NLVPD Procedure CH 4 Flashcards
(212 cards)
1
Q
What are Approved Weapons?
A
Weapons that meet Department specifications for which officers receive proficiency and safety training.
2
Q
Before using an approved weapon, officers should communicate that the use of the weapon is __________.
A
Imminent
3
Q
What are Articulable Aggravating Circumstances?
A
Factors that can be documented by an officer, which increase the severity or culpability of a criminal act.
4
Q
Examples of Articulable Aggravating Circumstances include _________, violence, or the severity of the crime.
A
Heinousness
5
Q
What is Cuffing Under Power?
A
A tactic where a secondary officer handcuffs a subject while the Taser is cycling and the subject is in neuro-muscular incapacitation (NMI).
6
Q
What does Deadly Force refer to?
A
The degree of force that is likely to cause death or serious bodily injury.
7
Q
What is the role of the Deadly Force Review Board?
A
To conduct an administrative examination of uses of deadly force to improve individual and Department performance.
8
Q
What does the Detective Bureau (NLVPD) investigate?
A
Whether the use of deadly force was legally justified under criminal law.
9
Q
Force Transitions refer to the movement from one force type to another in conjunction with the __________ standard.
A
Objectively reasonable
10
Q
What does Imminent Threat mean?
A
An impending violent act or resistance that an officer reasonably believes will occur.
11
Q
Intermediate Force is greater than ________ force.
A
Low-level
12
Q
An Involved Officer is one who participated in, directed, or influenced the application of the _______ of force.
A
Use
13
Q
Less Lethal Force promotes operational objectives with less potential for causing death or serious bodily injury than _______ force.
A
Lethal
14
Q
Levels of Control include low-level force, intermediate force, and ________ force.
A
Deadly
15
Q
Low Level Force is intended to cause ________.
A
Injury
16
Q
Non-Deadly Force is not intended to create a substantial risk of causing ________.
A
Death
17
Q
An Officer-Involved Shooting refers to an officer’s discharge of a firearm at a person, with or without _______.
A
Injury
18
Q
An Other Firearm Discharge is an unintentional discharge that does not cause injury or death to a person or the intentional shooting at, injuring, or _______ animals.
A
Killing
19
Q
Physical Force compels a person to involuntarily move, cease movement, or physically _______ to that force.
A
React
20
Q
A Public Safety Statement (PSS) is used to determine if there is an immediate threat to public safety. The supervisor must ensure __________.
A
Public safety
21
Q
Ramming is prohibited unless it is a ________ force situation.
A
Deadly
22
Q
Reasonable Belief refers to facts or circumstances that would cause an ordinary person to act in a similar way under ________ circumstances.
A
Similar
23
Q
Reasonable Force is an objective standard of force based on the ________ of the circumstances present.
A
Totality
24
Q
Reportable Force includes any use of force that results in injury or complaint of injury, or any use of force greater than ________ force.
A
Low level
25
Reviewable Force includes uses of force subject to review, including incidents where an officer or suspect is _______.
Injured
26
Serious Bodily Injury is an injury that creates a substantial risk of death, causes serious permanent disfigurement, or results in a prolonged loss of the ________ of any bodily member.
Functioning
27
Significant Force results in treatment at a medical facility due to injuries or alleged injuries. Examples include skeletal fractures or ________ bodily injury.
Serious
28
The Taser is a device that stimulates motor neurons to contract, disrupting the subject’s motor nervous system and ________.
Muscles
29
A Spark Display is a non-contact demonstration of the taser’s ability to discharge ________.
Electricity
30
Drive Stun is intended to administer pain to a subject by making direct contact when the ________ circuit is not completed.
Electrical
31
Probe Mode is where the taser cartridge deploys firing probes at the subject, with the intent to temporarily _______ the subject.
Immobilize
32
Unnecessary Force is any amount of force that does not fulfill a lawful objective, or is ________.
Unwarranted
33
Unreasonable Force exceeds what any reasonable employee might have utilized in ________ circumstances.
Similar
34
The Use of Force Continuum describes the appropriate levels of force authorized in response to the level of ________ displayed by a subject.
