PHI S-92 Oral; My Previous Experiences (3 of 3)

Question 1

What are the MGB Oil Press Limits?

Answer 1

NR: Min: Norm: Max
<50%= 10, 20-70, 130
50-80= 20, 30-70, 130
>80%= 35, 45-70, 130

Question 2

What is required to accept a customer carrying flight at night?

Answer 2

The PIC must have logged 3x NIGHT takeoff/landings within the last 90-days. Some customers may require the same from SIC’s.

Question 3

(Refer to Fig. 46) What is the height of the Class D airspace over Livermore Airport (area 5)?

Answer 3

2900 ft MSL

Question 4

PHI Operations, a pilot may NOT exceed the following flight time limitations, except for circumstances beyond his/her control?

Answer 4

8-hours single pilot or combo’d with single pilot, 10-hrs Dual

Question 5

By regulations, which package markings are required on HAZMAT packages?

Answer 5

Consignee’s name and address, Name of the HAZMAT and UN#, manufacturer’s performance standards, orientation arrows if a liquid is contained.

Question 6

Radiation Fog is formed when?

Answer 6

The ground cools down at night and if the layers of air near the ground is moist and reaches its dew point.

Question 7

Describe the behavior of wingtip vortices created by a helicopter or large aircraft?

Answer 7

Sinks below aircraft generating turbulence.

Question 8

Which of the following is NOT part of the decision-making process?

Answer 8

“Make a quick decision then support it with facts.” (process includes: ID problem, Collect facts, ID alternatives, Weigh impact of alternatives, Decide, Act, Review results, repeat until solved)

Question 9

The PIC may deviate during an emergency involving the safety of persons or property ONLY?

Answer 9

To the extent required to respond safely to the emergency.

Question 10

What altitude is required when flying on a VFR flight plan above 3000’ MSL?

Answer 10

East= Odd+500’ West= Even+500’

Question 11

What is the best course of action to navigate past a Cumulonimbus formation that, from your perspective, is leaning to the right?

Answer 11

Turn left, ensuring your flight path will NOT pass under the Anvil portion of the storm.

Question 12

What can be used to compute weight and balance if the EFB fails?

Answer 12

Long hand Wt and Bal using RFM or use the loading schedule in the company flight manual (FOPM).

Question 13

What is your immediate action in the event of a Hot Start?

Answer 13

Move engine lever to STOP

Question 14

During shutdown offshore, the main rotor blades dipped very low due to gusty wind conditions. It is decided to start with the rotor brake on. What is the proper procedure?

Answer 14

Follow the high wind rotor start procedure in the RFM section 2. Also, in Green Detailed Procedures pages.

Question 15

Which statement is true concerning an engine restart in flight?

Answer 15

Start the APU and select AIR SOURCE HEAT/START to APU.

Question 16

After shutdown at an offshore location, the TGT starts raising rapidly indicating a post shutdown fire. What are the appropriate actions?

Answer 16

Ensure the throttle is STOP and press the starter button once.

Question 17

What are the Immediate actions in case of an ENGINE OVERSPEED with the engine Np cycling at 121% are ___?

Answer 17

FLY: Start reducing IAS to OEI speed

ID: ID and confirm the overspeeding engine

Catastrophic: bring the affected throttle to idle and then to stop.

Checklist: ….

Question 18

It’s 37-degrees C and the maximum takeoff weight is 25,900 as listed on the performance card. The aircraft is currently at 26,200 Lbs. What is the appropriate action?

Answer 18

Download to the RFM T/O weight on the performance card and depart PC2.

Question 19

A single hydraulic fan will fail in flight. How will this be indicated?

Answer 19

NO indications in flight! Will show up when HUMS is downloaded by maintenance.

Question 20

The fuel quantity indication for the fuel tanks changes to a green and yellow barber pole when___?

Answer 20

When there is less than or equal to 1-hour of fuel remaining at the current burn rate. (Note: poles turn solid yellow and LOW FUEL caution light illuminates at 215+45 lbs remaining.)

Question 21

By selecting SEC SAS in accordance with an emergency procedure, which of the following will occur?

