluids are treated as if known to be infectious for communicable diseases and bloodborne pathogens.
b) Universal Precautions
## Footnote
Universal Precautions are essential for infection control in healthcare settings.
184
Which of the following is NOT a common source of communicable diseases in the occupational setting?
d) Talking to an infected person
## Footnote
Direct contact with infected materials is a primary source of transmission.
185
Hepatitis B (HBV) is primarily transmitted through __________.
c) Blood to blood contact
## Footnote
Understanding transmission routes is crucial for prevention.
186
An __________ is an exposure to blood or other potentially infectious materials resulting from an employee’s duties.
a) Exposure Incident
## Footnote
Immediate reporting of exposure incidents is vital for health monitoring.
187
The most common high-risk exposure includes __________.
b) Blood or body fluid contact with mucous membranes
## Footnote
Protecting mucous membranes is critical in healthcare environments.
188
All employees of NLVPD should practice __________ when exposed to body fluids, blood, or respiratory droplets.
a) Universal Precautions
## Footnote
Consistent application of Universal Precautions helps reduce infection risk.
189
__________ is the use of physical or chemical means to remove or destroy bloodborne pathogens on a surface or item.
b) Decontamination
## Footnote
Decontamination procedures are essential for maintaining a safe environment.
190
__________ refers to objects that can penetrate the skin, such as needles and scalpels, which may be contaminated.
a) Contaminated Sharps
## Footnote
Proper disposal and handling of contaminated sharps are crucial for safety.
191
The most important source of communicable diseases in the occupational setting is __________.
c) Blood
## Footnote
Bloodborne pathogens pose a significant risk in healthcare and emergency services.
192
When responding to an incident involving body fluids, employees should avoid __________.
b) Eating or drinking
## Footnote
Consuming food or beverages can increase the risk of pathogen transmission.
193
The risk of transmission of HIV, HBV, and HCV from body fluids like sweat, tears, and urine is __________ unless they contain blood.
c) Low
## Footnote
Understanding the transmission risks helps in implementing appropriate safety measures.
194
If soap and water are unavailable after exposure to potentially infectious materials, employees should use a hand sanitizer with at least __________% alcohol.
c) 60%
## Footnote
Hand sanitizers are an alternative when handwashing facilities are not accessible.
195
__________ shall not be recapped, bent, sheared, or removed, unless through the use of a mechanical device or a one-handed technique.
a) Contaminated sharps
## Footnote
Safe handling practices for contaminated sharps are critical to prevent injuries.
196
Employees should wear __________ when dealing with persons who are actively coughing or sneezing or when body fluid splashes are probable.
b) N95 masks and eye shields
## Footnote
Appropriate PPE is necessary to protect against respiratory pathogens.
197
When a body or item is contaminated, it should be __________ to eliminate potential infection risks.
c) Decontaminated
## Footnote
Effective decontamination methods are essential to control infection risks.
198
When exposure to blood, body fluids, or respiratory droplets occurs, personnel should immediately wash the exposed area with __________ and soap.
b) hot water
## Footnote
Immediate washing can greatly reduce the risk of infection.
199
All needle sticks shall immediately be __________ to stimulate bleeding.
b) milked
## Footnote
Milking a needle stick can help remove residual blood from the puncture site.
200
If an actual exposure occurs, the incident must be reported __________ to an immediate supervisor.
c) in both verbal and written forms
## Footnote
Timely reporting is vital for appropriate medical follow-up.
201
If the exposure is considered high-risk, the source individual’s blood will be tested for communicable diseases after __________.
b) the employee’s consent
## Footnote
Consent is a legal requirement before testing another individual’s blood.
202
Blood draws for BBP exposure testing will be made at __________ Concentra Urgent Care facilities.
c) area
## Footnote
Designated facilities streamline the testing process for exposed employees.
203
If the employee does not consent to HIV testing, their blood sample will be preserved for __________ days.
d) 90
## Footnote
Sample preservation is important for potential future testing.
204
If the exposure involves skin contact, follow-up is only indicated if there is evidence of __________.
a) compromised skin integrity
## Footnote
Assessing skin condition is crucial for determining the need for follow-up.