Resistance
35
A Witness Employee is someone who was present during a use of force incident but did not ________ in or directly influence the application of the use of force.
Participate
36
A Witness Monitor is a designated officer who is not involved in the use of ________ force.
Deadly
37
The reasonableness of a use of force must be judged from the perspective of a ________ officer on the scene.
Reasonable
38
The reasonableness inquiry in reviewing the use of force is an ________ one.
Objective
39
One factor that may affect the reasonableness of the force used by an officer is ________.
The severity of the crime(s)
40
Certain classifications of civilian employees are allowed to carry firearms but have no power of ________.
Arrest
41
Firearms are not permitted inside the North Las Vegas Community Correctional Center unless authorized by the ________.
Chief of Police
42
If an officer applies a Use of Force option resulting in a visible injury, they must summon ________.
Medical attention
43
In the event of injury, the officer should provide the ________ of the injury for medical personnel.
Nature
44
Medical attention must be summoned for a visible injury resulting from the use of force, including baton strikes to the ________ area.
Groin
45
OC spray requires medical attention if there is direct exposure to the ________ area.
Facial
46
Taser probe strikes to the ________ area require medical attention.
Head
47
The use of canine results in medical attention being required for all ________.
Bites
48
Use of force with a vehicle requires the officer to summon ________ when there is visible injury.
Medical attention
49
Low lethality shotgun strikes require medical attention, regardless of the ________.
Severity
50
Any use of force application that results in visible injury is subject to the summoning of ________.
Medical attention
51
Officers may use reasonable force to: Protect themselves, Protect others, or to affect a lawful ________.
Arrest
52
If it is not already known by the subject, officers should make clear their intent to ________.
Detain
53
When practicable, officers will ________ themselves as a peace officer before using force.
Identify
54
Duty to Intervene applies when an officer observes the use of physical force that is ________ justified.
Not
55
A supervisor must issue a ________ to stop unjustified physical force.
Direct order
56
Any officer observing unjustified physical force must report to their ________ supervisor.
Immediate
57
Reports about unjustified use of physical force must be made in writing not later than ________ days after the occurrence.
10
58
Officers should consider that a suspect may resist due to a ________, such as a medical condition.
Medical crisis
59
Reports about unjustified use of physical force must be made in writing not later than ________ days after the occurrence.
10
## Footnote
Reporting timeframe for incidents involving physical force.
60
Officers should consider that a suspect may be resisting due to a ________, such as a medical condition, mental or hearing impairment, or drug interaction.
Medical crisis
## Footnote
Factors influencing a suspect's resistance.
61
A compliant subject offers ________ passive, active, aggressive, or aggravated aggressive resistance.
No
## Footnote
Definition of a compliant subject.
62
Passive Resistance occurs when the subject is not complying with the officer’s commands but is taking only ________ physical action to prevent arrest.
Minimal
## Footnote
Characteristics of passive resistance.
63
Active Resistance occurs when the subject’s actions are intended to prevent an officer from placing them in ________, but are not directed at harming the officer.
Custody
## Footnote
Definition and intent of active resistance.
64
Articulable Aggravating Circumstances are factors that increase the severity or culpability of a criminal act, including heinousness, violence, or the ________ of the crime(s).
Severity
## Footnote
Factors that escalate the seriousness of a crime.
65
Aggressive Resistance occurs when the subject displays the intent to harm the officer, themselves, or another person and prevent the officer from placing the subject in ________.
Custody
## Footnote
Definition of aggressive resistance.
66
Aggravated Aggressive Resistance involves actions likely to result in ________ bodily harm to the officer, themselves, or another.
Death or serious
## Footnote
Definition of aggravated aggressive resistance.
67
Aggravated Aggressive Resistance may involve the use of a ________, blunt or bladed weapon, and extreme physical force.
Firearm
## Footnote
Tools associated with aggravated aggressive resistance.
68
Officers must intervene when they observe the use of physical force that is ________ justified.
Not
## Footnote
Duty to intervene in cases of unjustified force.
69
Articulable Aggravating Circumstances may include an increase in the ________ posed to others should the suspect remain at large.
