Practice Exam 3

Question 1

The company responds to an employee’s company day care proposal by telling her that the company should not interfere in employees’ choices regarding the individual care for their children. What type of moral justice is the company employing?

Libertarian.
Utilitarian.
Entitlement.
The veil of ignorance.

Answer 1

Libertarian.

Question 2

The poverty rate is increasing. In the name of social responsibility, an employee proposes and volunteers to be the project manager for a company day care project open to all employees. Fees will be based on the level of family income. It will help offset their economic expenses and increase productivity since workers know their children are safe. What type of moral justice is the employee eliciting from her company?

Libertarian
Utilitarian.
Entitlement.
The veil of ignorance.

Answer 2

Entitlement.

Question 3

What is the best approach to use when moral decisions that impact a number of individuals have to be made?

Use principles of “right” and “wrong” in a social context that maximizes employee and/or customer satisfaction.
Use principles of “right” and “wrong” to maximize the firm’s security.
Identify various obligations, and where the emphasis should be placed among them.
Use a nonconsequential approach that respects moral rights within the limitations that the company can legitimately pursue their organizational goal.

Answer 3

Identify various obligations, and where the emphasis should be placed among them.

Question 4

The project manager’s responsibility to the organization includes

project integrity, meeting project objectives, and on-time progress payments.
effective communication, providing adequate resources, and timely decision-making.
accurate communication, competency, and proper resource allocation.
accuracy, cost-consciousness, safety and being goal oriented.

Answer 4

accurate communication, competency, and proper resource allocation.

Question 5

The project manager’s responsibility to the project team includes

Project integrity, meeting project objectives, and on-time progress payments.
Effective communication, providing adequate resources, and timely decision-making.
accurate communication, competency, and proper resource allocation.
accuracy, cost-consciousness, safety and focus on goals.

Answer 5

Effective communication, providing adequate resources, and timely decision-making.

Question 6

The deadline is fast-approaching, but the project manager insists there needs to be a short time extension to complete the last few troubleshooting tests to ensure the product successfully meets all requirements. Management does not want the delay and reminds the project manager that, although his point is well-taken, customers are the “end” and should not determine the “means” by which operations are performed and deadlines are met. What ethical principal is the project manager trying to convey to management?

Egoism.
Utilitarianism.
Nonsequentialism.
Kant’s ethics.

Answer 6

Kant’s ethics.

Question 7

The project manager’s responsibility to the project includes ensuring

Project integrity, meeting project objectives, and on-time progress payments.
Effective communication, providing adequate resources, and timely decision-making.
accurate communication, competency, and proper resource allocation.
accuracy, safety.

Answer 7

Project integrity, meeting project objectives, and on-time progress payments.

Question 8

The instruments that are used to authorize cost centers to begin charging their time to a specific cost reporting element are

Progress payment reports.
Daily progress reports.
Work orders.
Data release reports.

Answer 8

Work orders.

Question 9

Three employees met with the manager to decide who should represent the team and present the finished product. The white male had worked hard on the project, but did not offer input, improvements, or innovations. The Asian woman had made significant and beneficial modifications to the design, which greatly improved its usability. The African-American man corrected the design errors since he had previous design expertise. He also did the troubleshooting and intimately knew how each part and feature of the product worked. He also was the most articulate of the group when it came to explaining the operation and special features of the product. The manager had little contact with anyone but the worker-bee, white male team member during the project since the others were generally collaborating on, and coordinating features, of the product. What major communication barriers exist that overshadow the manager’s decision? (The manager decided to send the white team member. The manager is also a white male).

Words and noise.
One-way communication channels.
Bias and stereotyping.
Hidden agendas.

Answer 9

Bias and stereotyping.

Question 10

The road construction project manager receives an addendum regarding right-of-way acquisition for her project. She sees designers chose to amend the route that originally impacted a section of an affluent neighborhood. The right-of-way needed to build the project would now be taken from a distressed neighborhood predominately inhabited by minorities and seniors. In fact, some property owners had not agreed to the right-of-way purchase price offered by the county, so portions of those properties were “condemned” to accommodate the new roadway and sidewalk width. What positive or negative aspect of moral justice does relocating the road through the distressed neighborhood, illustrate?