Answer 21

No additional cautions light will illuminate, normal coupling operations are possible and airspeed is limited to 120 KIAS.

Question 22

In case of a single cable failure, which of the following statements is true?

Answer 22

The TR QUAD caution light will illuminate and the tail rotor will function normally.

Question 23

What would the approach look like with a dual cable [TR QUAD] failure?

Answer 23

RFM: Centering springs will set a fixed pitch approximately equal to 30 and 150 KIAS.
Reality: fly it like a “high-power fixed pitch” T/R. Basic targets are 100ft/60kts; 50ft/50kts; landing somewhere at or below 40kts. Use nose on centerline and 10* nose up to dictate landing speed. Make any wave-off early and smooth, expect a right turn/drift with power addition.

Question 24

Following a dual engine failure inflight, with APU off and the Nr at 95%, which of the following items would stop working?

Answer 24

NONE. All services would be available. (Electrical system protections are disabled, in this situation. However, after landing Protections will return and electrical system will shut down [WOW switch]. Expect a black cockpit as systems reboot and complete BITs.) Lesson=Flip APU switch ON.

Question 25

With regards to the ECS system in flight, which statement(s) are true?

Answer 25

All answers are correct. (Cabin Max. AC can be used in flight, cockpit Max AC is to be used on the ground only, if neither heat or AC is used in flight, the cockpit vent MUST be on.)

Question 26

What is the purpose of the Collective to Yaw coupling?

Answer 26

Compensates for changes in torque effect caused by changes in collective position. (also, adjust collective in response to yaw inputs)

Question 27

When the BAT HOT and BATT CHARGE FAIL cautions illuminate___?

Answer 27

LASA Practical (158F/70C)

Question 28

The weight limits mentioned in the performance table of S-92 checklist are mandatory.

Answer 28

TRUE

Question 29

What is the Max TGT for engine start?

Answer 29

1000* C

Question 30

Will a MGB Pump (1 or 2) failure trigger the MGB Oil Pressure audio?

Answer 30

YES, The Why: Because a single pump failure will lead to MGB oil pressure fluctuating between 5-25psi. This means the MGB manifold pressure will fall below 35 psi AND the “last Jet” pressure will fall below 24psi; THESE are the “actual triggers” for “GEARBOX PRESSURE” aural alert and “MGB OIL PRESS” Warning light.

Question 31

How do you determine if the aircraft is WAAS certified?

Answer 31

Check the RFM Supplements in Part-1.

Question 32

What indications during shutdown, would you have of a hung droop stop?

Answer 32

One or more of the main rotor blades are flying considerably lower at idle.

Question 33

Define basic VFR cloud clearances for US airspace classes:

Answer 33

A=IFR only;
B=3sm, clear of clouds;
C/D/E= “5-123”;
G=0.5sm, clear of clouds (night= 1.0sm Vis)

Question 34

Define a “Suitable Landing Site” for VFR fuel planning:

Answer 34

A deck/area/site with the space and weight capacity for the aircraft. Fuel at site is NOT required GOM 2.3.4

Question 35

When shall the HISL’s be ON or OFF?

Answer 35

DAY use Only! ON after takeoff, OFF before landing. RFM Supplement references aircraft Position, Not a checklist. PHI seems to only be able to handle the Checklist.

Question 36

What is Class E airspace in GoMex?

Answer 36

1200 AGL to 10K MSL

Question 37

What is Minimum IFR Altitude in GoMex?

Answer 37

1500 AGL

Question 38

When filing IFR in GoMex, what are the desired climb ETEs and cruise altitudes with a functioning ADSB?

Answer 38

w/ADSB= 5k-10k, w/o ADSB<5k; Climbs <5k=5-mins, >5k=10-mins

Question 39

When is an aircraft required to use the ILS hold short point instead of runway hold short?

Answer 39

Required if Wx<800-2 and a/c is inside outer marker (OM) without airport insight. If Cig<200, requirement moves to MM. Note: IAW ATC manual 2003, 4-3-18.a.8 “If a pilot is expected to hold short of runway approach area or ILS, ATC will issue instructions.” (i.e. Tower directed)

Question 40

IAW GOM 2.1.15, what approach profiles “shall be use” by PHI aircraft?

