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Part 1 Boards > Part 1: Physiology (Digestion, Muscle, Hormones & Glands) > Flashcards

Part 1: Physiology (Digestion, Muscle, Hormones & Glands) Flashcards

1
Q

Production of Melatonin (steps)

A

Tryptophan -> Serotonin -> Melatonin

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2
Q

What is the extension of the hypothalamus forming the post pituitary called?

A

Neuropophysis

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3
Q

Embryology of the anterior pituitary

A

Rathke’s pouch / ectoderm

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4
Q

How does the anterior pituitary connect to the hypothalamus?

A

Hypophyseal portal system (through blood)

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5
Q

The ant. And post. Pituitary glands are located in the

A

Sella turica

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6
Q

The anterior pituitary involves what hormones? (7)

A

1) ACTH: adrenocorticotropin hormone
2) FSH: follicle stimulating hormone
3) GH: growth hormone
4) LH: luteinizing hormone
5) MSH: melanocyte stimulating hormone
6) Prolactin
7) TSH: thyroid stimulating hormone

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7
Q

Embryology of the posterior pituitary

A

Diencephalon / derived from neuroectoderm

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8
Q

How does the posterior pituitary connect to the hypothalamus?

A

Infundibulum (neural stalk)

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9
Q

What hormones are involved with the posterior pituitary? (2)

A

1) ADH/vasopressin
2) Oxytocin

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10
Q

ADH deficiency =

A

Diabetes Insipidus

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11
Q

Too much ADH =

A

Conn’s Syndrome

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12
Q

What is the role of oxytocin?

A

Uterus contraction & milk let down

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13
Q

Target Organ of ACTH

A

Adrenal Cortex; Zona Fasciculata

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14
Q

Target Organ of FSH

A

Ovary & Testes

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15
Q

Target Organ of Growth hormone

A

All tissue except cartilage

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16
Q

Target Organ of Luteinizing hormone

A

Ovary & Testes

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17
Q

Target Organ of Melanocyte Stimulating hormone

A

Melanocytes

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18
Q

Target Organ of Prolactin

A

Mammaries

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19
Q

Target Organ of TSH

A

Thyroid follicular cells

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20
Q

Effects of ACTH

A

1) Gluconeogenesis when stressed/fasting
2) Shuts down immune system

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21
Q

Effects of FSH

A

Females: releases follicle & estrogen
Males: stimulates spermotogenesis

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22
Q

FSH must be

A

Inhibited by inhibin

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23
Q

Inhibin is made in… male vs female

A

Female: Corpus Leuteum
Male: Sertoli cells

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24
Q

Effects of Growth hormone

A

1) Burns FAT (not carbs)
2) Somatostatin release triggered by hypothalamus

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25
Q

____________ from the liver mediates growth hormone for cartilage

A

Somatomedin

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26
Q

Effects of Luteinizing hormone male vs female

A

Female: Ovulation & forms corpus leuteum to make progesterone
Male: Testosterone in Leydig cells

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27
Q

Effects of Melanocyte stimulating hormone

A

Produce melanin in basement layer of epidermis

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28
Q

Effects of Prolactin

A

Makes milk

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29
Q

Prolactin must be actively inhibited by

A

Dopamine

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30
Q

Effects of TSH

A

Maintains Basal metabolic Rate

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31
Q

Is T3 or T4 more powerful?

