Past Exam 2003-2004 Flashcards
(132 cards)
1
Q
______________________________ is the cause of blackleg in ruminants
A
Clostridium chauvoei
2
Q
_______________________________is the cause of fowl coryza.
A
Avibacterium paragallinarum
3
Q
_______________________________ is the cause of Glasser’s disease in swine.
A
Haemophilus parasuis
4
Q
What are the typical tissues or organ systems involved in Glasser=s disease?
A
Glasser=s is a polyserositis and any serosoal surface may be infected as well as the joints
5
Q
_______________________________ is a cause of enteritis in young rodents and focal hepatic necrosis, jaundice and enterocolitis in older rodents.
A
Clostridium piliforme
6
Q
_______________________________ is the cause of contagious equine metritis.
A
Taylorella equigenitalis
7
Q
_______________________________ is the cause of whooping cough in humans.
A
Bordetella pertussis
8
Q
_______________________________ is the cause of wooden tongue in cattle.
A
Actinobacillus lignieresii
9
Q
_______________________________ is the natural habitat of the organism that causes wooden tongue.
A
oral cavity and upper GI tract (primarily ruminants)
10
Q
___________________________ is the cause of contagious pleuropneumonia in swine.
A
Actinobacillus pleuropneumoniae
11
Q
_______________________________ is an anaerobe commonly found in uterine infections in dairy cattle
A
Fusobacterium necrophorum
12
Q
_______________________________ is an anaerobe commonly causing thrush in horses (infection of the frog).
A
Fusobacterium necrophorum
13
Q
_______________________________ causes bloody dysentery in swine.
A
Brachyspira hyodysenteriae
14
Q
_______________________________ is a common cause of infectious food poisoning associated with improper handling of poultry meat.
A
Campylobacter jejuni
15
Q
_________________ is the most pathogenic of the Brucella species for humans.
A
Brucella melitensis
16
Q
___________________ has the broadest host range of any of the Brucella species.
A
Brucella suis
17
Q
_____________________ is the cause of the several manifestations of porcine proliferative enteropathy
A
Lawsonia intracellularis
18
Q
_____________________ and _____________________ are the two most common sources of Francisella tularensis for humans.
A
ticks and other hematophagous arthropods and _cottontail rabbits
19
Q
_____________________ is a major cause of death in individuals that develop fulminating infections with Neisseria meningitidis and N. gonorrhoeae
A
Septic shock (DIC, endotoxemia
20
Q
_______________________________ is the cause of cholera in humans
A
Vibrio cholerae
21
Q
_______________________________ was commonly involved in fistulous withers in horses.
A
Brucella abortus
22
Q
Why do we not commonly see infections with Brucella abortus the above organism in fistulous withers anymore?
A
Brucella abortus has been all but eradicated from the cattle population in the U.S. and as a result, the organism is not available for causing infections in horses.
23
Q
What is the role of Bordetella bronchiseptica in atrophic rhinitis in swine?
A
B. bronchiseptica colonizes the upper respiratory tract mucosa and, using its dermonecrotic toxin, is able to initiate minor damage to the mucosa of the nasal turbinates. This relatively minor damage facilitates the colonization of the nasal turbinates with toxigenic Pasteurella multocida which secretes its toxin and causes further turbinate damage.
24
Q
Describe the clinical presentation of infectious canine tracheobronchitis:
A
Chronic, dry, nonproductive cough, occasionally with vomiting. The coughing begins acutely within a few days of contact with other dogs and is due to damage to the tracheal ciliated epithelium. The cough may last 4 to 6 weeks.
25
Briefly (30 words or less) discuss the pathogenesis of infectious bovine keratoconjunctivitis:
Initial damage to the corneal epithelium due to dust, excessive UV light, long stemmy grass or weeds, etc. Mycoplasma bovoculi colonizes the corneal lesions. Moraxella bovis subsequently colonizes the corneal lesions and produces a variety of proteases, a hemolysin, etc. that can heavily damage the epithelium. Neutrophils that migrate to the area are lysed and release their hydrolytic enzymes thus augmenting the damage. (key has more than 30 words to cover all possible answers
26
_______________________ and ______________________ are the two most important clinical diseases caused by Leptospira interrogans in domestic animals.
abortion ; hepatitis
27
_______________________ is a disease primarily of sheep caused by Clostridium novyi Type B.
Black disease
28
______________________ is caused by Treponema pallidum subspecies pertenue in humans.
Yaws
29
______________________ is a disease of cattle associated with damage caused by liver flukes
Redwater disease
30
______________________ is a relatively common disease of waterfowl caused by Clostridium botulinum.
Limberneck
31
Where do the waterfowl get the toxin in the previous question? (Clostridium botulinum)
C. botulinum grows in the sediments at the bottoms of ponds and lakes. Ducks feed off vegetation at the bottom of these ponds and ingest the toxin.