Threat
## Footnote
Factors that indicate increased risk in a situation.
70
Officers must consider factors like a subject’s medical condition, mental impairment, and ________ barrier when handling non-compliant individuals.
Language
## Footnote
Important considerations for officer interactions.
71
The Duty to Intervene applies when the officer observes physical force that is ________ justified.
Not
## Footnote
Circumstances under which intervention is required.
72
A report about unjustified physical force must be submitted not later than ________ days after the incident.
10
## Footnote
Reporting requirements for incidents involving force.
73
When use of force is needed, officers will assess each incident to determine the most ________ force option based on policy, procedure, training, and experience.
Objective
## Footnote
Importance of objective assessment in use of force.
74
Low Level Force is a level of force or control that is neither likely nor intended to ________ injury.
Cause
## Footnote
Definition of low level force.
75
An example of Low Level Force would be handcuffing a ________ arrestee for transport.
Compliant
## Footnote
Example of appropriate low level force usage.
76
Intermediate Force has the potential to cause injury or substantial ________.
Pain
## Footnote
Characteristics of intermediate force.
77
Intermediate Force requires a ________ of Force Report.
Use
## Footnote
Reporting requirements for intermediate force incidents.
78
Deadly Force is likely to produce ________ or serious bodily injury.
Death
## Footnote
Definition of deadly force.
79
Examples of Deadly Force include using a baton to strike the ________.
Head
## Footnote
Specific actions classified as deadly force.
80
A Low Lethality Shotgun is considered Intermediate Force if fired at a distance of ________ feet or greater.
20
## Footnote
Distance classification for low lethality shotguns.
81
The use of a 40mm weapon is considered Intermediate Force if fired at a distance of ________ feet or greater.
5
## Footnote
Distance classification for 40mm weapons.
82
Deadly Force can result from a force option being ________ applied.
Properly or improperly
## Footnote
Consequences of force application.
83
The use of Deadly Force can include the use of a firearm, baton, or a low lethality shotgun when ________ feet or less.
5
## Footnote
Conditions for using deadly force.
84
An example of Low Level Force is ________ a suspect out on a high-risk vehicle stop.
Proning
## Footnote
Practical application of low level force.
85
The use of Deadly Force can include a low lethality shotgun when fired at less than ________ feet.
20
## Footnote
Conditions for utilizing deadly force with shotguns.
86
Intermediate Force includes the use of a Taser, which is used to cause ________ or substantial pain.
Severe
## Footnote
Classification and effects of Taser use.
87
Deadly Force can also be the result of improper ________ of a force option.
Application
## Footnote
Implications of improper force application.
88
The NLVPD is committed to protecting people, their property, and ________.
Their rights
## Footnote
Core values of the NLVPD.
89
The proper use of force is essential for ________.
Public safety and service
## Footnote
Importance of proper force use in policing.
90
There are circumstances where individuals will not comply with the law unless ________.
Compelled or controlled by the use of force
## Footnote
Understanding compliance in law enforcement.
91
Officers must remain mindful that they derive their authority from the ________.
Community
## Footnote
Source of an officer's authority.
92
Unreasonable force ________ the legitimacy of an officer's authority.
Weakens
## Footnote
Impact of unreasonable force on authority.
93
In a use of force incident, the governmental interest must match the ________.
Level of force and intrusion upon an individual’s constitutional rights
## Footnote
Balancing governmental interest in use of force.
94
Officers of this Department will hold the highest regard for the ________ of all persons.
Dignity and liberty
## Footnote
Ethical considerations in law enforcement.
95
The Department places ________ reliance upon the use of force.
Minimal
## Footnote
Philosophy on the use of force.
96
The Department respects the value of ________.
Every human life
## Footnote
Fundamental principle of the Department.
97
The application of ________ is a measure to be employed in the most extreme circumstances.
Deadly force
## Footnote
Conditions for applying deadly force.
98
Persons lawfully detained may be, and arrestees will be, handcuffed with their hands ________ for officer safety.
Behind their backs
## Footnote
Standard procedure for handcuffing.