Libertarian justice.
Distributive justice.
Utilitarian justice.
Justice of entitlement.

Answer 10

Distributive justice.

Question 11

What communication element involves judging the relevance, worth, goodness, or appropriateness of the received message?

Positive paralanguage.
Evaluative feedback.
Probing.
Perceptive interpretation.

Answer 11

Evaluative feedback.

Question 12

The project manager announces that a change has been added to the project and he has gotten approval to use a little-tried material that is new to the market. None of the project team had any indication the project manager was negotiating a change, let alone implementation of a new, little-known, experimental material none of them were familiar with or who had read up on. The project manager’s style of communication is:

obscure.
inconsiderate.
selective.
reactive.

Answer 12

reactive.

Question 13

Jane went to a job interview but no one told her part of the hiring process included an aptitude test. Jane had never heard of taking an aptitude test for a job interview. Part of the test required general key punch and secretarial skills that had little to do with the accounting job she was applying and interviewing for. Was the aptitude test a legitimate part of Jane’s interview process?

Yes, testing is an integral part of the hiring process, especially with large firms.
No, the test was not valid.
Yes, although it is not directly applicable, it will help determine what performance level Jane is at in her career.
No, the test is not reliable or credible for the position Jane is interviewing for.

Answer 13

Yes, testing is an integral part of the hiring process, especially with large firms.

Question 14

To be purposeful, the team objectives and goals must be

productive and cost effective.
necessary and focused.
clear, meaningful, and measurable.
fully developed and achievable.

Answer 14

clear, meaningful, and measurable.

Question 15

Project management includes the processes of initiating, planning,

identifying and executing.
scoping and controlling.
executing and process.
monitoring and controlling

Answer 15

monitoring and controlling

Question 16

Strategic considerations that are typically required before a project is authorized include

market demand for the project.
creation of a unique product or service.
organizational need.
all of the above

Answer 16

all of the above

Question 17

The first step in managing a project is

Identifying the problem.
Establishing a clear objective.
Identifying project requirements.
Planning and scheduling activities.

Answer 17

Identifying project requirements.

Question 18

During the planning phase, auditors review processes and procedures and help control how they are implemented. Project ______ can have unforeseen effects on timely completion.

results
risks
ethics
approach

Answer 18

risks

Question 19

Competing constraints include

Schedule
Budget
Resources
All of the above

Answer 19

All of the above

Question 20

Which organizational structure gives high to almost total authority for the project manager?

Virtual
Functional
PMO
Organic

Answer 20

PMO

Question 21

Factors in organization structure selection include:

Pareto charts
Physical location
Risk reviews
Hybrids

Answer 21

Physical location

Question 22

Human resources expertise, skills, and competencies are examples of

Resource availability
Employee capability
Infrastructure
Software elements

Answer 22

Employee capability

Question 23

What is a principle regarding systems?

Systems are not dynamic
Systems can be optimized
System components can not be optimized
all of the above.

Answer 23

Systems can be optimized

Question 24

Centralization refers to the decision-making authority within the organization. _________ decision-making is that which is delegated down to subordinates

Complex
Formal
Centralized
Decentralized

Answer 24

Decentralized

Question 25

An organization’s ________ provides the organization and its employees with an identity.

structure
culture
management
hierarchy

Answer 25

culture

Question 26

In a culture where management maintains consistency through exclusive control, decision-making and auditing, new structure elements and interrelationships are created. ______ addresses vertical and horizontal components of job and work group differentiation and division of labor and authority.

Complexity
Formalization
Centralization
Decentralization

Answer 26

Complexity

Question 27

_______ addresses written rules and procedures deemed necessary to maintain organization control and coordination.

Complexity
Formalization
Centralization
Decentralization

Answer 27

Formalization

Question 28

When a project is performed under contract, _______ are considered constraints.

contractual provisions
specific project assumptions
boundaries
acceptance criteria

Answer 28

contractual provisions

Question 29

Reading a release about their competitor’s new product progress and proposed release date, ABC Company directors meet to discuss the increasing pressure on them. They decide to escalate a current competitive product model they have in redesign. The model has been tested several times already. The last test revealed a potential overheating hazard that needed to be corrected. The current design can be put into production, which will beat their competition’s product to market. Safety features will still be worked on and a recall can be issued as soon as the redesigned portion is complete and tested. The budget director indicates that the benefits of being first to market will more than compensate for costs incurred from a future recall, since only a percentage of customers ever respond to recall notices anyway. What kind of ethical standard are the ABC Company directors exercising?