32
When Campylobacter fetus subspecies venerealis is first introduced into a herd of cattle, the predominant clinical picture is:
Delayed calving,(poor conception rates), all cows or heifers keep coming back into heat for 4 to 5 months before settling.
33
What determines whether Fusobacterium necrophorum is able to survive in the liver and produce abscesses?
The amount of leukotoxin produced (whether it is a biotype A organism).
34
Why do the treatments for tetanus and botulism need to be continued often for several weeks to months?
These toxins bind irreversibly to their target sites and produce long-term inhibition of function. It takes that long for regeneration to occur.
35
Pseudomembraneous colitis in humans:
a. Is commonly associated with antimicrobial therapy that destroys much of the normal flora of the intestine.
b. Is caused by Clostridium difficile.
c. Is associated with contact with laboratory rodents, cats, and certain other animal species.
d. All the above.
e. Only a and b above.
e. Only a and b above.
a. Is commonly associated with antimicrobial therapy that destroys much of the normal flora of the intestine.
b. Is caused by Clostridium difficile.
36
Leptospira interrogans is rather unique among bacterial pathogens because:
a. It can actively invade through mucosal surfaces.
b. It survives well in ponds and streams.
c. It is transmitted through urine.
d. It requires an intermediate host.
e. It almost always causes serious, life-threatening disease.
a. It can actively invade through mucosal surfaces.
37
Redwater disease and Black disease are geographically restricted because:
a. The organisms that cause these diseases have their natural habitats in soil only in very limited geographic areas.
b. The reservoir hosts for these diseases are only found in limited geographic areas.
c. The intermediate hosts for these diseases are only found in limited geographic areas.
d. All the above.
e. None of the above. (c or e accepted)
c. The intermediate hosts for these diseases are only found in limited geographic areas.
38
Which of the following is least likely to be used to determine what organisms might be involved in clostridial infections?
a. Gas-liquid chromatography of isolated bacteria
b. Anaerobic carbohydrate fermentation tests with isolated bacteria
c. Fluorescent antibody tests on affected tissues
d. Serologic tests to detect antibody against toxins
e. Toxin detection tests
Serologic tests to detect antibody against toxins (note: the diseases are usually too acute to allow time for generation of antibody.)
39
Foot rot in sheep:
a. Is easily eliminated from a flock.
b. Can be transmitted at sale barns just by turning sheep into a pen that was recently occupied by infected sheep.
c. Is usually seen in dry seasons because the hoof is more likely to develop cracks and other predisposing lesions.
d. Is caused primarily by Fusobacterium necrophorum.
e. None of the above.
Can be transmitted at sale barns just by turning sheep into a pen that was recently occupied by infected sheep. (note: The organism will survive in a pen for a week or two.)
40
Rusty nails are especially good at inducing tetanus because:
a. The rust reduces the Eh in the local area where the spores are introduced and allows the spores to germinate.
b. Rusty nails are contaminated with facultative anaerobes which remove oxygen from the site of injury.
c. The rust on the nail creates an increased inflammatory response and results in the toxin being carried to the systemic circulation much more rapidly.
d. All the above.
e. Only a and b above.
f. This is actually a myth.
a. The rust reduces the Eh in the local area where the spores are introduced and allows the spores to germinate.
b. Rusty nails are contaminated with facultative anaerobes which remove oxygen from the site of injury.
41
Brucella abortus
a. Is resistant to many common disinfectants and thus is able to survive in buildings for extended periods despite routine disinfection.
b. Only causes disease in humans, cattle and horses.
c. Causes primarily an early term abortion in cattle.
d. Does not cause significant disease in bulls.
e. None of the above.
e. None of the above.