A

T3, faster acting but less abundant

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32
Q

When levels are too high: ACTH

A

Cushing’s

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33
Q

Characteristics of Cushing’s disease

A

1) moon face
2) buffalo humo
3) pendulous abdomen
4) purple straie

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34
Q

When levels are too high: FSH

A

Multiple OOcytes

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35
Q

When levels are too high: Growth hormone

A

Before growth centers close: Gigantism
After growth centers close: Acromegaly

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36
Q

When levels are too high: Melanocyte stimulating hormone

A

Hyper-pigmentation

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37
Q

When levels are too high: Prolactin

A

Too much milk

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38
Q

When levels are too high: TSH

A

Hyperthyroidism MC Grave’s

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39
Q

Characteristics of Grave’s disease

A

1) Thin bulging eyes
2) Exophthalmoses
3) heat intolerance

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40
Q

Deficiency of ACTH

A

Addison’s

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41
Q

Characteristics of Addison’s disease

A

1) low BP
2) Hyper-pigmented face & mouth

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42
Q

Deficiency of FSH

A

Infertility

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43
Q

Deficiency of Growth hormone

A

Dwarfism

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44
Q

Deficiency of Luteinizing hormone

A

Degenerates corpus leuteum

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45
Q

Deficiency of MSH

A

Albinism

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46
Q

Deficiency of Prolactin

A

Too little milk

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47
Q

Deficiency of TSH

A

Myxedema = Hypothyroidism MC Hashimotos

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48
Q

What type of hypothyroidism is seen in children?

A

Cretinism

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49
Q

Calcium controls ______ _______ keeping them _________.

A

Sodium gates; closed

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50
Q

If low calcium… nerves ___________ producing _________.

A

Depolarize; tetany

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51
Q

The hearts sodium channels are _______- which prevents tetany by creating ___________

A

Slow; plateaus (long absolute refractory period

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52
Q

What 2 hormones are mainly concerned with keeping a calcium balance?

A

Calcitonin & Parathyroid hormone

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53
Q

PTH is produced by

A

Parathyroid glands

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54
Q

Calcitonin is produced by

A

Parafollicular cells of thyroid

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55
Q

What is the effect of PTH?

A

1) Takes Calcium out of bone and into blood
2) Decreases blood Phosphorus

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56
Q

What is the effect of Calcitonin?

A

1) Pulls Calcium out of blood & puts it in bone
2) Increases blood Phosphorus

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57
Q

Excess PTH leads to… (6)

A

1) Hyperparathyroidism
2) Kidney stones
3) Osteopenia
4) Browns Tumor
5) jersey spine
6) Salt & pepper skull

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58
Q

Excess Calcitonin leads to…

A

Tetany

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59
Q

Example of Tetany:

A

Chvostek’s sign

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60
Q

The adrenal cortex is derived from

A

Mesoderm

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61
Q

The adrenal medulla is derived from

A

Neural crest cells

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62
Q

Zona Glomerulosa = _____________ = _____________ = _______________

A

Aldosterone; Mineral corticoid; Salt

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63
Q

Zona Fasciculata = _____________ = _____________ = _______________

A

Cortisol; Glucocorticoid; Sugar

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64
Q

Zona Reticularis = _____________ = _____________ = _______________

A

Sex hormones; Androgens; Sex

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65
Q

What cells secrete epinephrine and norepinephrine?

A

Chromaffin Cells

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66
Q

Nor epinephrine and epinephrine break..

A

Glycogen into glucose to raise blood sugar

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67
Q

Norepinephrine and epinephrine are secreted from the adrenal

A

Medulla

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68
Q

Tumor of the Adrenal Medulla:

A

Pheochromocytoma (gray cell tumor)

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69
Q

Signs & symptoms of a gray cell tumor of the adrenal medulla

A

Episodic hypertension

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70
Q

Estrogen builds in what phase?

A

proliferative

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71
Q

What happens during the proliferative phase?

A

Builds endometrial lining

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72
Q

What hormone is involved in the secretory phase of the ovaries?

A

Progesterone

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73
Q

Progesterone is a part of the ___________ phase and does what?

A

Secretory; nourishes embryo

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74
Q

In the menstrual cycle, FSH does 2 major things:

A

1) picks primary follicle (haploid cell)
2) releases estrogen

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75
Q

In the menstrual cycle, Estrogen does 2 molar things:

A

1) Thickens endometrial lining/blood -> increases body temp
2) Peaks on the 14th day to release LH

76
Q

In the menstrual cycle, LH does 2 major things

A

1) ovulation
2) forms corpus leuteum

77
Q

In the menstrual cycle, the Corpus Leuteum does 2 major things:

A

1) makes progesterone
2) makes inhibin stopping FSH

78
Q

2 potential fates of the Corpus Leuteum include:

A

1) Dies (corpus albicans)
2) makes progesterone in presence of HCG

79
Q

HCG (human chorionicgonadotropin) is made by __________ and stimulates ___________ to make ____________.