99
The handcuffs should be double locked and should not be tightened so that they ________ circulation.
Cut off
## Footnote
Proper application of handcuffs.
100
If a situation dictates hasty application of handcuffs, proper application will be checked after the detained person has been ________.
Removed from the area of immediate threat
## Footnote
Ensuring safety during handcuffing.
101
Which of the following restraint devices may also be used and must follow the same protocol as handcuffs?
Flex-cuff restraints
## Footnote
Alternative restraint devices and their protocols.
102
Leg restraints (hobbles) may be used when transporting a ________ arrestee or inmate.
Violent or potentially violent
## Footnote
Guidelines for using leg restraints.
103
What is the primary action taken when an arrestee or inmate is removed from an area of immediate threat?
Removed from the area of immediate threat
104
Which restraint device must follow the same protocol as handcuffs?
Flex-cuff restraints
105
After securing leg restraints, detained persons should be placed on their ________.
Side
106
In case of an injury resulting from the application of restraints, ________ should be requested to respond.
Paramedics and/or an ambulance
107
How often will officers be re-certified in the use of handcuffs?
Annually
108
A spit hood is a ________ use only item.
One-time
109
What is a condition for the use of a spit hood?
The detained person is under control and restrained
110
Improper use of a spit hood may cause ________.
Asphyxiation or suffocation
111
Aerosol inflammatory agents may be used to defend ________ from bodily harm.
The officer and others
112
Aerosol inflammatory agents are most effective if sprayed from a distance of less than ________ feet.
10
113
When using aerosol inflammatory agents, personnel should exercise caution to limit the risk of affecting ________ personnel.
Other
114
After aerosol agents are used against an inmate, the inmate will be examined by ________ staff.
Medical
115
The shift supervisor is to be notified whenever ________ is used.
An aerosol agent
116
Officers and authorized civilian personnel will be re-certified annually regarding the application of ________ agents.
Aerosol
117
Only trained officers may use the ________ Launcher for deploying aerosol agents.
PepperBall
118
The deployment of chemical agents will be done at the direction of ________.
A supervisor within the Special Operations Division
119
Chemical agents may be used for ________ such as civil unrest, riots, barricades, or hostage rescues.
Unusual occurrences
120
Officers authorized to carry and use chemical agents must be re-certified ________.
Annually
121
When the subject has been secured and resistance has ceased, officers should ________ to relieve discomfort caused by chemical agents.
Flush the eyes and exposed skin with clear water
122
Officers must report the use and effectiveness of chemical agents in their ________.
Written police reports
123
The baton is primarily used for ________.
Self-defense and to separate fighting inmates
124
Officers should use batons ________ when other means have failed or are impractical.
To effect an arrest or subdue violent persons
125
Officers authorized to carry an impact tool must be re-certified ________.
Annually
126
The baton will never be used as a tool to ________ an inmate.
Punish
127
Less lethal ammunition may be deployed when a ________ has been given by a supervisor.
Verbal authorization
128
Less lethal ammunition should not be used at close range or directed at the ________.
Head or other lethal zones
129
After the deployment of less lethal ammunition, officers will submit a ________ as soon as practical.
Written report
130
The shift supervisor must be notified and will respond when ________ is used.
Any type of force, including accidental weapon discharge
131
Only officers who have completed an authorized training course and qualified with the designated less lethal weapons are authorized to deploy ________.
12 gauge/40mm/37mm rubber/nylon or plastic ammunition
132
The 12 gauge less lethal shotgun must be clearly ________ from the 12 gauge lethal shotguns.
Different in appearance
133
The ________ projectile launcher is authorized for use with the XM1006 sponge grenade.
40mm
134
When deploying less lethal ammunition for crowd control, officers should maintain a ________ to ensure accuracy.
Safe, yet effective distance
135
Officers authorized to use chemical agents must be re-certified ________.
Annually
136
The use of batons is intended to defend against ________.
Bodily harm
137
After deploying less lethal ammunition, the officer must notify the ________.
Supervisor
138
The use of other less lethal items will not be authorized without the express permission of the __________.