42
Reduction of nitrites in cured meats could lead to a higher incidence of:
a. Campylobacteriosis
b. Vibrio parahaemolyticus infection
c. Botulism
d. All the above
e. Only b and c above
Botulism
43
Brucella suis:
a. Is more likely to cause sterility than most of the other species of Brucella.
b. Is commonly found in commercial swine in the southern U.S.
c. Has been eradicated from the U.S.
d. Is easily detected by serologic testing.
e. Is usually localized to the reproductive tract of swine.
Is more likely to cause sterility than most of the other species of Brucella
44
Brucella canis is unique among the Brucella species because:
a. It only causes clinical disease in dogs.
b. It is shed in urine and many other excretions and secretions of the dog, both males and females.
c. It has a reservoir host in domestic cats and other felines.
d. It is readily cleared by the immune system and produces only short-term infections.
e. All the above.
It is shed in urine and many other excretions and secretions of the dog, both males and females.
45
The main receptors for the epsilon toxin of Clostridium perfringens type D:
a. Are in the kidneys thus the name Apulpy kidney disease@.
b. Are in the liver thus the severe hepatitis that results.
c. Are in the neurons thus the neurologic signs.
d. Are in the small and large intestine, thus the severe enteritis that occurs.
e. Are in the vascular endothelium of the brain, thus the neurologic signs.
Are in the vascular endothelium of the brain, thus the neurologic signs.
46
T/F Campylobacter fetus subspecies venerealis is cleared from the uterus of cattle when specific IgA is produced and thus preventing invasion of the endometrium.
False
47
T/F The Clostridium tetani found in horse feces is more invasive and produces higher quantities of tetanospasmin
False
48
T/F Tetanus in lambs is frequently associated with the improper use of elastrators for tail docking and castration
True
49
T/F Brucella abortus RB51 vaccine is not pathogenic for any species of animal.
False
50
T/F Animals infected with Brucella abortus usually remain infected for life unless early and aggressive antimicrobial therapy is instituted.
True
51
T/F Brucella melitensis is widespread in the U.S. goat population but exact prevalence figures are not available because there is no eradication program in place.
False
52
T/F Guillain-Barre syndrome is currently thought to be associated with autoimmune antibody stimulated by ganglioside-like epitopes produced by Campylobacter jejuni
True
53
T/F Brachyspira pilosicoli is an old name for Leptospira interrogans
False
54
T/F Lyme disease seems to be localized not only to specific regions of the U.S. but also is much more prevalent within specific sections of these regions.
True
55
T/F OspA vaccines to prevent infection with Borrelia burgdorferi in humans were recently replaced with vaccines having primarily an OspB component
False
56
____________________________ is the name of the disease caused by Clostridium perfringens type D in sheep.
Enterotoxemia, overeating disease, or pulpy kidney disease
57
____________________________ is the cause of severe diarrhea, vomiting and abdominal cramps in humans. The diarrhea can result in tremendous fluid loss.
Vibrio cholerae
58
____________________________ is an infection of the frog of a horse=s hoof involving Fusobacterium necrophorum and other bacteria.
Thrush
59
____________________________ is the name of the toxin produced by Clostridium tetani that is responsible for the clinical signs of tetanus
tetanospasmin
60
____________________________ is the most important bacterial agent involved in both bovine and ovine respiratory disease in the U.S.
Mannheimia haemolytica
61
____________________________ is the cause of fowl cholera
Pasteurella multocida
62
____________________________ is the organism that causes proliferative enteritis in both horses and swine.
Lawsonia intracellularis
63
____________________________ is the organism that causes kennel cough in dogs.
Bordetella bronchiseptica
64
____________________________ is the etiologic agent of contagious equine metritis.
Taylorella equigenitalis
65
____________________________ is an organism transmitted to humans by ticks and via contact with infected rabbits or rodents.
Francisella tularensis
66
____________________________ is an organism that produces an RTX toxin that is specific for bovine leukocytes and platelets (leukotoxin).
Mannheimia haemolytica
67
____________________________ is an organism frequently involved in clostridial infections that does not usually cause a specific disease of its own
Clostridium sordellii
68
____________________________ Immunization against this organism is usually accomplished with the 7-way clostridial vaccines or similar vaccines
?
69
____________________________ is the organism that causes a severe and usually fatal hemolytic anemia in cattle associated with migration of liver flukes.
Clostridium haemolyticum or C. novyii type D_
70
____________________________ causes epididymitis and testicular atrophy in dogs. This organism is most common in this country in large kennels.