A

Placenta; Corpus Leuteum; progesterone

80
Q

Thick layer vs. Outside layer of OOcytes are called

A

Thick: corona granular
Outside: corona radiata

81
Q

Spermatogenesis makes ___________ from _____________

A

Haploid cells; meiosis

82
Q

What hormone starts spermatogenesis?

A

FSH

83
Q

What hormone releases testosterone from Leydig cells?

A

LH

84
Q

What hormone matures sperm:

A

Testosterone

85
Q

Sperm is made in what structure?

A

Somniferous tubules

86
Q

Sperm matures in what structure?

A

Epidydimis

87
Q

Sperm is stored in the

A

Vas deferans

88
Q

What shut off spermatogenesis?

A

Inhibin

89
Q

What cells make inhibin in the male reproductive system?

A

Sertoli cells

90
Q

What muscle raises the testes?

A

Cremaster

91
Q

What fascia wrinkles the scrotum?

A

Dartos fascia

92
Q

What is Cryptorchism?

A

Failure of testes to descend (precancerous)

93
Q

In the mouth, what starts the breakdown of starch? Fat?

A

Starch: salivary amylase
Fat: Sublingual Lipase

94
Q

Digestion of protein starts where?

A

Stomach

95
Q

Gastric glands give rise to

A

Parietal cells & Chief cells

96
Q

Chief (peptic) cells produce

A

Pepsinogen

97
Q

Pepsinogen is converted by _____ into _______ for _________ digestion.

A

HCL; Pepsin; protein

98
Q

Parietal (oxyntic) cells make (2) things:

A

1) HCL
2) Intrinsic factor

99
Q

Intrinsic factor does what?

A

B12 absorption in the terminal ileum

100
Q

Pyloric glands give rise to ______________ which produce ___________

A

Gastric cells; gastrin

101
Q

Effect of gastrin

A

Increases gastric secretions, mucous and motility

102
Q

What are Brunner’s glands and where are they located?

A

Mucous secreting glands in the duodenum (buffers chyme)

103
Q

Secretin triggers what release from the pancreas?

A

1) Bicarbonate
2) water

104
Q

Choleccystokinin produces…

A

Most of the pancreatic enzymes in response to polypeptides (proteins) in the stomach

105
Q

Cholescystokinin cause production of: (3)

A

1) pancreatic amylase (starch)
2) pancreatic lipase (fat)
3) trypsinogen (protein)

106
Q

Cholecystolinin closes __________ in response to ________

A

Pyloric sphincter; fats

107
Q

Cholecystolinin _________ gastrin in the stomach

A

Inhibits

108
Q

Cholecystolinin cause gallbladder to…

A

Release bile which increases surface area for fats to be acted on

109
Q

Bile creates ______ that carry fat to lacteal glands for absorption

A

Micelles

110
Q

Chylomicrons are the digested form of

A

Fats

111
Q

Enterokinase converts ___________ to ____________ to help digest ________

A

Trypsinogen, trypsin, protein

112
Q

Once trypsin is made what does it do?

A

Activates all other proteolytic enzymes including:
1) Chymotrypsinogen
2) proteolastase
3) carboxypolypeptidase

113
Q

The crypts of Lieberkuhn release (2)

A

1) aminopolypeptidase & dipeptidase

114
Q

Aminopolypeptidase & Dipeptidase breakdown

A

Poly and dipeptides into amino acids

115
Q

What cells produce mucous?

A

Goblet cells

116
Q

What does pancreatic amylase breakdown?

A

Poly and disaccharides

117
Q

Pancreatic amylase is made in the

A

Small intestine

118
Q

Lactase breaks down lactose into…

A

Glucose + Galactose

119
Q

Sucrose breaks down sucrose into…

A

Glucose + fructose

120
Q

Maltase breaks down maltose into…

A

Glucose + glucose

121
Q

What is the mineral of B12?