Chief of Police
139
The tranquilizer gun/rifle is strictly limited to use by __________ for tranquilizing animals for capture.
Animal Control Officers
140
Officers are required to complete initial training and qualify annually with the __________.
Tranquilizer Gun
141
The tranquilizer gun is prohibited from being used on __________.
Humans
142
Officers applying Pressure Point Control Tactics (PPCT) must be __________.
Certified in the use of PPCT
143
The use of the folding knife as a weapon of defense is only authorized under __________ circumstances.
Extraordinary circumstances
144
The type of knife authorized for officers to carry must have a __________.
Blade that locks in place
145
The taser is considered a __________ method of defense within the Use of Force Continuum.
Intermediate
146
Tasers should not be used on a suspect if the suspect is __________.
In an elevated position where a fall could cause serious injury
147
Officers must complete __________ training to be authorized to carry and deploy a taser.
Initial training and annual re-certification
148
The taser has an optimal range of __________ feet for Close Quarters (CQ) cartridges.
4–12 feet
149
Officers should avoid deploying the taser __________ without justification.
At the chest, head, or face
150
When removing taser probes, officers should ensure they __________.
Inspect each probe for integrity
151
Probes deployed in sensitive areas such as the __________ should be removed by qualified medical staff.
Neck
152
If a taser deployment results in signs of medical distress, __________ should be sought immediately.
Medical attention
153
When a taser is deployed, the deploying officer is required to ________ the suspect for the appropriate charges.
Take into custody
154
After a taser deployment, the officer must complete a(n) ________ report.
Incident
155
When documenting taser use, officers should report the ________.
Number of cartridges deployed
156
If a taser is activated for more than the standard ________ second cycle, justification must be provided in the report.
5
157
If a taser causes serious or life-threatening injuries, the incident should be handled according to Chapter ________.
4.15.05
158
The officer must impound all ________ air cartridges as evidence when a serious or life-threatening injury occurs.
Expended
159
After a taser-involved use of force, officers must submit reports in accordance with NLVPD ________ policy.
4.05.40
160
Supervisors must respond to scenes where a taser has been deployed and ensure that the involved officer ________.
Verifies taser functionality
161
A taser download for inclusion in IA Pro must be done by a certified ________ instructor or a supervisor.
Taser
162
During a taser operational test, any ________ will be noted and the taser will not be returned to service until cleared.
Discrepancies
163
If a taser fails the operational test, a ________ will be issued to the officer until the taser is cleared.
Spare taser
164
If a taser’s firmware is not updated, it may ________.
Shorten its useful life
165
Civilian employees authorized to carry firearms must complete the Department-approved ________ training.
Use of Force
166
Officers are prohibited from engaging in 'dry firing' unless it is part of a ________ course.
Firearms
167
Officers must notify their supervisor immediately if they discharge a firearm, except during ________ pursuits.
C) Recreational
## Footnote
Recreational pursuits do not require immediate reporting as they are not considered official duties.
168
A taser is equipped with a data port that counts the number of times the device is ________.
B) Fired
## Footnote
This data helps in monitoring the usage and effectiveness of the taser.
169
The use of firearms shall not include ________ shots.
A) Warning
## Footnote
Warning shots are generally discouraged to prevent unintended consequences.
170
If an officer discharges a firearm accidentally and no one is injured, they must submit a ________ detailing the incident.
D) Police memorandum
## Footnote
A police memorandum is a formal record of incidents for accountability and review.
171
An employee involved in a use of deadly force incident is defined as any incident where a law enforcement employee utilizes deadly force while in the process of __________.
b) Arrest, detainment, or official police duties
## Footnote
This definition clarifies the circumstances under which deadly force can be considered.
172
An employee may use deadly force in defense of himself if he believes there is an immediate threat of __________.
b) Death or serious bodily injury
## Footnote
This standard is critical for justifying the use of lethal force.
173
When retaking an escaped or rescued prisoner or fleeing suspect, deadly force may be used only if the employee has __________ that the suspect poses an immediate threat.
b) Reasonable belief
## Footnote
Reasonable belief is essential to ensure the use of deadly force is justified.