Answer 40

PC-1(cat A) or PC-2

Question 41

When flying a PC-2 offshore TAKEOFF, what do the following four (4) terms mean when spoken: DP, Rotate, DP-2, Fly Away?

Answer 41

“DP”=30ft above deck and power above delta; “Rotate”= PF is transitioning forward and ICO an OEI expect 20* nose down; “DP-2”=Crossing the first condition of TDP or 50ft AGL; “Fly Away”=Setting 5* nose up and accelerating to 80 KIAS(Vy). Key Point: Delay calls until conditions are met and you plan to depart over the deck edge.

Question 42

What is the FADEC logic for TGT and TQ?

Answer 42

“Torque Match and TGT Limited”

Question 43

EGPWS color coding and aural warnings:

Answer 43

RED>500ft above aircraft; YELLOW+500ft (50%above/25%below); GREEN=more than 500ft below; “CAUTION TERRAIN”=30sec at Aspd; “WARNING TERRAIN”=20sec at Aspd

Question 44

Maximum slope landing angles:

Answer 44

13* left/right; 10* nose up; avoid tail up.

Question 45

Starter motoring limits IAW RFM Pt-1,Sec-1,pg.1-22:

Answer 45

“2/5/2/30” means 2-mins ON, 5-mins OFF, 2-mins ON, 30-mins cool Note: PHI addresses this as “accumulative” motoring time, RFM does not address accumulative vs aborts.

Question 46

Starter Back-to-back Starts limits:

Answer 46

If OAT>15C use “2/5/2/30”; If OAT<15C use “4/15/4/30”

Question 47

How do you reset the ECS A/C system?

Answer 47

Begin with both systems OFF. Within 2.5 seconds, move each dial twice between a/c and off.

Ref: S92A-AMM-000, Pg 128, table 103 para. 2 (21-52-00) lists: “off-on-off-on-off”

Question 48

What actions should be taken if MGB [BYPASS TEST FAIL] caution light illuminates while moving throttle to fly?

Answer 48

System BIT should initiate passing 60%Nr (takes about 20-30 secs). IF test fails, a manual test can be initiated by cycling the MGB By-pass switch to BYPASS then return to AUTO. If caution returns, Maintenance is required. (me: I would say AOG until fixed).

Question 49

Explain the difference between a “Dual Hydraulic Leak” prior to vs. past the Tail rotor SOV:

Answer 49

Past T/R SOV=Low or zero resv’r level [Hyd ½ Res Low], T/R moves to “Fixed Pitch” due to centering springs (trim about 30 and 150 KIAS).
Prior to SOV: Expect ALL LDI lights to illuminate on affected side, but ‘good’ system should maintain control of T/R. New LDI logic should close Isolation SOV and prevent a complete drain of all hydraulic systems.

Question 50

When reviewing the Airport Overview page of SIAP’s, how can you predict which runway(s) will have the lowest instrument minimums?

Answer 50

MALSR and ALS will typically be the lowest mins.

Question 51

Explain how PHI uses the SP15885 letter for carrying HAZMAT:

Answer 51

IAW PHI OpSpec, S-92 is “Pax and Cargo”; IAW HAZMAT PHI is “Will Carry”. Unless specifically listed in SP15885, PHI is limited to carrying HAZMAT IAW “PAX” limits. Those listed in SP15885 can be carried up to “Cargo” limits with Pax onboard. If not authorized, customer must decide if we will carry Pax or HAZMAT. Note: Unless listed as “GROSS” limits are per container; we may be able to repackage into smaller units for carry.

Question 52

What are the general lengths of our most common holding patterns?

Answer 52

GoMex Grid/VOR=1-min; OSAP=3nm; RNAV=4nm (read closely, some change)

Question 53

Explain FADEC logic for Ng and Np overspeed:

Answer 53

Overspeed logic activated at Ng=108.5%, Np=120%; FADEC controls overspeed by securing fuel to affected engine, but then does an engine restart when performance falls below limits. This is what causes the engine cycling between about 118-120% Np. Affected engine must be shutoff to prevent further cycling.