205
Personal decontamination procedures for employees include washing unprotected skin surfaces with soap and hot water for __________ seconds.
c) 20
## Footnote
Proper washing duration is essential for effective decontamination.
206
In case of an exposure to body fluids, the first step is to immediately __________ the affected area with soap and hot water.
b) wash
## Footnote
Immediate washing reduces the likelihood of infection.
207
If an employee is exposed to COVID-19, they must complete a __________ form for review by the NLVFD EOC Health Care Coordinator.
a) COVID-19 Medical Intake
## Footnote
Medical intake forms help assess exposure risks and necessary actions.
208
For high-risk exposures, the affected employee should be sent to a __________ facility for evaluation.
b) Concentra Urgent Care
## Footnote
Specialized facilities provide appropriate care for exposure incidents.
209
Employees in departments such as Patrol, SWAT, and Traffic must wear __________ masks at all times while at work.
b) surgical
## Footnote
Surgical masks are essential for protecting against respiratory infections.
210
If an employee tests positive for a communicable disease, they may continue working as long as it is __________ by a physician.
c) indicated
## Footnote
Medical clearance is necessary for employees returning to work post-exposure.
211
Employees should avoid touching their face, especially the __________.
b) nose
## Footnote
Reducing face touching minimizes the risk of transferring pathogens.
212
The BBP blood draw will be sent to a testing facility/lab by __________.
a) Concentra
## Footnote
Timely processing of blood draws is crucial for effective monitoring.
213
Communications division personnel will ask which of the following questions to assess the risk of exposure for callers?
b) Have you or anyone in your household come in contact with someone who tested positive for the Coronavirus in the last 30 days?
## Footnote
Assessing exposure history is important for appropriate response.
214
When the officer reasonably believes that a subject is COVID-19 positive, they must notify:
b) All responding units, Dispatch, and their immediate supervisor
## Footnote
Effective communication is vital in managing potential COVID-19 cases.
215
When transporting an arrestee suspected to have COVID-19, officers must:
b) Notify the NLVCCC upon arrival and keep the subject in the patrol vehicle until a Corrections officer and Medical staff respond
## Footnote
Maintaining isolation of suspected cases is crucial for safety.
216
In the event of an Employee Exposure Incident, the supervisor must document which of the following?
b) Identification of the employee, any other employees present, the date and time of the incident, and the actions taken post-incident
## Footnote
Detailed documentation is important for accountability and follow-up.
217
Officers must practice social distancing of at least ____ feet in all City buildings, meeting rooms, and locker rooms.
b) 6 feet
## Footnote
Social distancing is a key strategy in preventing the spread of COVID-19.
218
New inmates will be quarantined for approximately ____ days upon being booked in.
b) 14 days
## Footnote
Quarantine procedures help mitigate the risk of disease transmission in facilities.
219
If an officer suspects that a detainee may have COVID-19, the officer should:
c) Wear the issued N95 mask and notify all responding units and Dispatch
## Footnote
Utilizing appropriate PPE is essential in suspected cases of COVID-19.
220
All patrol vehicles will be disinfected by the assigned officer:
b) At the beginning of shift, end of shift, and after transporting any individuals
## Footnote
Regular disinfection of vehicles is critical to prevent cross-contamination.
221
To avoid cross-contamination, inmates in quarantine will:
a) Share cells with other quarantined inmates or be housed alone
## Footnote
Proper housing procedures are necessary to control infection spread.
222
If an officer is exposed to a suspected or confirmed COVID-19 patient, what action should be taken?
b) Notify the supervisor, wash hands, change uniform, and follow decontamination procedures
## Footnote
Prompt action after exposure is essential for personal safety.
223
Corrections personnel should wear appropriate personal protective equipment (PPE) when:
b) Responding to any inmate or individual suspected of having COVID-19
## Footnote
PPE is vital for protecting staff from potential infections.
224
When a suspected COVID-19 positive inmate is admitted to a hospital, they will be:
b) Booked in absentia
## Footnote
Proper booking procedures ensure legal accountability during medical emergencies.