174
The employee must believe the offender has the __________ to kill or inflict serious bodily harm in order to use deadly force.
a) Ability or Apparent Ability
## Footnote
This requirement helps to assess the threat level posed by the offender.
175
In situations involving deadly force, the employee must consider all the following elements except __________.
d) Financial cost to the department
## Footnote
The focus should remain on the immediate threats rather than financial implications.
176
On all employee-involved uses of deadly force incidents, the following personnel will respond to the scene, except __________.
c) Animal Control Officer
## Footnote
Animal Control is not typically involved in human-related deadly force incidents.
177
If an employee uses deadly force resulting in death or serious bodily injury, they must __________ immediately after the incident.
b) Request medical response
## Footnote
This action is crucial for the health and safety of all involved.
178
The involved employee must submit to __________ testing following an officer-involved shooting or force that results in death or serious bodily harm.
c) Drug and alcohol
## Footnote
This requirement ensures that the employee was not under the influence during the incident.
179
The __________ will be responsible for ensuring the test results for drug and alcohol testing are available for review by the involved employee and the Chief of Police.
b) Internal Affairs Bureau
## Footnote
The Internal Affairs Bureau plays a key role in oversight and accountability.
180
When an employee intentionally uses deadly force against an animal, they must __________ and explain the incident.
a) Notify their immediate supervisor
## Footnote
This notification is necessary for proper documentation and review.
181
If the involved employee uses deadly force against an animal, the supervisor must request the __________ to respond and process the scene.
a) CSI Bureau
## Footnote
The CSI Bureau is responsible for collecting evidence and investigating incidents.
182
The employee will surrender the firearm used in a deadly force incident to __________ personnel during a countdown.
b) CSI Bureau
## Footnote
This procedure is crucial for evidence preservation.
183
If the employee volunteers to speak to detectives, the on-scene supervisor will notify the __________ upon their arrival.
d) On-scene investigative services commander
## Footnote
This notification ensures that the appropriate chain of command is followed.
184
If an employee is involved in a deadly force incident, they must attend a Critical Incident Stress Debriefing within __________ hours of the incident.
b) 72
## Footnote
Timely debriefing is vital for mental health support following traumatic events.
185
Following a deadly force incident, the Chief of Police may return the employee to full duty only after __________.
A) clearance from a designated specialist for counseling and a negative drug and alcohol test
B) a written report is filed by the employee
C) the employee re-qualifies with all weapons
D) Both a and c
d) Both a and c
186
The primary purpose of the Use of Force Review Board (FRB) and the Use of Deadly Force Review Board (DFRB) is to review and analyze all use of force incidents regarding:
A) Intentional use of deadly force resulting in injury or death to a human being
## Footnote
These boards are critical for accountability in law enforcement.
187
The Use of Force Review Board is responsible for determining if the force used was __________ and fell within Department policy.
B) Reasonable
## Footnote
This determination is essential for evaluating the appropriateness of force.
188
Which of the following is NOT one of the objectives of the Force Review Boards?
A) determine if the involved employee had received adequate training
B) determine if the involved employee is eligible for promotion
C) determine if the weapon and ammunition were within Department policy
D) determine if lesser force alternatives could have been utilized
B) Determine if the involved employee is eligible for promotion
189
Who serves as the Chairperson of the Use of Force Review Board?
B) One Internal Affairs Bureau supervisor
## Footnote
The Chairperson facilitates the review process and ensures adherence to policies.
190
The Use of Deadly Force Review Board meets to review incidents involving __________.
C) Deadly force and use of force incidents resulting in death
## Footnote
This focus helps in assessing critical incidents that have severe consequences.
191
The Use of Deadly Force Review Board will be given a presentation by the Internal Affairs Bureau that includes:
A) Audio recordings, photographs, and animation
## Footnote
These materials provide a comprehensive understanding of the incidents.
192
The __________ will present the Use of Force Review Board’s findings in the form of a monthly report to the Chief of Police.
B) Internal Affairs Bureau
## Footnote
Regular reporting helps maintain oversight and transparency regarding use of force incidents.