Question 54

What is the equation for calculating the FPM needed to meet the Ft/Nm required for Heliport vs Airport climb out?

Answer 54

(KtGS/60)x(ft/nm)=FPM;
Heliport 352ft/nm=470FPM @ 80KtGS;
Airport 200ft/nm=267FPM @80KtGS

Question 55

Moving clockwise, explain the various LTE conditions experienced by helicopters with CCW rotating MRB’s:

Answer 55

Increase AOA (worst at 3), Wx Cocking (4-8), T/R VRS (worst at 9), M/R vortices interference (10). Note: Threat of M/R vortices interference is reduced due to T/R center of mass (thrust) typically remaining at or above the M/R center of mass (thrust).

Question 56

Explain PHI’s position regarding “settling with power” (MR VRS):

Answer 56

PHI defaults to <40kts and >800fpm decent; DO NOT ARGUE, only discuss aerodynamics. MR VRS is when rate of decent nears the airspeed of the rotor wash and the blades begin to stall from inside out. Correction is increase forward and/or lateral airspeed and momentarily reduce collective so as not to exacerbate the situation. Best COA is avoid the dire situation; get in control early or wave off early.

Question 57

When APU is the sole source of AC power (dual AC failure) what systems are lost?

Answer 57

“W-A-R-M”; W=Windshield Anti-ice, A=AVC, R=RIPS, if equipped, M=#1 Engine Anti-ice MAT.

Question 58

What is the primary cause of [APU OVERLOAD] caution light?

Answer 58

APU Gen is the sole source of AC power and both “Engine Anti-ice” and “Pilot’s Windshield Anti-ice over ride” are ON.

Question 59

Following a running landing, what methods of braking are available to you?

Answer 59

Wheel Brake Only! PHI does NOT authorize Aerodynamic braking. Max brake speed=35 knots (If req’d, Safety of Flight)

Question 60

In order to carry PAX during Day or Night, what is the currency requirements for both PIC/SIC?

Answer 60

SIC currency is irrelevant except for IMC/66HIT. PIC needs 3x T/O and Ldgs within 90-days. Night qualifies for Day, but not the reverse. Customer requirements may include SIC currency.

Question 61

What is the maneuvering space and procedures for executing a Circle-to-Land (CTL) maneuver?

Answer 61

Maneuvering space is a cloverleaf pattern built from 1.3nm radii (Cat-A) centered off the end of each runway. PHI Wx Min=350/1 (GOM 5.9.4). IAW AIM 5-4-20, remain at MDA until a landing can be made using normal decent and normal maneuvers.

Question 62

What is the minimum distance from the pilot seat to an obstacle behind the aircraft?

Answer 62

76-ft; just hit the “I Believe Button”.
The actual requirement is “20-ft from any obstacle >4feet tall to any part of the S92.” The best explanation to date: Since the A/C is 68’6” tip to tail and the M/R is 56’4” diameter, “training’s” best guess is that the M/R extends approx. 12-ft forward of the pilot seat (?!?!?). Math: 68-12=56+20=76 [lots of issues, but Phuket!!]

Question 63

What are the cockpit indications of a single hydraulic fan failure?

Answer 63

NONE; will show on HUMS report.

Question 64

What are the “critical phases of flight”?

Answer 64

Everything but cruise after all checklist items have been completed: Start, taxi, takeoff, climb, decent, approach, landing, shutdown.

Question 65

Daily flight hour limits for Pilots:

Answer 65

Full or partial Single Pilot= 8-hrs within 10; dual pilot= 10-hrs within 14. Avoid Rolling Clock discussion, use GOM & managers as needed.

Question 66

What do “feeder routes” and “feeder sectors” allow?

Answer 66

Once “cleared for the approach”, we are cleared to descend to the listed altitude listed on the route or sector. Look at LFT approaches. Double check approach sectors for ALT or “NO PT”.