225
If an inmate is confirmed COVID-19 positive, they will be moved to:
b) Isolation cells 3 or 4, which are reverse airflow cells
## Footnote
Isolation measures are crucial for preventing the spread of COVID-19.
226
After handling potentially infectious materials, officers must dispose of their PPE in:
b) A biohazard bin
## Footnote
Proper disposal of PPE is essential to prevent environmental contamination.
227
Gas masks used in the Respiratory Protection Program must be:
c) Inspected before and after each use, and cleaned and disinfected after each use
## Footnote
Regular inspection and disinfection of PPE are critical for safety.
228
The _____ is a commissioned supervisor who supervises A-Dorm, C-Dorm, F-Dorm, MCC, and the Services Building.
b) Dorm Sergeant
## Footnote
The Dorm Sergeant plays a key role in maintaining order and safety.
229
_____ is designated staff appointed by the Assistant Chief of the NLVCCC.
c) Safety Officer
## Footnote
The Safety Officer ensures compliance with safety protocols.
230
The _____ is responsible for ensuring the safety and security of the emergency situation during a fire.
c) Dorm Sergeant
## Footnote
The Dorm Sergeant coordinates response efforts during emergencies.
231
All dormitories are equipped with portable fire extinguishers, which require _____ checks every month.
b) Visual
## Footnote
Regular checks of fire extinguishers are necessary to ensure readiness.
232
The first floor of the Justice Complex (NLVCCC) contains portable fire extinguishers in the _____ room.
a) Records
## Footnote
Knowing the location of fire extinguishers is vital for emergency preparedness.
233
The fire relocation area for inmates includes _____ and C-Dorm.
a) West Dining Hall
## Footnote
Designated relocation areas help manage inmate safety during emergencies.
234
The _____ must immediately notify Main Base and PD Dispatch when a fire is noticed.
b) First Person Noticing a Fire
## Footnote
Prompt notification is essential for effective emergency response.
235
When a fire is reported, the Dorm Sergeant should ensure that _____ are being used properly.
b) Fire fighting and safety equipment
## Footnote
Proper use of safety equipment is critical during fire emergencies.
236
The _____ is responsible for supervising the fire scene until relieved by a higher authority.
b) Dorm Sergeant
## Footnote
The Dorm Sergeant's role is crucial in managing fire incidents effectively.
237
Who is the first person noticing a fire?
First Person Noticing a Fire
238
When a fire is reported, the Dorm Sergeant should ensure that _____ are being used properly.
Fire fighting and safety equipment
239
Who is responsible for supervising the fire scene until relieved by a higher authority?
Dorm Sergeant
240
Who must respond immediately to Main Base and initiate the Emergency/Incident Checklist?
Corrections Watch Commander
241
Who provides directions to assist with fire control by using the nearest portable fire extinguisher?
Available Corrections Officers
242
Who has the responsibility to notify PD Dispatch and the on-duty PD Watch Commander in case of a fire emergency?
Main Base Personnel
243
Who provides a log of events and assists emergency personnel as needed?
Dorm Sergeant
244
_____ is the action of moving inmates to a temporary holding area within the secured perimeter.
Relocation
245
The _____ location of emergency keys includes the C-Dorm Control Room and the Lieutenant’s Office.
Facility
246
The main responsibility of Housing Unit Security Control Technicians (SCTs) is to: A) Monitor the fire alarm system and assist with evacuation B) Conduct fire drills C) Handle the fire extinguishers D) Perform regular fire safety inspections
A) Monitor the fire alarm system and assist with evacuation
247
Before evacuating, SCTs should collect all of the ________ cards.
Movement
248
If danger is imminent, the SCT(s) assigned to the housing units must broadcast via radio that they are exiting their assigned post due to ________ danger.
Imminent
249
The Main Base SCT personnel should ________ when notified of an actual fire.
Initiate the Fire Department contact process
250
When notifying the Fire Department, Main Base SCT personnel must provide all of the following information EXCEPT: A) Your Name B) Facility Name C) Time of the fire D) Facility Location
C) Time of the fire
251
The Fire Department supervisor at the scene is in sole command of ________ personnel.
