Part 1: Microbiology Flashcards
(194 cards)
1
Q
Definition of Eukaryote
A
True nucleus organelles like human cells, giardia and amoeba
(Worm or parasite)
2
Q
Definition of Prokaryote
A
No true nucleus or organelles (bacteria)
3
Q
Definition of Family & Genus
A
How organisms are classified/organized
4
Q
Definition of Genus & Species
A
How organisms are named
5
Q
Gram POSITIVE Genus in the shape of-> Cocci (6)
A
[all end with “coccus”]
1) Micro
2) Staphylo
3) Strepto
4) Entero
5) Aero
6) Peptostrepto
6
Q
Gram POSITIVE bacteria in the shape of -> Bacilli (9)
A
1) Bacillus
2) Clostridium
3) Corynebacterium
4) Lactobacillus
5) Listeria
6) Actinomyces
7) Bifidobacterium
8) Nocordia
9) Mycobacteria
7
Q
Gram NEGATIVE Bacteria in the shape of -> cocci (1)
A
1) Neisseria
8
Q
What DNA virus family does Hepatitis B come from?
A
Hepadnaviridae
9
Q
What diseases are included in the RNA Virus family Paramyxoviridae?
A
1) Measles
2) Mumps
3) RSV
10
Q
What diseases are included in the RNA Virus family Orthomyxoviridae?
A
Influenza A, B & C
11
Q
What diseases are included in the RNA Virus family Coronaviridae?
A
Corona virus
12
Q
What diseases are included in the RNA Virus family Rhabdoviridae?
A
Rabies
13
Q
What diseases are included in the RNA Virus family Filoviridae?
A
Ebola & Marburg virus
14
Q
What diseases are included in the RNA Virus family Picornaviridae?
A
1) Rhinovirus
2) Poliovirus
3) ECHO Virus
4) Coxsackie
15
Q
What diseases are included in the RNA Virus family Togaviridae?
A
1) Rubella
2) Westerne & Eastern Equine Encephalitis
3) Chikungunya
16
Q
What diseases are included in the RNA Virus family Flaviviridae?
A
1) Dengue virus
2) Yellow fever
3) St. Louis Encephalitis
17
Q
What virus causes gastroenteritis?
A
Norwalk virus
18
Q
Its antibodies are found in…
A
- Mucous membranes like saliva, tears & GI tract
- breast milk
19
Q
IgE Antibodies fight…
A
Parasitic infections & Allergic reactions
20
Q
What antibodies increase in Hodgkin’s disease?
A
IgE & Reed Steinburg cells
21
Q
What antibodies are the first to increase on second exposure?
A
IgG
22
Q
What is the most numerous antibody?
A
IgG
23
Q
What antibody can cross the placenta?
A
IgG
24
Q
What antibody is the largest and heaviest?
A
IgM
25
What antibody is the first to increase during the first exposure?
IgM
26
What antibody has 10 binding sites?
IgM (its called a pentamer)
27
Interleukin I does what?
Lymphocyte activating factor for brain and nervous tissue
28
Interleukin I is made by
Macrophages
29
Interleukin II does what?
T-cell growth factor for direct response of immune system
30
Interleukin II is made by
CD4 cells
31
Interleukin III is made by
Big bone marrow
32
Where is Interleukin III located?
In blood and lymphatic system
33
Major histocompatibility complex (MHC) are involved with…
Tissue graft rejection
34
T Cells can recognize MHC ___ while B Cells can recognize MHC ___.
T Cells: MHC I
B Cells: MHC I & II
35
What are foam cells?
Macrophages with fat, LDL & cholesterol
36
Foam cells are present in: (4)
1) Atherosclerosis / plaque formation
2) Chlamydia
3) Toxoplasmosis
4) TB
37
What are the 6 Gram + Bacteria?
1)Bacillus
2) Listeria Monocytogenes
3) Clostridium
4) Corynebacterium Diphtheriae
5) Staph
6) Strep
38
5 diseases caused by Staph Aureus:
[STOIC]
1) Scalded skin syndrome
2) Toxic shock
3) Osteomyelitis
4) Impetigo
5) Carbuncles
39
What is Impetigo?
(1st cause = staph aureus & 2nd cause = strep pyogenes)
Honey crusted lesion around child’s mouth
40
What are Carbuncles?
Infected hair cells
41
What 6 diseases are caused by Strep Pyogenes?
[SERGIS]
1) Strep throat
2) Erysipelas
3) Rheumatic Fever
4) Glomerulonephritis
5) Impetigo
6) Scarlet Fever
42
AKA for Erysipelas
Saint Anthony’s fire
43
What disease is a superficial form of cellulitis?