Question 67

What MUST an Airport provide to be use as an Alternate?

Answer 67

WX onsite, Airport diagram must show “Alternate Authorize”, unless WAAS equipped must have an operational ground based approach (ILS, LOC, VOR, NDB). We don’t have to use this approach, but it must be available and operational

Question 68

Looking at LFT ILS-22L apch; What are the take-off mins for crew not qualifed for Adq Vis Ref?

Answer 68

With apch mins of 200-1/2 and no restriction on reducing Vis for Helo’s, the actual “Landing Mins=200-1/4” for a helo. Therefore, with a crew NOT qualified for “Adequate Vis Ref”, we can still take-off with 1/4sm Vis since this is “Equal to landing Mins”.

Question 69

Airspeed limits for MORG ‘Copter’ GPS-333: (not used by PHI since 2018)

Answer 69

Outside DAMMS=Cruise Aspd; DAMMS(IAF)–ANNZA(FAF)=90 KIAS; Inside ANNZA=70 KIAS (FAF–MAP–Holding) and a climb rate of 400ft/nm (467 fpm)

Question 70

“FLY” portion of checklist is suitable for Memory Action Items; FLY, ID, (IDLE), CHKLIST. What Memory Action Items are we expected to accomplish:

Answer 70

1) Triple converter failure (no ICS)= Backup OFF
2) OEI= Gear Up/Down, as required
3) Boost Hardover=Boost OFF
4) Elec Fires=Batt and Gens OFF
5) Complete T/R failures=Enter Auto, Throttles OFF
6) Engine FIRES=Throttle to IDLE
7) Catastrophic Failures (Overspeed/ H-S shaft Failure)=Throttle to OFF
8) Consider turning APU on for any of these. It will provide backup for Electrical, Hydraulics, Engine re-starts and “costs” nothing.

Question 71

Basic TCAS settings:

Answer 71

Normal=(+2700); Above=(-2700 to +9000); Below=(+2700 to -9000)

Question 72

From the RIG, you talk with KHU via Phone and receive the following clearance: “Cleared to HUM, as filed. Void time: 1235, if not off contact by 1240.” What time limits and clearance limits have been imposed?

Answer 72

IAW AIM 5-2-6; 1) Take-off is cancelled at 1235, you must take-off at or before this time or call KHU before 1240 to confirm failure. 2) If off on time, you must “contact” KHU within 30-mins or Over-due/SAR requirements are triggered. NOTE: To “activate” a clearance, positive “contact” must be established. This does NOT dictate, good radio communications. Use of “IDENT” (especially in ADSB aircraft) is an acceptable way to communicate and establish “contact” and “activate” your received clearance. Radio contact SHALL be established ASAP or Lost Comm procedures are expected to be followed. Used regularly from Keathly Canyon and Walker Ridge

Question 73

Define PHI’s CRM principles: “C-SLED”;

Answer 73

Communication, SA, Leadership, Error detection/mgmt., Decision Making

Question 74

CRM decision Circle:

Answer 74

ID issue, Gather Facts, Develop COA’s, Eval Effects, Decide, Act, Eval results, Repeat accordingly

Question 75

What are the indications of a Nr Tach Generator Failure?

Answer 75

“LOW ROTOR” aural Warning, [AVC FAIL] Caution light, No/zero Nr indication. Immediate Actions: 1) Bottom Collective and enter the Auto 2) Check Engine Pack to confirms engines On or Off 3) Once confirmed, it’s the Tach Gen then LASA Practicable

Question 76

WX Mins for IFR crew flying an IFR Aircraft with MEL limiting it to VFR?

Answer 76

500-3 (GOM 1.12.2) Basic day/night mins for operational IFR crew and aircraft: Day: 300-2 and Night:1000-3

Question 77

OSAP Wx mins to begin Approach and to continue to rig site?

Answer 77

Apch: 200-3/4;
VFR <5nm=200-3/4;
VFR 5-10nm=300-1;
VFR >10nm=300-2

Question 78

HEDA Wx Mins to begin Approach and to continue to rig site?