Fire Department
252
In the event of a fire, SCTs will ensure that all fire safety and detection equipment is ________ by an authorized contractor.
Re-certified
253
The first step when evacuating the housing unit during a fire is to:
Collect inmate movement cards
254
The facility emergency keys should be secured at the ________ in case of a power failure.
C-Dorm Control Room
255
All inmates should be relocated to ________ using the safest route away from the fire.
One of the designated relocation areas
256
In the event of a power failure, the ________ will be opened manually.
Perimeter gates
257
Inmates who are classified as 'lock down' or 'potentially violent' should be relocated using ________.
Waist restraints and leg irons
258
All civilian staff will relocate to the ________ in the event of a fire.
Designated staging areas
259
Inmates from the visitation area should be escorted to their ________ during a fire evacuation.
Designated housing unit
260
After the emergency situation has been resolved, the Dorm Sergeant and Safety Officer will manually ________ all previously accessed doors.
Relock
261
Inmates and staff will be accounted for by the Dorm Sergeant after they verify that all have ________ the dorm.
Evacuated
262
In the event of a fire, the evacuation of the Justice Facility will not involve the use of ________.
Elevators
263
If a civilian staff member is unable to walk down the stairs during evacuation, they should secure themselves in the ________ and use the red phone to request evacuation assistance.
Area of Refuge
264
After a fire evacuation, a formal inmate count will be conducted once inmates have been returned to their ________.
Housing units
265
After action reports, including event logs, must be submitted to the ________ following a fire evacuation.
Chief of Police
266
Legal tender refers to money that may be legally offered in payment of an obligation and that a creditor must ________.
Accept
267
The United States Secret Service is a branch of the Department of ________, responsible for enforcing Title 18 of the US Code regarding counterfeit currency.
Homeland Security
268
Counterfeit money is any U.S. currency presented as legal tender that has been ________ or mechanically reproduced, or that has been altered in any way from the original.
Photocopied
269
When accepting money, bills of $______ or larger must be marked with a specialized felt marking pen.
20
270
If a marking pen mark turns ______, the money is printed on genuine paper and may be processed as usual.
Yellow
271
If the pen mark turns ______, the money is suspect, and further examination should be done.
Black
272
When examining a suspect bill, you should always ______ the bill by the edges.
Hold
273
If the bill in question is deemed counterfeit, you should immediately ______ the bill to the person who gave it to you.
Not return
274
The bill should be placed in a ______ to restrict access before being forwarded to the U.S. Secret Service.
Protective covering
275
The Counterfeit Note Report (SSF 1604) must include the dollar ______ of the bill.
Amount
276
The U.S. Secret Service should be notified immediately at ______ in the case of suspected counterfeit currency.
(702) 868-3000
277
When completing a Counterfeit Note Report, you must enter the full ______ of the person leaving the money, if possible.
Name
278
The serial number of a suspect bill is found in the ______ of the bill.
Bottom left and top right quarters
279
The ______ should be contacted immediately if a bill is found to be obviously counterfeit.
United States Secret Service
280
The Federal Reserve and Treasury Seals on a counterfeit bill may appear ______.
Uneven or broken
281
Naloxone (Narcan) is a prescription drug that _______ the toxic effects of opioids by competing with the presence of opiates in the brain.
Reverses
282
An opiate overdose often leads to depression of the _______ and central nervous system, resulting in a decreased state of consciousness.
Respiratory system
283
Opiate overdose symptoms include all of the following EXCEPT: A) Blue lips and/or blue skin B) Limp body C) Increased heart rate D) Unresponsiveness to external stimuli
C) Increased heart rate
284
Officers who administer Naloxone should _______ the patient in a recovery position.
Place
285
If an officer administers Naloxone, they should _______ until Medical personnel arrive.
Monitor respirations
286
When officers administer Naloxone, they must ensure _______ is called to the scene.
Medical
287
Officers must notify a _______ whenever Naloxone is administered and complete a report.