A

Cobalt

122
Q

Decreased intrinsic factor leads to (4)

A

1) pernicious anemia
2) macrocytic anemia
3) normochromic anemia
4) megaloblastic anemia

123
Q

If decreased intrinsic factor is left untreated what disease can take over?

A

Posterolateral Sclerosis of the spinal cord (aka combined systems disease)

124
Q

What can stop absorption of B12?

A

Fish tapeworm in the ileum

125
Q

1 cause of peristalsis =

A

Gut distention

126
Q

Pancreatic enzymes are made in the ______________ and stored in the _____________

A

Small intestine; pancreas

127
Q

Right and left lobes of the liver are separated by what ligament

A

Falciform

128
Q

The round ligament is a remnant of

A

The umbilical vein

129
Q

The triangular ligaments of the liver are

A

Superior/lateral

130
Q

The __________ ligament of the liver attaches to the diaphragm

A

Coronary

131
Q

Path from liver to the pancreas (6 steps)

A

R & L Hepatic ducts -> common hepatic duct -> Cystic duct from Gallbladder joins -> Common bile duct -> Pancreatic Duct joins -> empties into 2nd part of duodenum at the major duodenal pilla

132
Q

The pancreatic head contacts

A

2nd segment of descending duodenum

133
Q

Uncinate process of the pancreas location:

A

Tongue-like projection inferior to the head

134
Q

Pancreatic body contacts th

A

Stomach & L. Kidney

135
Q

Pancreatic tail contacts

A

Spleen

136
Q

What artery is the pancreas mainly supplied by?

A

Splenic artery

137
Q

In the spleen what is red pulp and white pulp?

A

Red: RBC
White: WBC

138
Q

What are the 4 possibilities for Edema?

A

1) Increased venous pressure = Increased hydrostatic pressure
2) Decreased protein in the blood = decreased oncotic/osmotic pressure
3) Myxedema = hypothyroidism/cretinism
4) Anaphylaxis = Type 1 Hypersensitivity reaction = histamine release

139
Q

Term for generalized edema

A

Anasarca

140
Q

Nephrotic Syndrome: “_____________” = ____________ ______________ ______________

A

Pre-Eclampsia; Hypertension, Edema, Proteinuria

141
Q

The portal vein =

A

Superior mesenteric vein & Splenic (lineal) vein

142
Q

The portal vin empties into the

A

Liver

143
Q

Hepatic vein drains into the

A

Inferior vena cava

144
Q

3 hormones involve with increased eating & what they do

A

Neuropeptide Y: increases appetite
Ghrelin: promotes appetite
Adiponectin: helps insulin bring glucose into cells

145
Q

Where do the following hormones come from?
1) Neuropeptide Y
2) Ghrelin
3) Adiponectin

A

1) hypothalamus
2) stomach
3) fat cells

146
Q

The enterogastric reflex is an _______________ reflex

A

Inhibitory

147
Q

Hormones involved in decreased eating & what they do:

A

1) Leptin: shuts off appetite in hypothalamus
2) Peptide YY: when eaten enough
3) Somatostatin: (several functions) (other slide)
4) Serotonin: Satiation

148
Q

Where do the following hormones come from?
1) Leptin
2) Peptide YY
3) Somatostatin
4) Serotonin

A

1) fat cells
2) intestines
3) delta cells of pancreas
4) argentaffin cells from stomach

149
Q

3 functions of somatostatin:

A

[shuts off digestion by]:
1) Inhibits insulin & glucagons
2) inhibits gastrin
3) inhibits Renin

150
Q

Beta cells = __________ and the __________ blood sugar

A

Insulin; Lower

151
Q

Alpha cells = __________ and they __________ blood sugar

A

Glucagon; raise

152
Q

What is the functional unit of a muscle

A

Alpha motor neuron + all muscle fibers it innervates

153
Q

What is the functional unit of a muscle fiber?

