Other Flashcards
(245 cards)
1
Q
When do you get 4 in 1 vaccine?
A
3-4 years
1
Q
Treat hydronephrosis
A
Nephrostomy
2
Q
Rheumatic heart disease acute vs chronic
A
ARCS
3
Q
Angina drugs
A
BB CCB
Nitrates
4
Q
Stable angina test
A
Coronary angio
5
Q
Heart failure
A
ACE/BB
Sprinolactone
Specialist
6
Q
Hypertension
A
A/C
A+C
A+C+D
<4.5 spirin
>4.5 ab, bb
7
Q
NSTEMI management
A
GRACE>3% = coronary angio
Fondaparinaux if no immediate PCI
Secondary: aspirin + bleed clop, no bleed ticagrelor
8
Q
Fibrinolysis afterward what do you do?
A
ECG at 90 minutes, if still ST elevated, do PCI
9
Q
Loafer is caused by
A
Ascaris
10
Q
ARDS seat the person
A
Prone
11
Q
AF drugs
A
BB, CCB, digoxin
12
Q
Bradycardia management
A
Atropine
External pacing
13
Q
Broad tachycardia stable
A
irregular: help
regular: amiodarone
14
Q
Renal colic test
A
CT KUB
15
Q
Bladder cancer is mostly
A
Transitional
16
Q
Renal stones what do you do?
A
<5 watch
10-20 shock or uteroscopy
>20 percutaneous nephrolith
17
Q
TURP syndrome can be exacerbated by
A
GLYCINE
18
Q
Prostate investigation
A
MRI
19
Q
Erectile dysfunction in young
A
Urology, do morning testosterone
20
Q
Urethra males top to bottom
A
Prostatic, membranous, bulbar, penile
21
Q
Tamsulosin SE
A
Posteral hypo
Dizziness
22
Q
Prostatis treat
A
14 days cipro
23
Q
What two stones are lytic
A
Uric and Xanthine
24
Decrease calcium stones
Thiazizds, citrate
25
Decrease oxalate stones
Chloestyramine + B6
26
Decrease uric acid stones
Allopurinol or alkalinization
27
What do you use when starting GnRH agonists in prostate cancer to avoid flare?
Cyproterone
Bicalumatide
28
Lateral anal fissure
REFER
29
Volvulus manage
Caecal - operation
Sigmoid - sigmoidoscopy
30
Hydatid cysts investigation
CT
31
Acute pancreatitis scoring
Glasgow
32
After cholecystectomy jaundice
CBD stone
33
FAST scan
free fluid
34
Treat anal fissure
Bulk laxatives
35
Mesalazine SE
Pancreatitis
36
What can increase in a SBO?
Amylase
37
What is SPECIFIC to the pancrease
Lipase
38
Snorring what kind of airway
Oropharyngeal
39
Fluids can cause what abnormality?
Hyperchlor acidosis
40
Bronchiolitis has a high fever, T or F
F, usually low fever
41
Chickenpox increases risk for what infection?
GAS
42
Hypotonia in a baby what syndrome
Prader WIlli
43
<3 months old with fever what do you do?
Bloods , FBC, culture
CXR is resp
Stool cultures if diarrhoea
44
Treat NEC
Broad spec antibiotics
45
Treat Whooping cough
Macrolide
46
Vaccines in pregnancy
Pertussis and flu
47
When do benign rolandic happen?
Night
48
Chronic reflux test
Micturating cys
49
Damage from VUR
DMSA
50
When can a baby run
18-2 years
51
When do you do a bone marrow biopsy in ITP?
Splenomegaly
52
Fever on alternating days
Malaria
53
If someone has lymphogranuloma vereneum what other test do you perform?
HIV
54
Incubation of Ebola
2-21
55
Fever facial spasms and dysphagia in an IV drug user
Tetanus
56
Preceding influenza predisposes to what pneumonia?