Supervisor
288
Officers are issued two Naloxone kits after successful completion of training. Each kit contains _______ of Narcan nasal spray.
4mg
289
The Naloxone kits issued to officers should be maintained in a state of _______ readiness.
Operational
290
It is recommended that Naloxone kits not be left in off-duty Department vehicles when the temperature is below _______ or above 90°F.
32°F
291
After administering Naloxone, the officer will _______ the kit through a supervisor, who will store the kits in a secured area.
Replace
292
Officers may obtain a replacement Naloxone kit from the _______ if needed.
Southern Nevada Health District
293
Opiate overdose symptoms can include deep snoring or _______ sounds.
Gurgling
294
Officers who believe an individual is in need of immediate medical attention or has a mental illness may complete a form for _______.
Legal 2000
295
Officers are responsible for inspecting and replacing Naloxone kits if the dosages are beyond their _______.
Shelf life
296
Chemical agents may be used to prevent serious injury, suppress riots, and prevent extensive __________ of property.
Willful destruction
297
The Watch Commander, upon notification of a disturbance, may elect to deploy __________ to restore order through officer presence and/or use of force.
SWAT
298
Officers must be __________ to carry and use authorized/issued chemical agents.
Certified
299
Use of chemical agents is deemed __________ and must be properly documented in the After Action report.
Use of Force
300
Chemical agents must be used in accordance with the Department’s __________ Procedure.
Use of Force
301
After chemical agents are disbursed, a __________ evaluation will be initiated whenever necessary.
Medical
302
If at any point a subject appears to be in medical distress after exposure to chemical agents, __________ will be contacted immediately.
Medical
303
In accordance with the Department’s __________ Procedure.
Use of Force
## Footnote
This refers to the procedure governing the application of force by officers.
304
After chemical agents are disbursed, a __________ evaluation will be initiated whenever necessary.
Medical
## Footnote
Medical evaluations are crucial after exposure to chemical agents.
305
If at any point a subject appears to be in medical distress after exposure to chemical agents, __________ will be contacted immediately.
Medical
## Footnote
Immediate medical assistance is essential in cases of distress.
306
When cleaning areas affected by chemical agents, if CS powder was used, a __________ should be used to trap the powder.
Water vacuum cleaner
## Footnote
A water vacuum cleaner is effective for cleaning CS powder.
307
During the clean-up stage, personnel should wear __________ to prevent the possibility of residual contamination.
Gloves and a gauze face mask
## Footnote
Proper protective gear is necessary to prevent contamination.
308
For cross contamination caused by CS, it is recommended to flush the affected area with clear water for at least __________ minutes.
10
## Footnote
Flushing for 10 minutes helps mitigate contamination effects.
309
When treating skin irritation from chemical agents, personnel should NOT apply __________, as it will trap the agent on the skin.
Creams or oils
## Footnote
Applying creams or oils can worsen skin irritation.
310
To alleviate chest irritation caused by chemical agents, it is important to keep the subject __________.
Calm and restrict activity
## Footnote
Keeping the subject calm helps manage irritation.
311
Eyes affected by chemical agents should be kept open facing the __________ to help with tearing and clearing.
Wind
## Footnote
The wind aids in flushing out irritants from the eyes.
312
For nasal irritation from chemical agents, it is helpful to __________ to remove discharge.
Blow the nose
## Footnote
Blowing the nose helps clear irritants from nasal passages.
313
Major discomfort from exposure to chemical agents should disappear within __________ minutes.
10-20
## Footnote
Discomfort typically resolves within this time frame.
314
The tactical tourniquet is an emergency medical tool available to __________.
Officers only
## Footnote
This tool is specifically designated for use by officers.
315
Officers must receive training on the use of a tactical tourniquet from a __________ before carrying it on duty.
Department-approved instructor
## Footnote
Proper training is mandatory for effective use.
316
The use of a tactical tourniquet is __________ required to be renewed annually.
Never
## Footnote
There is no annual renewal requirement for tourniquet use.
317
A tactical tourniquet is primarily used to stop __________ bleeding on extremities (arms and legs).