Erysipelas
44
What are Jones major criteria for rheumatic fever?
1) Carditis (Macallum patch in L. Atrium)
2) Syndenham’s Chorea
3) Subcutaneous nodule
4) Erthyma Marginatum
5) Migratory Polyarthritis
45
Sign of scarlet fever
Strawberry tongue
46
What proteins are the membrane attack complex?
C5b & C9
47
Aschoff bodies are found in patients with:
Rheumatic fever
48
Babes Ernst granule bodies are found in patients with:
Diphtheria
49
Councilman cell bodies are found in patients with:
Viral hepatitis
50
Downey cell. bodies are found in patients with:
Mononucleosis
51
Epithelioid Hystiocyte’s & Gohn complex bodies are found in patients with:
TB
52
Guarneri bodies are found in patients with:
Small pox (Variola)
53
Gemma’s bodies are found in patients with:
Tertiary syphillis
54
Koplik spots are found in patients with:
Measles
55
What do Koplik spots in measles look like?
White/bluish spots in the mouth
56
Levy bodies are found in patients with:
Parkinson’s
57
Mallory bodies are found in patients with:
Hepatitis from alcoholism
58
Negri bodies are found in patients with:
Rabies
59
Russel bodies are found in patients with:
Multiple Myeloma or chronic inflammation/malignant disorders
60
What antibodies are passively given to baby in utero? Breastfeeding?
Utero: IgG
Breast feeding: IgA
61
Example of artificial active immunity
Vaccines
62
Sample of artificial passive immunity
Anti venom
63
What antigen does not stimulate an immune response?
Hapten
64
Definition of Endotoxin
from lipopolysaccharide layer of cell
(Gram - have these)
65
Definition of Enterotoxin
toxin that affects the intestines
66
Definition of Fomite
inanimate abject is vector
67
Examples of neutotoxins
Botulism & tetanus
68
Function of Opsonin
enhance phagocytosis (marks target for strike)
69
Definition of Prion
acellular protein that denatures othe rproteins
70
Definition of Toxoid
Inactivated toxin (active artificial immunity)
71
Names of the 4 Types of Hypersensitivity reactions:
I: Anaphylactic
II: Cytotoxic
III: Immune-Complex Mediated
IV: Delayed Hyper Sensitivity
72
Time frame in which the 4 types of hypersensitivity reactions occur:
Type I: 15-30 min
Type II: minutes to hours
Type III: 3-10 hours
Type IV: 48 hours
73
Examples of the hypersensitivity reaction Anaphylactic
Bee sting
Hay fever
Bronchial asthma
74
Examples of the hypersensitivity reaction Cytotoxic
Good pasteur’s
Erythroblastosis fetalis (coombs anemia
Blood transfusions
Myasthenia gravis
Grave’s disease
75
Examples of the hypersensitivity reaction Immune Complex mediated
Glomerulonephritis
Lupus / RA
Arthus reaction (local necrosis)
Serum sickness (systemic)
76
Examples of the hypersensitivity reaction Delayed hyper sensitivity
TB
contact dermatitis (poison ivy/oak etc.)
Transplant rejection via MHC
77
What cells are involved in the following type of hypersensitivity reaction Anaphylactic
IgE, Mast & Basophils
78
What cells are involved in the following type of hypersensitivity reaction Cytotoxic
IgG & Target cell
Type 2 = 2 things -> (Antigen + Antibody)
79
What cells are involved in the following type of hypersensitivity reaction Immune complex mediated
IgG & Complement
Type 3 = 3 things -> (Antigen + Antibody + Complement)
80
What cells are involved in the following type of hypersensitivity reaction Delayed hypersensitivity
T Cell & Lymphocytes
81
An Autograph eats…
inorganic material
82
A Heterograph eats…
organic material
83
A Saphrophyte eats…
Dead/decaying material like muchrooms
84
A Parasite eats…
off living organisma
85
Facultative Aerobe vs. Facultative Anaerobe. Which prefers O2?
Facultative Aerobe
86
Obligate Aerobe lives in an environment…
with Oxygen
87
Obligate Anaerobe lives in an envorionment…
without O2
88
What is a Microaerophilic organism?
organisma living with limited O2 (high altitude plants)
89
Microaerophilic organisms are grown in…
Candle jar culture
90
All of the following mean “2 populations living together”, but how are they diffrent?