A restrained egoism.
Utilitarianism.
Nonsequentialism.
Kant’s ethics.

Answer 29

A restrained egoism.

Question 30

Which of the following indicates project stakeholders current and desired engagement levels?

Stakeholder register
Stakeholder assessment matrix
Power/influence grid
Salience model

Answer 30

Stakeholder assessment matrix

Question 31

Which of the following documents is a very sensitive document that must not be shared outside the project management team?

Stakeholder engagement plan
Communication management plan
Change management plan
Scope management plan

Answer 31

Stakeholder engagement plan

Question 32

Which of the following is NOT a stakeholder management process?

Plan Stakeholder Management
Identify Stakeholders
Manage Stakeholder Engagement
Control Stakeholder Management

Answer 32

Control Stakeholder Management

Question 33

The below organizational process assets are inputs to the Plan Stakeholder Engagement process. Which of the following organizational process assets is of particular importance to this process?

Templates
Policies and procedures
Configuration management knowledgebase
Lessons learned from past similar projects

Answer 33

Lessons learned from past similar projects

Question 34

The ability to invoke discipline is an example of what kind of power?

Guilt-based
Reward-oriented
Referent
Punitive

Answer 34

Punitive

Question 35

The use of flattery is an example of what type of power?

Pressure-based
Ingratiating
Avoiding
Referent

Answer 35

Ingratiating

Question 36

The ability to understand and manage people is an example of what type of personality trait?

Social
Systemic
Political
Managerial

Answer 36

Social

Question 37

Another name for positional power for project managers is

informal
formal
expert
punitive

Answer 37

formal

Question 38

The ability to think abstractly and to innovate is an example of what personality trait?

Authentic
Cultural
Creative
Political

Answer 38

Creative

Question 39

When a project manager participates in networking, connections, and alliances, they are exhibiting

Relational power
Persuasive power
Ingratiating power
Personal power

Answer 39

Relational power

Question 40

The imposition of obligation or sense of duty by the project manager is an example of what type of power?

Guilt-based
Avoiding
Persuasive
Ingratiating

Answer 40

Guilt-based

Question 41

When the project manager explains the essential business aspects of a project they are exhibiting

technical project management skills
leadership skills
strategic and business management skills
control feedback

Answer 41

strategic and business management skills

Question 42

The willingness to serve other people is an example of what personality trait?

Service-oriented
Social
Systemic
Intellectual

Answer 42

Service-oriented

Question 43

Allows the team to make their own decisions is an example of what kind of leadership style?

Transformational
Transactional
Charismatic
Laissez-faire

Answer 43

Laissez-faire

Question 44

Interactional leadership includes which other type of leadership style?

Transactional
Transformational
Charismatic
all of the above

Answer 44

all of the above

Question 45

Which of the following is not one of the 3 dimensions of complexity?

System behavior
Human Behavior
Intellectual Behavior
Ambiguity

Answer 45

Intellectual Behavior

Question 46

Accepting others for what and who they are is an example of what personality trait?

Courteous
Authentic
Cultural
Managerial

Answer 46

Authentic

Question 47

Is there any tool or technique that aids the project management team in effectively developing a project charter?

No.
Benefit contributions model
Various databases
Expert judgment

Answer 47

Expert judgment

Question 48

What are examples of organizational process assets?

Previous project schedules.
Projected data.
Risk responses plans.
Cost baselines.

Answer 48

Previous project schedules.

Question 49

Project Integration Management includes all of the following except

Develop Project Charter
Develop Resource Plan
Close Project
Close Phase

Answer 49

Develop Resource Plan

Question 50

Who is responsible for analyzing information contained in the project scope?

The sponsor.
The project team.
The performing organization.
The initiator.

Answer 50

The project team.

Question 51

Outputs from Develop Project Charter include:

WBS
high-level risks
PDM system
PMI system

Answer 51

high-level risks

Question 52

What document defines how the project will be executed, monitored, and controlled?