Arterial
## Footnote
Arterial bleeding is life-threatening and requires immediate action.
318
Officers should keep the tactical tourniquet on their person and __________ for use.
Ready
## Footnote
Readiness is crucial for timely application.
319
The tactical tourniquet is intended for __________ care or for the care of a fellow officer.
Emergent self-care
## Footnote
It is designed for immediate response situations.
320
Officers are __________ to use their tourniquet on another person.
Not required
## Footnote
While they can, there is no obligation to assist others with it.
321
The tactical tourniquet is a __________ use piece of equipment.
Single
## Footnote
Each tourniquet is designed for one-time use.
322
If the tourniquet is used during the performance of duty, the officer must __________ the usage in a police report or submit a memo for replacement.
Document
## Footnote
Documentation is essential for accountability.
323
If a tactical tourniquet is lost or damaged, the officer must __________ it at their expense.
Replace
## Footnote
Officers are responsible for the cost of replacement.
324
The memo for replacement of a used tourniquet must be routed through the officer’s __________.
Chain of command
## Footnote
Proper channels must be followed for replacements.
325
The justification for replacing a tourniquet is submitted to the __________ for review.
Resource Management Database Coordinator
## Footnote
This role oversees resource allocation.
326
The training required for using a tactical tourniquet is not considered a __________.
Certification
## Footnote
Training does not equate to formal certification.
327
The tourniquet is intended to stop bleeding until the officer can be transported to an __________.
Advanced medical treatment facility
## Footnote
Quick transport is vital for further medical care.
328
In-custody deaths encompass deaths of persons who are in __________ custody.
NLVPD
## Footnote
This includes various forms of custody by the police department.
329
In-custody deaths may occur while in physical custody or physical restraint of officers even if the person is __________ arrested.
Formally
## Footnote
Formal arrest is not necessary for in-custody deaths.
330
In the case of an in-custody death, the involved officer must request __________ immediately.
Medical assistance
## Footnote
Immediate medical help is required in such situations.
331
The involved officer is required to notify their __________ as soon as practical and briefly explain what occurred.
Immediate supervisor
## Footnote
Timely notification is essential for protocol adherence.
332
After an in-custody death, the involved officer will not discuss the incident with anyone except his/her __________.
Immediate supervisor, investigating personnel, or the District Attorney’s office
## Footnote
Confidentiality is critical until the investigation is complete.
333
The first on-scene supervisor must ensure __________ are identified and separated.
Witnesses
## Footnote
Proper witness management is necessary for the investigation.
334
The first on-scene supervisor will make an initial assessment to verify the death did not result from the __________.
Use of force
## Footnote
This assessment is crucial for determining the nature of the incident.
335
If the death is believed to have resulted from the application of force, the first on-scene supervisor will refer to Chapter __________ for the Actual Use of Deadly Force Procedure.
4.15.05
## Footnote
This chapter outlines specific procedures for such incidents.
336
The Watch Commander will respond to the scene to assume __________ and summon any additional resources that may be needed.
Authority
## Footnote
Command authority is essential for managing the incident effectively.
337
The Watch Commander is responsible for preparing a __________.
Command Page
## Footnote
This document is crucial for incident documentation.
338
Detectives are responsible for conducting a __________ investigation and preparing a report concerning the facts of the case.
Criminal
## Footnote
Criminal investigations are vital for legal proceedings.
339
The Internal Affairs Bureau will conduct an administrative investigation at the discretion of the Chief of Police if there is questionable conduct or possible __________ from policy or procedure.
Deviation
## Footnote
Investigations ensure adherence to departmental policies.
340
The first on-scene supervisor will ensure a priority __________ from each involved officer’s body worn camera is completed prior to the arrival of investigative personnel.
Upload
## Footnote
Prioritizing uploads preserves critical evidence.
341
If the death resulted from the use of force, the involved officer may be asked to surrender their __________ to CSI.
Firearms
## Footnote
Surrendering firearms is a standard procedure in such cases.
342
Following an in-custody death, involved officers may be required to attend a Critical Incident Stress Debriefing within __________ hours of the incident.