Answer 78

Apch: 400-1;
VFR<10nm=300-1;
VFR>10nm=300-2

Question 79

Following a TRIM system failure, what Coupling Cues will remain available?

Answer 79

If Cyclic trim lost: No coupling available: If Collective trim lost; 2-cue (IAS, HDG/NAV) available but requires Man. Pwr. Mgmt. If Yaw trim lost: Secure Yaw trim on AFCS panel; 2-cue available.

Question 80

Describe the OEI landing profile?

Answer 80

Cross the runway threshold between 60-80 KIAS (Vbac-Vbroc), slow to 50KIAS @ 50’ AGL, Set Nose 10-degrees UP and cushion landing. Use Yaw to maintain centerline and brake to slow (RFM Max GS=35kts for brakes, but use how you see fit).

Question 81

When does the FMS automatically cycle from TERM to APCH mode?

Answer 81

2-nm outside FAF.
Can be force anytime by selecting NAV sensitivity. IF getting RVFAC, use HDG or CMD HDG; preview FAC; with CLRC select ARM APCH.

Question 82

How many Fire Extinguishers and Emergency Exits are there on a 92?

Answer 82

2xExtinguishers (cockpit and cabin). 4xExits (3x type III, 1x type IV), for the test, don’t count the pilot windows, nor the cabin smaller windows.

Question 83

Procedures for Triple Converter Failure: ID’d by no ICS and CP’s PFD go black.

Answer 83

1)Turn Backup Converter=OFF (flips K-11 relay, to regain DC Ess’l Bus and ICS); 2) Leave APU-OFF (Starting APU will likely deplete BATT power beyond useful level) 3) IF you get some display back, expect a very long 1-2 mins delay for AHRS to spin back up to operational speed!

Question 84

Best method for transitioning from LPV/P-ILS approach MAP back to NAV to fly the MA procedure?

Answer 84

1) push GA, to set IAS, HDG and VS 2) Select ALT PRE 3) Press LNAV 3x to return to FMS-2 4) Change Mode Select Panel from PILS back to CRUS 5)Confirm the NAV source and next check point are correctly displayed on the lower right of PFD 6) Couple to NAV to fly MAP

Question 85

What is the relationship between Autopilot, AHRS and SAS?

Answer 85

The AP ½ is “married” to the same side AHRS ½ for inputs to SSAS ½. If you have an AP or AHRS issue, you may need to turn OFF the associated AP in order to prevent erroneous inputs to the SSAS and allow the opposite AHRS/AP to provide inputs for stability.

Question 86

What is lost with a Single channel FADEC Failure?

Answer 86

FADEC-A: Loss of TGT and Oil Temp;

FADEC-B: Loss of TGT and Oil Press

Question 87

Indications of Dual FADEC Failure:

Answer 87

Engine will shut down; you will see red boxes on EICAS but will NOT get a red “X” over the engine box.

Question 88

When doing a normal start on the second engine with air source in “ENG”, what is providing bleed air for the start?

Answer 88

APU
the why: The Start Logic looks for the highest source of bleed air. Since the other engine is below 90%Ng (First choice in logic) the start and SOV’s sequence to the APU for bleed air.

Question 89

What are the indications for HYD Cooling Fan(s) Failures?

Answer 89

1xFailure=No cockpit indications

2xFailures= [HYD FAN FAIL] caution light; Minimize hover and ground ops.

Question 90

Is coupling available with T/R Fixed Pitch or Quad Failure?

Answer 90

YES, expect AP failures then switch to SAS and secure YAW trim to regain coupling.

Question 91

What is required to file direct to an airport under IFR?

Answer 91

Radar Coverage

Question 92

What does flying at or above MEA provide?

Answer 92

NAV within 22nm and MOCA (1000 above non-mountainous and 2000 above mountainous terrain/obstacles)

Question 93

What is the difference between MOCA and OROCA?

Answer 93

Both provide obstacle clearance of 1000 or 2000 based on terrain, but MOCA is within 4nm of an airway (4 Letters=4nm) and OROCA is within a sector.
PHI bastardizes MOCA and OROCA with a test statement similar to: When flying IFR In non-mountainous areas, we are required to remain 1000 feet above the highest obstacle “within 4nm of our route”.