T & M contract
The WBS
The Project Management Plan
SPI

Answer 52

The Project Management Plan

Question 53

A _______ would be a subsidiary plan included in the project management plan

project control plan
risk management plan
project scope statement
project charter

Answer 53

risk management plan

Question 54

The Project Management Plan documents planning process outputs, such as

how changes will be monitored and controlled.
communication techniques among stakeholders.
how work will be executed to accomplish objectives.
all of the above.

Answer 54

all of the above.

Question 55

Enterprise Environmental Factors used in developing the Project Management Plan include:

governmental standards
risk register
quality management
all of the above

Answer 55

governmental standards

Question 56

In Develop Project Management Plan, expert judgment is used to

tailor the process
develop technical details
determine resources
all of the above

Answer 56

all of the above

Question 57

Project files containing project scope, cost, schedule, and performance baselines are part of the organizational processes and procedures used for

developing histograms
avoiding risk
developing the project management plan
none of the above

Answer 57

developing the project management plan

Question 58

Which of the following is not a tailoring consideration in Project Integration Management?

Change
Governance
The cost baseline
Benefits

Answer 58

The cost baseline

Question 59

Requirements documentation includes

Quality requirements
Acceptance criteria
Training requirements
all of the above

Answer 59

all of the above

Question 60

Items in the project scope statement include

The scope baseline.
The WBS dictionary.
the WBS.
Project constraints.

Answer 60

Project constraints.

Question 61

Components of the scope baseline include:

SBS
WBS dictionary
Product scope
none of the above

Answer 61

WBS dictionary

Question 62

Imposed dates for specific activity completion or project deliverables are called

completion dates.
schedule activities.
schedule milestones.
delivery date.

Answer 62

schedule milestones.

Question 63

The project scope statement

details the needs of the project.
is a statement of ‘what needs to be done’.
states the project objective.
defines the potential risks that might deter success.

Answer 63

is a statement of ‘what needs to be done’.

Question 64

A work package is

a risk-mitigating component of the WBS.
A group of work components performed during the course of a project.
a document that defines and describes each component in the WBS.
a project work component at the lowest level of the WBS.

Answer 64

a project work component at the lowest level of the WBS.

Question 65

When developing the product scope description, the project management team must

describe deliverables at a summary level or greater detail.
define the process and criteria for accepting products.
list and describe specific project constraints associated with the project scope that limit options toward product development.
provide sufficient detail to support later project scope planning.

Answer 65

provide sufficient detail to support later project scope planning.

Question 66

What Define Scope output details the project’s deliverables and the work required to create the deliverables?

The project charter.
The project boundaries.
The project scope statement.
The project scope management plan.

Answer 66

The project scope statement.

Question 67

Tools and techniques used to define scope include

product review.
expert judgment.
alternative factors.
all of the above.

Answer 67

expert judgment.

Question 68

The project scope baseline contains

the initial WBS.
Capital investment control.
Human resources
Project procedures.

Answer 68

the initial WBS.

Question 69

A project manager uses the WBS

To see how planned activities are related to overall performance.
To see how planned activities are related to overall budgeting and scheduling.
To see who is responsible for designated planned activities.
All of the above.

Answer 69

All of the above.

Question 70

A WBS is

A hierarchy that defines and organizes project work.
A technique for evaluating a component or product during a project phase.
A common approach to implementing a quality improvement project program.
A contractual component that designates how activity time and materials are used throughout the duration of the project.

Answer 70

A hierarchy that defines and organizes project work.

Question 71

Project Requirements can include

security requirements.
business requirements.
technical requirements.
all of the above.

Answer 71

all of the above.

Question 72

Scheduled work, cost estimates, and work to be monitored and controlled, are contained in

the WBS dictionary.
the lowest level WBS components.
work performance reports.
the scope baseline.

Answer 72

the lowest level WBS components.

Question 73

Resources used to define scope include:

consultants
stakeholders
industry groups
all of the above

Answer 73

all of the above

Question 74

The project management plan is updated and revised

Through the Monitor and Control of Project Work process.
Through the Direct Project Execution process.
Through the Integrated Change Control process.
Through the Project Management Plan process.