Staph
57
Hemibalism
Stroke in CL subthalmic nucleus
58
PAG in
Midbrain
59
LC
Pons
60
Most common disc prolapse (type not level)
PL (lower)
then FL (upper)
61
Maintenance fluids
1L + 40mmol K+
62
What does PEEP do in heart failure?
Makes L better
Makes R worse
63
What are some causes of pseudocushings
Alcohol
Depression
64
Cushing's receptor, thyroid receptor
A1
B1
65
McCune Albright gene
GNAS
66
What causes SIADH
Cyclosporin
Carbamazepine
SSRIs
67
Most common cause of primary hyperaldosteronism
BAH
68
MEN1
Parathyroid
Pancreas
Pituitary
69
MEN2A/B
Parathyroid (A)
Phaeo
Thyroid - MTC
Marfanoid /ganglioneuomas
70
Phaeo investigation
Urinary metanephrines
71
Painless goitre middle aged female
Reidels
72
Hurtle cells
Hashimotos
73
Small Bowel bacterial overgrowth syndrome investigation
Hydrogen breath test
74
Drugs causing cholestasis
OCP, Co-amox, steroids
75
Frequent COPD exacerbation antibiotic prophylaxis
Azithromycin
76
If spirometry - then try
FeNO
77
Pleural effusion in COPD patient
Pleural tap with US
78
Treat ABPA
Prednisolone
79
If Co2 normal in COPD what is target sat?
94-98
80
Pneumonia causes what kind of shunt?
R-L
81
Uncongugated hyper bilirubin syndromes
CN
Gilbert
82
Conjugated hyper bilirubin
DJ
Rotor
83
Pancreatic pseudocyst found in the
Lesser sac
84
Taut
Low 02 affinity
85
Spike fevers, joint pain, rash
JA
86
Piecemeal necrosis
AIH
87
When do you do an ABG in terms of %
<92
88
Antibody in membranous nephropathy
Phospholipase A2
89
AIN causes
Pee
Pain
Penecillin + cephalosporin
PPI
rifamPicin
90
Chronic pyelonephritis causes "" kidney
Thyroid
91
ADPDK heart
Mitral valve prolapse
92
Atropine constricts/dilates
Pilocarpine constricts/dilates
Dilates
Constricts
93
Aspirin toxicity
RAlk first
MAcid later
94
Women on inducers can have what contraception
Injection
95
Station is in relation to
Ischial spine
96
Treat amaurosis fugaux
ASPIRIN ASAP
97
Nuclear cataracts
Age
98
Polar cataracts
Inherited
99
Subcapsular cataracts
Steroids
100
Dense cataracts
Diabetes
101
Dilate your pupil drugs
Atropine, tropicanimide
102
Ashermans is when what layer is damaged?
Basalis
103
DM target in hypo risk and all other
53
48
104
Liraglutide MOA
GLIP mimic
105
When starting allopurinol what else do you need?
NSAID
106
Metformin CI in who?
GFR <30
107
When do you replace sugar in DKA management?
Glucose < 14
108
Dermatomyositis additional test
CAP CT for malignancy
109
NOF fracture classification
Garden
110
What inhibits T4 absorption?
Calcium and iron
111
Peripheral arterial disease management
Clopidogrel and atorvastatin
112
Chagas disease investigation
Echo - cardiomyopathy is common
113
Lemierre's syndrome
Thrombophlebitis of IJV after throat infection
114
What fluid in sepsis?
Crystalloid
115
Rose spots
Salmonella
116
MRSA positive
Nasal mupirocin + chlorhexidine for the skin
117
Treat legionella
Erythromycin/clarithromycin
118
Confirm meningitis
Whole blood PCR and blood cultures
119
Cyst in liver described as anchovy sauce
Entamoeba histolytica
120
qSOFA score
resp rate >22
SBP <100
Altered mentation
121
Leptospirosis diagnosis
Serology
122
What pneumonia is associated with cold sore activation
Strep pneumonia
123
Alternative to oral metronidazole in BV
Topical clindamycin
124
What antibiotics causes black hairy tongue
TetracyclinesH
125
HIV diarrhoea ziehl-neelsen protozoa
Cryptosporidium
126
Hookworms cause what?