Brucella canis
71
____________________________ is the organism that causes shigellosis or equulosis in foals.
Actinobacillus equuli
72
____________________________ and ____________________________ are the two organisms that contribute to footrot in sheep but which are not considered to be the Acause@ of ovine footrot.
Arcanobacterium pyogenes
and
Fusobacterium necrophorum
73
____________________________ is the cause of ulcerative enteritis or quail disease in a variety of wild and domestic avian species
Clostridium colinum
74
____________________________ is the cause of a mesocolonic edema and a resulting in diarrhea in neonatal pigs
Clostridium difficile
75
____________________________ is a disease of laboratory rodents and probably wild rodents caused by Clostridium piliformae.
Tyzzer's disease
76
____________________________ is a Gram-negative bacterium often found in high numbers in bovine keratoconjunctivitis but which is not considered to be the cause of this infection.
Branhamella ovis
77
List three of the most common predisposing factors involved in infectious bovine keratoconjunctivitis
UV light, dust, trauma due to tall stemmy grass, face flies, Mycoplasma bovoculi
78
List two major diseases caused by Histophilus somni in cattle
Thromboembolic meningoencephalitis (could also list septicemia/lameness)
Pneumonia (abortion is not a major problem)
79
Why do we usually only see enterotoxemia in feeder lambs and not in breeding-age ewes?
_Feeder lambs are placed on a high energy (grain) ration and breeding age ewes are usually not fed such a diet. The high carbohydrate content of the anterior small intestine is necessary for proliferation of the Clostridium perfringens type D and production of the epsilon toxin
80
Briefly describe the pathogenesis of rhinotracheitis (coryza) in turkey poults
Bordetella avium colonizes the ciliated tracheal epithelium of the trachea and upper respiratory tract, produces one or more toxins and damages the cilia and the epithelial cells, thus allowing secondary bacterial invasion of the trachea. A chronic upper respiratory tract disease results, with discharge from the nares and conjunctiva
81
Briefly describe fowl coryza
Haemophilus paragallinarum affects adult birds most commonly and produces acute inflammation of the turbinates and acute air-sacculitis with sneezing, conjunctivitis, swelling of the head and wattles, decreased feed intake and marked loss of egg production
82
If botulism is such a severe disease in humans, why do we not routinely vaccinate against it?
It is a very sporadic disease and can easily be prevented by correct handling and cooking of food
83
Explain the basis of the paralysis seen in Guillain-Barre syndrome patients that occurs subsequent to infection with Campylobacter jejuni.
Ganglioside-like epitopes in the LPS of C. jejuni are thought to mimic host neurologic tissue. An autoimmune response develops when antibody is formed against these epitopes and neural function is inhibited
84
Ovine abortion caused by Campylobacter jejuni and C. fetus subspecies fetus used to be controlled by feeding oxytetracycline to pregnant ewes. Why do we not use this method routinely any more?
This was done so commonly that organisms resistant to oxytetracycline were selected for and are now the common ones causing abortion
85
Briefly describe Glasser=s disease
It is a polyserositis, arthritis and meningitis seen in pigs as a result of infection with Haemophilus parasuis
86
What is the immunologic basis of the protection provided by immunization with killed Campylobacter fetus subspecies venerealis bacterins, ie., how are they able to protect cattle against early embryonic death and infertility?
The vaccines stimulate production of IgG which protects the uterus and fallopian tubes from becoming infected. It prevents the endometritis. (The killed bacterins do not stimulate IgA production.)
87
T or F Pasteurella multocida capsular type A is most commonly seen as a cause of respiratory disease in mammals.
True
88
T or F Pasteurella multocida capsular type A is most commonly seen as a cause of respiratory disease in birds
False
89
T or F Typical lesions of tularemia are in rabbits are small, necrotic, granulomatous foci in the liver, spleen, and lymph nodes.
True
90
T or F Immunity against tularemia is primarily humoral and is readily generated in susceptible animals by immunization with killed bacterins
Fasle
91
T or F Tularemia in humans can occur in pneumonic and typhoidal forms.
True
92
T or F Blackleg usually affects cattle 6 months to 2 years of age but may affect older animals.
True
93
T or F The most common method of protecting cattle against blackleg is to keep the animals on tetracycline in the feed until they are beyond the 2-year age limit.