193
Once the Use of Deadly Force Review Board’s findings are presented to the Chief of Police, the Department will provide written notification of those findings to the involved employee(s) within __________.
B) Four working days
## Footnote
Timely notifications are essential for accountability and transparency.
194
How long are all completed documentation regarding Use of Deadly Force incidents maintained in the Internal Affairs Bureau?
B) 10 years
## Footnote
This retention period supports ongoing accountability and review.
195
Annually, the Internal Affairs Bureau will conduct a documented __________ of all use of force reports.
B) Analysis
## Footnote
Regular analysis helps in identifying trends and improving practices.
196
The __________ will serve as an advisor to the Use of Deadly Force Review Board.
B) Internal Affairs Supervisor
## Footnote
The advisor role ensures that the board's activities are aligned with department policies.
197
The Use of Force Review Board includes representatives such as one Patrol Sergeant and one __________.
B) Corrections Sergeant
## Footnote
Including diverse representatives helps in comprehensive reviews.
198
The Las Vegas Metropolitan Police Department (LVMPD) has jurisdiction within all of Clark County; however, the primary responsibility for police service is retained by the ________.
B) NLVPD
## Footnote
NLVPD focuses on specific local law enforcement needs.
199
The authority of the NLVPD on school campuses includes enforcing local ordinances, state, and ________ laws.
B) federal
## Footnote
This authority ensures comprehensive law enforcement on school property.
200
The jurisdiction of the CCSD Police, as created by NRS ________, includes all school property, buildings, and facilities for certain protective and cooperative purposes.
A) 391.275
## Footnote
This statute defines the scope of CCSD Police operations.
201
When the NLVPD enters school property to investigate crimes off-campus or in-progress crimes, they must notify ________ Police.
D) CCSD
## Footnote
Notification ensures coordination and compliance with jurisdictional protocols.
202
When the NLVPD is involved in a jurisdictional matter with another agency, they are required to conduct a ________ investigation.
C) preliminary
## Footnote
Preliminary investigations are essential for assessing the situation and determining next steps.
203
NLVPD personnel may exercise jurisdiction outside of the corporate limits of CNLV when operating under the doctrine of ________ pursuit.
B) fresh
## Footnote
Fresh pursuit allows law enforcement to act beyond their typical jurisdiction when necessary.
204
The on-duty Watch Commander is authorized to provide assistance to outside agencies without prior approval from the Chief of Police in case of ________ assistance.
C) emergency
## Footnote
Emergency situations necessitate prompt action to ensure public safety.
205
In the event of an emergency, the Watch Commander may recall NLVPD personnel or equipment from an outside agency at any time. This control is considered ________.
B) joint
## Footnote
Joint control emphasizes coordination between agencies during emergencies.
206
Requests for assistance from federal law enforcement agencies, such as the FBI, DEA, and ATF, must be made by the ________.
B) Watch Commander
## Footnote
The Watch Commander serves as the point of contact for federal assistance requests.
207
When requesting assistance from the National Guard, the City Manager or designee must follow the guidelines set forth in the ________.
B) City Emergency Response Plan
## Footnote
This plan outlines protocols for emergencies involving multiple agencies.
208
The Communications Division Manager is responsible for maintaining a ________ that lists public and private social service agencies available in the area.
C) Community Services Directory
## Footnote
This directory aids in connecting individuals with available resources.
209
A directive is written to govern the activities of any special team or task force. This directive should define the ________ of the team.
C) purpose
## Footnote
Clearly defining the purpose is essential for team effectiveness.
210
A task force should include an evaluation process, which involves monthly ________ during staff meetings.
A) reports
## Footnote
Reports facilitate accountability and strategic planning.
211
The NLVPD Watch Commander will notify the supervisor when requesting assistance from a federal agency, and any use of federal authorities will be recorded in the ________.
C) Commander's Log
## Footnote
The Commander's Log is crucial for documenting interactions with federal agencies.
212
The CCSD Police is responsible for handling initial crime reports and the statistical recovery of events within their jurisdiction, except in cases where ________ are involved.
B) criminal offenses
## Footnote
Criminal offenses may require different jurisdictional handling.