IDA
127
What does haemophilia ducreyi indicate
Chancroid
128
Treat vancomycin red man syndrome
Stop and then re-start drug when symptoms resolve
129
Complete heart block treatment
Transvenous [acing
130
Mobitz type 2 AV block treat
Transvenous pacing
131
Treat salmonella
Ciprofloxacin
132
Bloody diarrhoea + fever treat
Ciprofloxacin
133
Spouted stoma =
End!
134
PID treatment
Metronidazole, ceftriaxone, doxy
135
Meningitis how many prophylactic doses after exposure?
1
136
Femoral hernia incision
McEvedy's
137
Indication for thoracotomy?
>1.5L blood of >200ml per hour for >2 hours
138
Right sided tenderness on PR
AppendicitisD
139
Do you give antibiotics in pancreatitis
No
140
CXR in diaphragmatic rupture
Non visible diaphragm
141
Primary vs secondary prevention of cardiovascular disease
atorvastatin 20
80
142
What are 5 risk factors for neonatal hypoglycaemia
Preterm
Maternal DM
IUGR
Hypothermia
Neonatal sepsisL
143
Liver: hyper echoic lesion, fullness, normal AFP
Hemangioma
144
How much should once daily insulin be reduced by on day on surgery
20%
145
Thromboses vs external haemorrhoid
External usually flesh or red coloured
Thromboses = blue b lackI
146
In kids do you try the stimulant laxative or osmotic first
Stimulant
147
Pulse in PDA
Collapsing
148
AP vs PA heart
Magnified on AP
149
Pulmonary oedema after Mi
Mitral regurgitation
150
Remission in UC
Azathioprine or mercaptopurine
151
Treat SBBO
Rifaximin
152
IPF diagnosis
CT
153
What qualifies someone for LTOT
2 times <7.3
154
PPH defined as
>500ml
155
What size needle to decompress chest pneumothorax
14G
156
Treat pneumothorax in chronic lung disease
Chest drain
157
Visual impairment in GCA is secondary to
AION
158
What decreases effectiveness of clopidogrel
Omeprazole
159
What is Corrigans sign and when do you see it
Rapid upstroke and collapse of carotid artery pulse
AR
160
What does your PEF have to be to be discharged after asthma attack
>75%
161
UKMEC for SLE
4
162
How do you diagnose NALD ?
Enhanced liver fibrosis blood test
163
1-2 weeks after MI
Acute heart failure
Tamponade
FREE WALL RUPTUREW
164
What do statins interact with notoriously
Macrolides
165
Induce remission crohn's
Glucocorticoids
Second line is Masalazine
166
Induce remission UC
Topical aminosalicylate
Oral
Oral corticostoid
167
SEVERE COLITIS treatment
Hospital
IV steroids
168
Urea upper vs lower GI bleed
Increased upper
169
Perianal fistula in chrons management
Metronidazole
170
Maintain remission chrons
Azathioprine or mercaptopurine
171
Maintaining remission UC mild-mod
Proctitis - topical aminosalicylate or oral
left sided: oral aminosalicylate
172
In severe colitis what investigation is preferred?