48
## Footnote
Timely debriefings help address psychological impacts.
343
The SAC Police Facility may need to be evacuated in instances such as __________, bomb threats, or gas leaks.
Fire
## Footnote
Evacuations are essential for safety in emergencies.
344
Anyone witnessing an emergency at the SAC Police Facility will be responsible for notifying __________ immediately.
Communications
## Footnote
Prompt notification is critical for emergency management.
345
The __________ will be responsible for determining if an evacuation of the facility is necessary.
Watch Commander or designee
## Footnote
The designated authority assesses the need for evacuation.
346
Communications will notify appropriate agencies such as LVMPD, Fire Department, and __________ during an evacuation.
Southwest Gas
## Footnote
Coordination with agencies is crucial during emergencies.
347
In the event of an evacuation, the Watch Commander or designee will send a __________ notifying command staff of the evacuation.
Command page
## Footnote
The command page is essential for internal communication.
348
The on-duty patrol supervisor will assign __________ patrol officers to sweep and clear the entire building during an evacuation.
Two
## Footnote
Adequate personnel are needed for thorough checks.
349
__________ will be responsible for securing their area and/or transferring services, if applicable, prior to evacuating.
Each Division
## Footnote
Divisions must ensure areas are secured during evacuations.
350
During an emergency evacuation, __________ will not be utilized.
Elevators
## Footnote
Elevators pose risks during evacuations and should be avoided.
351
Upon evacuation, all personnel will proceed to the __________ parking lot.
North
## Footnote
Designated assembly areas ensure safety post-evacuation.
352
During the evacuation, all personnel will utilize a __________ to ensure all employees in close proximity are aware of the evacuation.
Buddy system
## Footnote
The buddy system enhances safety and accountability.
353
After an evacuation is completed, each Division supervisor or most senior person on duty will __________ their personnel.
Account for
## Footnote
Accountability is vital to ensure everyone is safe.
354
If anyone is missing after an evacuation, the __________ will be notified immediately.
Watch Commander or designee
## Footnote
Immediate reporting is crucial for search efforts.
355
Personnel will not be authorized to re-enter the building until __________ gives clearance.
The Watch Commander or designee
## Footnote
Clearance is essential for safety post-evacuation.
356
Other police facilities are responsible for developing __________ for their particular areas as necessary.
Evacuation procedures
## Footnote
Customized procedures ensure readiness for local emergencies.
357
The Line of Duty Serious Injury procedures are designed to prepare the Department for a line of duty serious injury of an active duty __________.
Officer
## Footnote
These procedures are focused on officer safety and support.
358
All Department commissioned personnel are encouraged to maintain an up-to-date __________ in their vest.
Personal Emergency Information Card
## Footnote
This card provides critical information in emergencies.
359
The wishes of the __________ affected by a line of duty serious injury take precedence over the desires of the Department.
Family
## Footnote
Family wishes are prioritized in serious injury situations.
360
The officer's next of kin shall be notified in person of their serious injury by the __________ on duty at the time of the incident.
Commanding officer
## Footnote
Personal notification is vital for sensitivity and respect.
361
Following a line of duty serious injury, all employees shall be provided the opportunity to participate in __________ services through the EARR Program or the CNLV Human Resources Department.
Psychological or peer support
## Footnote
Support services help employees cope with trauma.
362
The Department Response Commander will serve as the overall __________, coordinating the responsibilities of the liaisons and working closely with them.
Point of contact
## Footnote
A designated contact ensures organized communication.
363
The Notification Officer shall ensure that notifications to the officer’s family are made by at least __________ individuals.
Two
## Footnote
Multiple notifications ensure the family receives the news appropriately.
364
The Hospital Liaison Officer will be responsible for coordinating the arrival of the injured officer’s family, Department personnel, the media, and __________.
Others
## Footnote
Coordination is necessary for managing various groups.
365
The Benefits Coordinator is responsible for filing __________ claims and related paperwork for the injured officer’s family.
Workers’ compensation
## Footnote
Compensation claims are critical for family support.