Question 94

What is PHI’s Heliport obstacle departure procedures?

Answer 94

Climb at greater than 352ft/nm to 1000ft AGL before turning.

Question 95

What is the Minimum fuel required for a destination airport with 1500-3?

Answer 95

Dest+ALT+30 mins

Question 96

Under EOC, what is the lowest WX with IFR aircraft, dual IFR Crew and Area Manager approval?

Answer 96

300-1

Question 97

When departing Bishop (07R) and flying NE over Corpus Christi (CRP), what is required? (Class-B airspace)

Answer 97

Two-way comms, transponder, 3sm Vis and ‘clear of clouds’ due to class B-airspace.

Question 98

Define “Land and hold short (LHSO)” and “Line up and wait” procedures:

Answer 98

Neither is typically use by PHI. Both require 2 or more tower controllers and may be expected at larger airports like NOLA. Both say basically what is required; LHSO will be directed to hold short of a crossing runway or taxiway and “Line up and Wait” means line up on assigned runway and ‘wait’ for further instructions; typically for parallel traffic and/or IFR separation.

Question 99

Pax loading requirements if crew weight is <370# and max baggage (872#)?

Answer 99

Row 1 and 2 must total greater than 600#

See RFM part 1, Sect 1, pg 1-17 for notes on Cargo Wt.

Question 100

How to record “starts” vs. “Cycles”:

Answer 100

Record all starts on the EFB flight sheet wt and bal page.

A “cycle” includes a Start, T/O, Ldg, Shutdown and must be recorded on the Journey Log and Maintenance Logbook.

Question 101

Why do we check engine TGT vs. OAT within 10-C following an APU start?

Answer 101

Greater than 10*C increase in static Engine TGT indicates a stuck Air Source Valve (ENG/APU). EP Note: APU Fire light May illuminate during an APU start.

Question 102

Where in the EP checklist would you find actions to take following the [MGB oil press] C/B has popped?

Answer 102

Not a logical place (not with the other MGB procedures) … “MGB Caution System Fault” found on Tab-12 at bottom of Gearbox Section of EP book.

Question 103

During morning system checks, you push the “OBE/HIDE” to check the MGB systems and see that the [MGB OIL PRESS] is a yellow caution. Is there an issue and can we go fly?

Answer 103

Aircraft is grounded; there is a problem with the Last Jet.

Question 104

How many chip detectors are on the aircraft and what are their functionality?
(chip, fuzz, temp)

Answer 104

9x Total on Aircraft:

(5x) MGB (2x Accy sections; 2x inputs; 1x scavenge; ALL with Chip/Fuzz, no temp)
(2x) 1x IGB and 1x TGB (Temp, Chip, Fuzz);
(2x) 1x per engine scavenge-Chip Only/ NO Fuzz burn or temp

Question 105

How will the auto pilot respond to an OEI condition in 2-cue and 3-cue?

Answer 105

Very similar response. In both cues, the AP will try to hold ALT and NAV. In 2-cue the AP will bleed off Airspeed to keep ALT. in 3-cue the AP will set 80 KIAS.

Question 106

How will the auto pilot respond to a dual-engine failure in 2-cue and 3-cue?

Answer 106

The same as OEI. WARNING: the AP will use pitch/roll/airspeed to try to maintain ALT/NAV. With no power, a significant and rapid loss of Nr will happen. Be Pavlovian and bottom the collective as your initial response.

Question 107

What is the difference between Prev ILS and Pseudo ILS?

Answer 107

Prev ILS is Ground Nav only; Pseudo-ILS is LNAV controlled.

Question 108

Describe the 4-categorical options for an IFR take-off minimums?