Sigmoidoscopy (colonoscopy can perforate)
173
Pyoderma gangrenous is assoc with
AML
IBD RA
GPA
PBC
174
What is the most common cause of PID
Chalmydia
175
Third line heart failure therapy
Ivabradine
Hydralazine/nitrate = afrocarribbean
176
Indapamide MOA
Thiazide-like
177
Heart failure drug regime
BB/ACE
Aldosterone
SGLT2
3. Nitrate + hydralazine, ivabradine
178
Angina drugs
BB/CCB
Nitrate, ivabradine, etcT
179
Treatment for acute pulmonary oedema
IV furosemide
180
Which BB lower mortality in heart failure
Bisoprolol and carvedilol
181
post mi drugs
dual anti p
bb
acei
statin
182
DPP4
gliptins
183
Raised INR is from inhibit/inducers
Inhibitors
184
Newly diagnosed T1DM regime
2x long acting
short acting
185
Pain in back old person normal straight leg raise
Facet joint pain
186
Do you give topical NSAIDS for back pain
No
187
DPP4i can cause
Pancreatitis
188
What rate control drug causes constipation
Verapamil
189
Liver transplant criteria after paracetamol OD
PH <7.3 >24h after ingestion
190
Hypo/hyper kalaemia = digoxin toxicity
Hypo
191
What drug can cause thrombocytopenia in old person
Heparin
192
POM means
Prescription only medicine
193
Ciclosporin SE
Hepatotoxicity
194
195
TB drug that inhibits P450
Isonizid
196
What antibiotics should epileptics NOT get
Fluroquinolones - lower threshold
197
What epileptic drug inhibits and induces p450
Sodium valproate
Carbamepazine
198
Metformin and CT scans
Dont have 48 hours after
199
Transzamuab SE
Cardiotoxicity
200
TCA overdose treat
Bicarb
201
Treat LSD overdose
Lorazepam
202
Treat organophosphate ingestion
Atropine
203
Blue lips + overdose
Opioid
204
Reaction to N-AC usually
Non-IgE
205
When are paracetamol levels accurate?
>4 hours post ingestion
206
Early signs of aspirin overdose
Tinnitus
207
Allopurinol increases risk of ___________ toxicity
Azathioprine
208
What drugs cause lithium toxicity
Ace BB Diuretics NSAIDS
209
DVT treatment severe renal impairment
>15 = xaban
< 15 = UFH
210
Electrolyte abnormality in MDMA
HypoNa+
211
Which heart drug can precipitate pulmonary oedema
Verapamil
212
Blue vision
Viagra
213
What is given during cardiac bypass surgery
Heparin
214
Example of a muscarinic agonist
Pilocarpine
215
Example of a muscarinic antagonist
Atropine
Oxybutynin
216
What class of drugs are decongestants?
alpha agonists
217
Treat adrenaline-induced ischaemia
Phenolatime
218
In HIT, what do you switch?
Heparin for argatroban
219
HIT is anti/prothrombotic
Pro!
220
What TB drug induces gout
P one
221
When is flecainide contraindicated in AF?
Heart structural abnormalities
222
TLL most important measurement to get
urate
223
Maintenance fluids adult
25-30
224
cant tolerate oral bisphosphonates...
Zolendronic (IV)
225
Differentiate between IBD and IBS in primary care
Calpectin
226
Prior to PCI drugs in stemi
aspirin and pras
227
Syphilis in a newborn
Rhinorrhea
Desquaminating rash (palms/soles)
Skeletal abnormalities
228
Toxoplasmosis in newborn
Chorioretinitis
Calcifications on brain
Hydrocephalus
229
Putaminal haemorrhage
Hemiparesis
Hemianesthesia
Conjugate gaze diversion
230
Post thrombotic syndrome management
Compression stockings and exercise
231
U shape on XRAY, no rectal gas, obstruction symptoms old person
Sigmoid volvulus
232
Man with boobs testicular tumour
Leydig
233
infant botulism signs
Floppy baby
ptosis
234
Retrocardiac air level
Hernia
235
Complication of infusing saline
Metabolic acidosis
236
Metabolic acidosis is the imbalance of what ions
Chloride and bicarb
237
Heart failure what heart sign
S3
238
Big heart, previous cancer, you want to assume heart failure ...
Malignant pericardial effusion
239
Giaradiasis mechanism of oily stools
Epithelium disruption
240
How to spot venous air embolism and how to treat it
Central venous catheter... Surgery... Barotrauma...
Obstructive shock w/sudden onset, resp distress
LEFT lateral position and o2
241
Consolidation vs effusion on examination
Effusion - decreased fremitus
Consolidation - increased fremitus
242
What causes early decelerations?
Head compression of baby
243
Variable decals are caused by
Umbilical cord compression
244