366
The Family Support Advocate will maintain routine __________ with family members to provide emotional support and maintain an ongoing relationship between the Department and the immediate family.
Communication
## Footnote
Ongoing contact is crucial for family support.
367
When notifying the officer’s family of the serious injury, officials should use __________ language to briefly explain the circumstances of the incident.
Simple and easy-to-understand
## Footnote
Clear communication is essential during sensitive notifications.
368
__________ should be requested to stand by if the health of the next of kin is a concern during the notification of a line of duty serious injury.
Crisis counselors
## Footnote
Crisis counselors provide immediate support during distressing situations.
369
What type of language should be used when notifying the officer’s family of a serious injury?
Simple and easy-to-understand
## Footnote
This ensures clarity and compassion during a difficult conversation.
370
Who should be requested to stand by if the health of the next of kin is a concern during the notification of a line of duty serious injury?
Emergency medical services personnel
## Footnote
This measure is taken to provide immediate assistance if needed.
371
Who is responsible for preparing and disseminating the official Department bulletin regarding the officer’s injuries?
Event Commander
## Footnote
This role includes ensuring accurate information is shared with the public.
372
What information must the Notification Officer submit to the Department Response Commander?
Identity, time, and place of family members notified
## Footnote
This documentation is crucial for record-keeping and follow-up.
373
Who provides hospital personnel with billing information for medical services?
Hospital Liaison
## Footnote
This role ensures that financial matters are handled appropriately.
374
The Event Commander is responsible for coordinating a response to the __________.
Media
## Footnote
This involves managing information flow and public relations.
375
What should be avoided when communicating with the family following a line of duty serious injury?
Graphic details or police jargon
## Footnote
Clear and sensitive communication is essential to support the family.
376
The Notification Officer will identify __________ family members outside the area.
Additional
## Footnote
This ensures all relevant family members are informed.
377
All Department personnel are required to maintain an up-to-date __________.
Personal Emergency Information Card
## Footnote
This card is essential for emergency situations.
378
Whose wishes take precedence over the desires of the Department following a line of duty death?
Family
## Footnote
Respecting the family's wishes is a priority in such cases.
379
The name of the deceased employee shall not be released to the __________ before survivors are notified.
Media
## Footnote
Protecting the family from premature news coverage is critical.
380
Following a line of duty death, all employees shall be provided the opportunity to participate in __________ services.
Psychological
## Footnote
This support is important for coping with trauma.
381
The Department Response Commander will report to the __________.
Chief of Police
## Footnote
This establishes a clear chain of command.
382
The Incident Commander is responsible for __________.
Planning and coordinating all aspects of the emergency response
## Footnote
This includes logistics, communication, and resource management.
383
The Notification Officer must be prepared for __________ situations.
Unexpected
## Footnote
This readiness is crucial for handling sensitive notifications.
384
Who is responsible for coordinating all efforts between the NLVPD and the treating hospital?
Hospital Liaison
## Footnote
This role ensures seamless communication and support for the injured officer.
385
The Family Liaison is responsible for ensuring __________ with the family after the funeral.
Communications
## Footnote
Ongoing support and communication help the family navigate their loss.
386
The Videographer/Photographer works closely with the __________ for audio/video presentations.
Family Liaison
## Footnote
Collaboration ensures the family's wishes are honored in memorial presentations.
387
The Honor Guard Commander coordinates efforts pertaining to __________ services.
Funeral
## Footnote
This includes ceremonial duties and honors for the deceased.
388
The Traffic Division Supervisor is responsible for obtaining information about the __________ route.
Funeral procession
## Footnote
Proper planning for the procession is essential for safety and respect.
389
The Parking Coordinator ensures __________ for handicapped persons and dignitaries.
Parking
## Footnote
This facilitates access to the funeral and memorial services.
390
The EARR/Benefits Coordinator assists the family with __________ funeral services.
Planning and coordinating
## Footnote
This support helps alleviate the burden during a difficult time.
391
The EARR/Benefits Coordinator is responsible for applying for __________ benefits on behalf of the family.
Death
## Footnote
This ensures the family receives entitled benefits in a timely manner.