Symbiosis
Mutualism
Synergism
Commensalism
Symbiosis: one or both benefit
Mutualism: both benefit
Synergism: can accomplish more together
Commensalism: one benefits, other is unaffected
91
What does Zoonosis mean?
transfer of disease from animal to human
92
What does the following lab test mean: Catalase
Staph = + test
Strep = - test
93
What does the following lab test mean/do: Chocolate agar
Gonorrhea
94
AKA’s for chocolate agar:
1) Thayer martin Agar
2) Heated blood Agar
95
What does the following lab test mean/do: Coagulase
Staph aureus = + coagulase
Other Staph = - coagulase
96
What does the following lab test mean/do: Colliform
checks E. Coli in water urification
97
What does the following lab test mean/do: Coombs
tests RBC antigens like hemolytic anemis, erythroblastosis fetalis, Rh Factor
98
What does the following lab test mean/do: Dick test
Scarlet fever
99
What does the following lab test mean/do: Giemsa Stain
Protozoa
100
What does the following lab test mean/do: HLA B27
[PEAR]
Psoriatic
Enteropathy arthropathy
AS
Reiters
101
What does the following lab test mean/do: HLA DR5/CD4
AIDS
ELISA checks DNA, Western Blot check protein
(If ELISA is +, do Western blot) -> both + = AIDS
102
What does the following lab test mean/do: Mannitol Salt
Staph
103
What does the following lab test mean/do: Paul Bunnel
Heterophile Agglutination test for MONO
104
What does the following lab test mean/do: Sabouraud Agar
Fungi
105
What does the following lab test mean/do: Tissue culture
Virus culture
106
What does the following lab test mean/do: Weil Felix
+ for all Rickettsia except for Coxiella Burnetti
107
What does the following lab test mean/do: Widal
Typhoid fever
108
What does the following lab test mean/do: Tzank test
Looking for altered epitheloid cells found in
- Herpes Zoster & Simplex
- Varicella
109
What does the following lab test mean/do: Hektoen Agar
Differentiates between shigella & Salmonella
110
Tests for Syphilis:
- Darkfield
- Kline
- Kahn
Wasserman
111
Tests for TB:
Acid fast test
112
All mycobacterium are ______ _____.
Acid Fast
113
What disease shows a Ghon complex in lung?
TB
114
What vaccine is used for TB and what bacteria does it use?
Bacillus Calmette Guerin
uses Mycobacterium Bovis
115
Tests for Mononucleosis:
1) Heterophile antibody seen in microscope
2) Paul Bunnel
3) Downey cell in blood smear
4) Monospot
116
How long does the following pasteurization method take? Holding/batch method
30 min
117
How long does the following pasteurization method take? Flash/continuous
15 seconds
118
How long does the following pasteurization method take? Ultra high
2-5 seconds
119
How long does the following pasteurization method take? Sterilization/autoclave
15 minutes
120
What does the Sterilization/Autoclave pasteurization method do?
steam heat under pressure with denatures membranes
121
The Sterilization/Autoclave pasteurization method is ineffective against
prions
122
Inactivated vaccines are used for what diseases?
Salk, Rabies
123
Toxoid vaccines are used for what diseases?
Tetanus, botulism, DTP
124
Live Attenuated vaccines are used for what diseases?
Measles, Mumps, Rubella, Sabin, BCG (for TB)
125
The Measles/Mumps vaccine is made from
chick embryo
126
The Rubella, rabies & Hep A vaccines are made from
Human diploid cells
127
The polio vaccin eis made from
monkey kidney tissue
128
What is a common side affect of vaccination?
Guillian-Barre “post infectious polyradiculopathy”
Ascending demyelination of PNS
129
What does Blue/green pus mean?
Pseudomonas Aeruginosa (open burn infection)
130
What does yello/green pus mean?
Gonorrhea
131
What does red pus mean?
serratia marcenscens
132
what does white pus mean?
chlamydia
133
what does yellow pus mean?
staph aureus
134
Penicillin function
for gram +, inhibits cell wall synthesis
135
Streptomycin Function:
for gram -, inhibits protein synthesis
136
Sulfa (drug) function:
for gram -, competes with PABA
137
What drug prevents opthalmia neonatorum?
Silver nitrate
138
Acid fast stain is used for
Mycobacterium
139
What does the Blood Agar test do?
categorizes Streptococcus
140
In a gram stain procedure, what is the primary stain?
crystal violet or methylene blue
141
In a gram stain procedure, what is the fixer agent?
Iodine
142
In a gram stain procedure, what is the counterstain?
Saffarin (red/pink color goes into Gram - organisms)
143
What does Conjugation mean?
plasmid DNA transfer via sex pilus
144
What does Transduction mean?
Bacteriophage (alterec virus) transfers genetic material between bacteria
145
What does Transformation mean?
direct uptake of free DNA
146
What does the CDC do? ***
- Compiles statistics NOT research.