Answer 108

• *“Equal to Landing Minimums”: Lowest VIS authorized for any operational approach at the airport AND IAW the light table but Never lower than 1/4sm (1600rvr).
• *“Higher than STD”: As published for the runway in use.
• *“STD”: 1/2sm (2400rvr).
• *“Lower than STD”: If STD is authorized, so is Lower than STD provided ALL 4x the following criteria is met: 1)Must be departing from an IFR airport (heliports are N/A). 2)Fully operational aircraft with Dual-pilot IFR instrumentation. 3)Both pilots must have been trained and have greater than 100-hrs in Type/Model in assigned position (PIC/SIC). 4)Adq Vis Ref and directional control must be ensured throughout the take-off run. Minimum Vis=1/4sm(1200rvr).

Question 109

When using the FMS to fly to the FAC of a LOC/BC, how does your instrument setup change?

Answer 109

Set front course on the CDI, but arm the “B/C” on the MSP. Training IP favorite maneuver

Question 110

Can the FMS be used to fly an ILS, LOC or LOC B/C approach?

Answer 110

Answer = NO. But this is another misleading question. The actual requirement is the FMS may be used to fly all but the FAC of these approaches. The portion from FAF to MAP, MUST be flown from the NavAid.

Question 111

Can the FMS be used to fly a VOR approach?

Answer 111

YES, but the pilot(s) must be capable of monitoring the VOR for operational status throughout the approach.

Question 112

During a RIG APCH you brief using the GA button for a missed approach. How do your actions differ if GA is used at/before or after the MAP?

Answer 112

If GA is activated while on the FAC, you can remain ‘hands off”, the autopilot will begin a climb and accel to 80KIAS. Once the “IAS” turns green, ALT-PRE can be armed and coupling continued. If GA is activated between the MAP and RIG, pilot must slue heading to the heading bug and autopilot with begin climb and accel to 80KIAS. Coupling is not available until both “IAS” and “HDG” turn green.

Question 113

IAW PHI, what is the required sequence for recovering from an unusual attitude?

Answer 113

“Pitch-Bank-Power” or
“Pitch-Roll-Power”

Note: When asked 4x PHI instructors gave 4-different answers. Bear’s basics: recover nose low with positive G’s, “level the wings, center the ball, set cruise power” once safe, return to assigned course and altitude.

Question 114

How does Haze affect the way other traffic will be perceived?

Answer 114

Haze Effect=Aircraft appears further away.

Question 115

When planning an alternate that only has RNAV approaches, what minimums must be used?

Answer 115

Only LNAV can be use for alternate planning, but LPV may be used upon arrival.

Question 116

Is the use of EOC operations/conditions mandatory for Med/Hvy aircraft?

Answer 116

YES, but…..Incomplete question, because it depends.
EOC restrictions are for VFR operations. If a Med/Hvy aircraft is operating VFR, then the EOC restrictions must be met. For operational IFR Med/Hvy aircraft, we can fly in all EOC’s by flying an IFR flight plan and meeting RFM and part 135 requirements/restrictions.
Some RED EOCs will shut down ALL flight ops.

Question 117

While in cruise flight, both primary DC converters fail. What would you see in the cockpit?

Answer 117

C/P MFD’s will go black, #1 RTU and ICS will remain operational, operational Pilot side AHRS and Landing Gear lights will remain operational (visible, if extended).

Question 118

While in cruise flight, both A/C generators fail. What would you see in the cockpit?

Answer 118

C/P MFD’s will go black, #1 RTU and ICS will remain operational, failure of pilot side AHRS and no landing gear position lights (if extended).
Note: Turn APU on to regain A/C power. In order for AHRS to regain operational status, Aircraft MUST remain in stabilized straight and level flight for 35-45 seconds. Consider turning off AHRS and ATT then using SAS for recovery.

Question 119

While in cruise flight, all 3 DC converters fail. What would you see in the cockpit?

Answer 119

C/P MFD’s will go black, no comms (RTUs) and no ICS (very quiet cockpit). We can regain both #1 RTU and ICS by turning the Back-up converter switch-OFF.

Question 120

Max Cargo Weights IAW Chief Pilot Letter dtd 03JAN2018:

Answer 120

Max=872#~395.53Kg,
Tie Down Kit (-37#)~16.78Kg,
Usable Cargo: 835#~378.75Kg