False
94
T or F Diagnosis of Ablack disease@ in sheep is dependent upon demonstrating the presence of the alpha toxin of Clostridium novyii type B in affected tissues or serum
True
95
T or F Brucella suis infections are only a problem in feral swine in the U.S
False
96
T or F Brucella suis tends to produce a more generalized infection than what is seen with other Brucella species.
True
97
T or F Brucella suis infection is a problem in reindeer in Alaska
True
98
T or F Brucella maris has recently been associated with a high incidence of infections in mares in the U.S.
False
99
T or F With the near eradication of Brucella abortus from the cattle population of the U.S., calfhood vaccination is no longer recommended.
False
100
T or F With the near eradication of Brucella abortus from the cattle population, we no longer require the ring test on dairy herds
False
101
T or F Brucella abortus is the species of Brucella that causes the most severe disease in humans.
False
102
T or F Brucella abortus may localize in the liver, lymph nodes or bone in humans and remain in these sites for long periods of time (a year or more)
True
103
T or F Brucella melitensis usually causes severe disease in infected goats.
False
104
T or F Bull calves are not vaccinated against Brucella abortus because they can develop an orchitis.
True
105
T or F A Arough@ species of Brucella is one that has the AA@ and AM@ antigens in excessive quantities.
False
106
T or F The strains of Dichelobacter nodosus that cause ovine footrot are obligate parasites of the hooves of sheep and will not survive more than a few days in the environment, even under ideal conditions of moisture and temperature.
True
107
T or F The immune response against Dichelobacter nodosus in ovine footrot is primarily cell-mediated.
False
108
T or F Leukotoxoid vaccines against Fusobacterium necrophorum have generally been proven to be of little value against liver abscesses in feedlot cattle.
False
109
T or F Tissue infections with Fusobacterium necrophorum are characterized by a Asweet@ odor.
False
110
T or F Redwater disease in cattle is often accompanied by a severe hemorrhagic enteritis.
True
111
T or F Malignant edema is usually associated with a wound infection
True
112
T or F Malignant edema only affects swine.
False
113
T or F Yellow lamb disease is caused by massive intravascular hemolysis and capillary damage.
True
114
T or F Enterotoxemia in neonatal pigs is primarily a neurologic disease.
False
115
T or F Approximately half of the cases of botulism poisoning in the U.S. are infant or toxico-infectious botulism.
True
116
T or F Botulinum toxins affect the neuromuscular junctions in the peripheral (limb) muscles first.
False
117
T or F Botulinum toxins only cause a flaccid paralysis and have no other effects on neural cells.
False
118
T or F Lumberneck is a lay term for botulism in poultry bedded with wood shavings.
False
119
T or F Most tetanus in sheep is associated with improper tail docking or castration
True
120
T or F Meningococcal meningitis tends to concentrate in lower socio-economic groups and is frequently seen in day care settings, in military recruits and in college students
Treu
121
T or F Carrier rates for Neisseria meningitidis can be as high as 90% of some groups
True
122
T or F Whooping cough has been essentially eradicated from the U.S. and there is no need to vaccinate children against it.
False
123
T or F Members of the genus Bordetella usually produce serious systemic infections that are difficult to treat.
False
124
T or F Taylorella asinigenitalis is known to rapidly mutate and can be converted to T. equigenitalis by inducing a single frame shift mutation in the main toxin gene.
False
125
T or F Taylorella equigenitalis is difficult to isolate and special media must be used
True
126
T or F Haemophilus parasuis secretes excess adenine, guanine and GMP and Asignals@ the host immune system that the organism is already dead
False
127
T or F Haemophilus parasuis produces LOS rather than LPS. The LOS of this organism is a very simple polysaccharide that does not stimulate a good immune response
False
128
T or F It is important to determine the serotype of Actinobacillus pleuropneumoniae in a disease outbreak so that the appropriate vaccine serotype can be used to vaccinate in the future.
True
129
T or F Actinobacillus pleuropneumoniae may produce only mild disease in endemically infected herds
True
130
T or F Actinobacillus lignieresii is the cause of soft tissue infections of the head and neck of cattle often referred to in lay terms as Alumpy jaw@ and wooden tongue
True
131
T or F Hemorrhagic septicemia in cattle, water buffalo, etc., is most often seen in hot, arid environments.
False
132
T or F Pasteurella multocida is an important respiratory pathogen of horses but is usually only seen as a secondary invader.
False
