Performance Flashcards Preview

Q400 > Performance > Flashcards

Flashcards in Performance Deck (28):
1

What is NET altitude?

Altitude at which a climb gradient of 1.1% can be maintained.

2

What is the service ceiling?

Altitude at which aircraft can't climb anymore?

3

What is operating safety margin and what is it for the Q400?

Difference between NET altitude and service ceiling.

5000ft

4

When is the runway considered contaminated?

A runway is considered to be contaminated when more than 25% of the runway surface area (whether in isolated areas or not) within the required length and width being used, is covered by standing water, slush or loose snow.

Note: Runways with water depths, slush or loose snow less than 3 mm (or 1/8”) may be considered NOT contaminated provided braking is considered good. (AFM – Supplement 37). This can be correlated to a report of “TRACE” in the Runway Surface Report. A report of “TRACE” is not considered to be a contaminant however wet runway data is to be used for performance calculations. (AOM 5.2.5)

A runway is considered to be contaminated when 100% of the runway surface area, within the required length and width being used, is covered by snow which has been compressed into a solid mass which resists further compression. (AOM 5.2.5)

If ice, more than 25% of the runway being used and braking action estimated to be poor. If RFI 0.4 or better, compacted snow can be used.

Ref: Winter Ops Guide 2.2.3
AOM 5.2.5

5

What is the big indicator of windshear?

Unusual power setting for a prolonged period of time. For example, if you are at Vref and
decelerating, on glideslope, and you have 50%+ torque, you are likely in a windshear situation.

6

What are the general indications of windshear?

Un-commanded changes that include any or all of:
 +/-10 KIAS
 +/-500 fpm vertical speed
 +/-5 degrees pitch
 1 dot glideslope displacement

7

Describe method 1 enroute cruise

What is the method 1 capability of the Q400?

Provides 1000 ft clearance above obstacles within 5nm from V1 till landing at destination. The aircraft must have a positive net gradient at 1500ft above the destination aerodrome.

Approx 6000 ft above the most critical obstruction and 6500 ft above destination field elevation.

8

Describe method 2 enroute cruise

When does method 2 analysis begin?

What is the method 2 capability of the Q400?

Provides 2000ft clearance of obstacles within 5nm. Assumes you're at cruise altitude. If an engine failure occurs prior to cruise, you must either return to the departure airport or proceed to a takeoff alternate.
You must proceed to an abeam point along your route before you proceed to the alternate. The airport must be within 130nm of the abeam point. The aircraft must have a positive net gradient at 1500ft above the destination aerodrome.

It begins from cruise altitude.

Approx 7000 ft above the most critical obstruction and 6500 ft above destination field elevation.

9

When is a driftdown maneuver considered complete?

When the aircraft stops descending at driftdown speed.

10

What is required by law if an engine fails?

The aircraft must be landed at a suitable aerodrome in point of time. If at TOD it would be the destination. It may not be any of the selected aerodromes.

11

If there are contaminants present on the runway but it is not officially contaminated as per the AOM definition, what do we select on the FMS?

Wet Runway

12

What do you enter in performance data for a report of "TRACE"? Is the runway considered contaminated?

Wet Runway

13

Which of the following is considered a contaminated runway?

a) 70% bare and dry, 30% dry snow up to 1/4in
b) 60% bare and dry, 40% dry snow up to 1/8in, braking reported as good by a Q400
c) 20% bare and damp, 60% bare and wet, 20% slush up to 1/8 in, CRFI 0.39
d) 70% bare and dry, 30% dry snow up to 1/4 in, CRFI 0.49

d

14

Which of the following is not a requirement for a RVR 1200ft takeoff in Canada?

a) PIC must have 100 hours of PIC on type at WJE.
b) Serviceable and functioning RCL or RCLM plainly visible to the pilot throughout the takeoff roll.
c) A published LOS of RVR 1200 ft (1/4) or RVR 600
d) Serviceable and functioning high intensity runway lights

d

15

if the runway is reported as 50ft CL 100% bare and wet, and the rest 1/2 in slush, is the runway contaminated?

yes

16

What do you enter in performance data for a report of "TRACE"? Is the runway considered contaminated?

Wet runway

No

17

What is 1/8 (3mm) of an inch reported as?

0.13

18

What is the width of runway required for a Q400 in terms of considering contamination?

98 ft (100 ft)

19

If there are multiple contaminants on a runway, which do you chose?

The most restrictive

20

If braking is reported as fair, what is this equivalent to?

Medium

21

What condition can't you exceed holdover time for? Where do you find information for it?

Ice pellets.

Found in Allowance times.

22

What is factored landing distance?

Demonstrated x a factor of 1.43

23

What Vs is the optimum best angle of climb speed?

Vs 1.13 for the configuration.

24

When can a bleeds off takeoff be required?

Hot, high and heavy departures.
Shorter runways
Runway contamination
Significant obstacles

25

What is the lowest a QNH value can drop to before new takeoff data is required?

Not more than 0.10 less than the planned QNH in the takeoff data.

ref: AOM 5.2.17 pg 5-18

26

What do the following TALPA codes indicate?

6?

5?

0 to 4?

What happens if 0?

6 = dry

5 = wet

0 to 4 = contaminated

0 = do not fly.

27

What are the procedures for takeoff and landing on a runway reported covered by more than 25% frost?

Use compacted snow.

Ref: winter ops guide 2.3.3

28

A Runway with standing water, slush or loose snow all less than 3 mm (or 1/8”) in depth but braking is considered good. Is the runway considered contaminated?

No

Ref: winter ops guide 2.3.3