A

Sarcomere

154
Q

A Band characteristics (3)

A

1) Anisonotropic
2) Myosin (thick) & Actin (thin)
3) remains the same with contraction

155
Q

Characteristics of I Band: (3)

A

1) Isotrophic
2) Actin (thin)
3) Shortens with contraction

156
Q

Characteristics of H band: (2)

A

1) Myosin (thick)
2) disappears with with contraction

157
Q

Endomysium =
Perimysium =
Epmysium =

A

Covering of a muscle fiber
Covering of a muscle fascicle
Covering of entire muscle

158
Q

STUDY SKELETAL MUSCLE CONTRACTION

A
159
Q

In smooth muscle contraction, actin attaches to

A

Dense bodies

160
Q

In smooth muscle contraction, calcium binds with

A

Calmodulin

161
Q

There is no ___________ in smooth muscle

A

Troponin

162
Q

Smooth muscle relaxation uses…

A

Myosin hosphatase/calcium pump to break the contraction

163
Q

(#1) Skeletal Muscle vs. (#2) Smooth Muscle: Activation

A

1) faster
2) slower

164
Q

(#1) Skeletal Muscle vs. (#2) Smooth Muscle: Strength

A

1) weaker
2) stronger

165
Q

(#1) Skeletal Muscle vs. (#2) Smooth Muscle: energy required to sustain contraction

A

1) More
2) Less

166
Q

(#1) Skeletal Muscle vs. (#2) Smooth Muscle: calcium channels

A

1) less involved
2) more involved

167
Q

(#1) Skeletal Muscle vs. (#2) Smooth Muscle: sodium channels

A

1) more involved
2) less involved

168
Q

(#1) Skeletal Muscle vs. (#2) Smooth Muscle: Relaxation

A

1) Acetylcholine-esterase
2) Myosin phosphotase & calcium pump

169
Q

Slow Twitch fiber characteristics: (7)

A

1) endurance
2) red color due to myoglobin
3) aerobic glycolysis
4) more mitochondria
5) less glycolysis enzymes
6) postural muscles
7) fight gravity

170
Q

Fast twitch fibers characteristics (7)

A

1) explosive power
2) white, lack of myoglobin
3) anaerobic glycolysis
4) less mitochondria
5) more glycolysis enzymes
6) Sport muscles; fatigable
7) Fight or Flee

171
Q

1 degree muscle spindle receptors are stimulated by

A

Nuclear chain and/or nuclear bag

172
Q

2 degree muscle spindle receptors are stimulated by

A

Nuclear chain only

173
Q

Gamma motor neuron = _____________ & _____________ (tone)

A

Cerebellum; intrafusal

174
Q

Alpha motor neuron = ____________ & ____________

A

Pre-central Gyrus of cortex; Extrafusal

175
Q

Definition of convection

A

Air waves cool off object

176
Q

Definition of radiation heat transfer

A

How you normally give off heat

177
Q

Passive diffusion follows

A

Concentration gradient

178
Q

Facilitated diffusion uses (3)

A

1) A carrier protein
2) Voltage gates
3) Ligand gating (bind chemical w/ protein)

179
Q

Primary active transport requires

A

ATP

180
Q

Secondary active transport mechanism:

A

High Sodium concentration gradient carries molecules into cell

181
Q

Excitatory molecules in the CNS: (5)

A

1) AcH
2) Nor/epinephrine
3) glutamate
4) dopamine
5) Serotonin

182
Q

Inhibitory molecules in the CNS: (2)

A

1) Glycine (spine)
2) GABA (brain)

183
Q

The neuromuscular junction uses _____ to transmit impulses

A

AcH

184
Q

The autonomic nervous system uses ________ & _________ to transmit impulses:

A

AcH & Norepinephrine

185
Q

AcH activates what 2 receptors?

A

Muscanaric & Nicotinic

186
Q

Muscanaric receptors are the…

A

Effector cells fo the parasympathetic

187
Q

Nictinic receptors are the…

A

Skeletal muscle fibers including pre-ganglion is sympathetic and parasympathetic

Part 1 Boards (13 decks)

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