- Compiles morbidity & epidemiological statistics
147
What does the Environmental Protection Agency (EPA) do? ***
- Monitors soil, air & water quality
148
What does the FDA do? ***
Regulates health products released to the publin
149
What does the NIH do?
Research NOT statistics
150
What does OSHA do? ***
Workplace safety
151
What does the US Department of Agriculture (USDA) do? ***
Responsible for milk products & Beef
152
Definition of Emerging disease
new or rapid increase in a geographical range
153
Definition of Endemic
Small # of cases in specific location
154
Definition of Epidemic
Rapidly affects many persons within a few days or weeks
155
Definition of Etiology
Study of the cause of disease
156
Definition of Incidence
# of new cases in a given time period
(how many new cases last year)
157
Definition of Pandemic
more than expected # of cases worldwide
158
Definition of Prevalence
Total # of cases at a particular time
(total cases right now)
159
What are the top 2 leading causes of death in infants?
1) Congenital malformations
2) Prematurity
160
What are the top 5 leading causes of death in adults in the US?
1) Heart disease
2) Cancer
3) Stroke
4) Respiratory infection
5) Accidents
161
What are the top 2 leading causes of death in the world?
1) Tuberculosis
2) Malaria
162
What are the 8 steps of water purification?
1) Filtration
2) Flocculation
3) Sedimentation
4) Sludge digestion
5) Sand filtration
6) Aeration
7) Chlorination
8) Possible fluoridation
163
What step of water purification adds Aluminum trichloride?
Flocculation
164
What step of water purification adds anaerobic bacteris?
Sludge digestion
165
What step of water purification removes aneorobic bacteria?
Sand filtration
166
What step of water purification adds oxygen to the wter?
Aeration
167
Adding Oxygen to water does what? (2)
1) Kills remaining anaerobic bacteria
2) Decreases biological oxygen demand
168
What steps of the water purification process are included in the primary sewage treatment protocol?
Steps 1-4
Filtration, Flocculation, Sedimentation & Sludge Digestion
169
What type of tapeworm is found in Uncooked beef?
Taenia Saginata
170
What type of tapeworm is found in Uncooked pork?
Taenia Solium
171
What type of tapeworm is found in Fish/Contaminated Sushi?
Diphyllobothrium Latum
172
What type of tapeworm is found in canine (dog) feces?
Echinococcus granulosus
173
Echinococcus Granulosus (tapeworm from dog feces) can cause:
Hydatid cysts in liver & lung
174
Diphyllobothrium Latum (tapeworm found in fish/sushi) can cause:
Pernicious anemia
MC = Yellow fin Tuna & Salmon
175
Taenia Solium (tapeworm found in uncooked pork) can cause:
Cysticercosis
(larvae containing cysts in the liver, eye & brain)
176
Tapeworms are commonly known as ___________ and have what body shape?
Cestodes; long-ribbon like body
177
Flukes are commonly known as ___________ and have what body shape?
Trematodes; flat ovoid body
178
Roundworms are commonly known as ___________ and have what body shape?
Nematodes; cylindrical & Unsegmented bodies
179
What organism is responsible for Fluke worm in the blood?
Shistosoma Japnicum
180
What organism is responsible for Fluke worm in the Intestines?
Fasciolopsis buski
181
What organism is responsible for Fluke worm in the Liver?
Clonorchis Sinensis & Fasciolopsis Hepatica
182
What organism is responsible for Fluke worm in the Lung? ***
Paragonimus westermani
183
What is the MC cause of death by a helminth (parasitic worm) worldwide?
The fluke worm -> Shistosoma Japonicum (Swimmers itch)
184
What is the MC Helminthic infection worldwide?
The roundworm “Ascaris Lumbricoides”
185
The Wuchereria Bancroft organism is transmitted by _______ and can cause:
Mosquitoes; elephantitis & Lymphatic blockage
186
The Organism Necotor americanus aka Ancylostoma duodenale is a ___________ located in _________________.
Hookworm; fecal contaminated soil
187
What organism is responsible for pinworm contamination?
Enterobius Vermicularis
188
What is the MC helminth in the US?
Pinworm “Enterobius Vermicularis”
189
What are the symptoms of Pinworm “Enterobius Vermicularis” infection?
Anus-finger-mouth touching
Nocturnal anal itching
190
River blindness is caused by what organism and transmitted by ________?
Onchocerca Volvulus; flies
191
River eye worm s caused by what organism and transmitted by ________?
Loa Loa; Flies
192
Trichinosis s caused by what organism and transmitted by ________?
Trichonella spiralis; Raw pork
193
Whipworm s caused by what organism and transmitted by ________?
Trichuris Trichura; Oral-fecal
194
Trichinosis lives in what part of the body?
striated muscles, intercostals, diaphragm