Answer 74

Through the Integrated Change Control process.

Question 75

A configuration management system

is seldom used
provides a way to manage changes within a project
is controlled by the sponsor
none of the above

Answer 75

provides a way to manage changes within a project

Question 76

Performing Integrated Change control includes:

reviewing corrective actions
denying preventative actions
approving preventative actions
all of the above

Answer 76

all of the above

Question 77

Managing project work requires implementing changes associated with

corrective action
preventative action
defect repair
all of the above

Answer 77

all of the above

Question 78

_______ are produced as outputs from the processes performed to accomplish the project work planned and scheduled in the project management plan.

Plans
Scopes
Objectives
Deliverables

Answer 78

Deliverables

Question 79

Outputs from managing project execution include:

deliverable status
cost incurred
proactive actions
all of the above

Answer 79

deliverable status

Question 80

What types of actions do the project manager and project team perform to execute the project management plan to accomplish work defined in the project scope statement?

Pareto analysis
Review risks
Contact stakeholders
None of the above

Answer 80

Review risks

Question 81

Outputs from Validate Scope include:

accepted delivery.
change approvals.
project document updates.
none of the above.

Answer 81

project document updates.

Question 82

Variance analysis is used to

define scope.
control scope.
collect requirements.
define risk.

Answer 82

control scope.

Question 83

The foundation has to be built before the house framing can begin. This is an example of

an external dependency.
soft or preferred logic.
hard logic.
discretionary dependency.

Answer 83

hard logic.

Question 84

What type of precedence relationship is the least used?

Start-to-Finish.
Finish-to-Start.
Start-to-Start.
Finish-to-Finish.

Answer 84

Start-to-Finish.

Question 85

What type of precedence relationship completion of the successor activity depends on the initiation of the predecessor activity?

Start-to-Finish.
Finish-to-Start.
Start-to-Start.
Finish-to-Finish.

Answer 85

Start-to-Finish.

Question 86

Testing schedule activity software is dependent upon delivery of the hardware. Conducting an environmental impact study must be done before a project is constructed near a wetlands area. These are examples of

Soft logic dependencies.
Forgone dependencies.
External dependencies.
Internal dependencies.

Answer 86

External dependencies.

Question 87

What type of precedence relationship is the most commonly used?

Start-to-Finish.
Finish-to-Start.
Start-to-Start.
Finish-to-Finish.

Answer 87

Finish-to-Start.

Question 88

A logical relationship in which a successor activity cannot start until a predecessor activity has finished is

Start-to-Start
Start-to-Finish
Finish-to-Start
Finish-to-Finish

Answer 88

Finish-to-Start

Question 89

What characterizes the Start-to-Start dependency?

The successor activity depends on the initiation of the predecessor activity.
Initiation of the successor activity depends upon the completion of the predecessor activity.
Initiation of the successor activity depends upon the initiation of the predecessor activity.
Completion of the successor activity depends upon the completion of the predecessor activity.

Answer 89

Initiation of the successor activity depends upon the initiation of the predecessor activity.

Question 90

What helps to minimize scope creep?

Punitive measures
Lassiez-faire management
Task alignment
Time-boxing

Answer 90

Time-boxing

Question 91

A logical relationship in which a successor activity cannot finish until a predecessor activity has finished is:

Start-to-Start
Start-to-Finish
Finish-to-Finish
Finish-to-Start

Answer 91

Finish-to-Finish

Question 92

What type of sequence dependencies involve physical limitations, such as having to complete one activity before the next one can begin?

External.
Mandatory.
Internal.
Discretionary.

Answer 92

Mandatory.

Question 93

Discretionary dependencies usually

are based on best practices.
involve both project and non-project activities.
are referred to as hard logic.
never rely on historical project data.

Answer 93

are based on best practices.

Question 94

Types of dependencies, or precedence relationships, PDM (Precedence Diagramming Method) uses include:

Start-to-Finish.
Beginning-to-Completion.
Start-to-Interval-to-End.
Start-to-Phase-to-Phase-to-Finish.

Answer 94

Start-to-Finish.

Question 95

Tools and Techniques used in Estimate Activity Durations include all except

Associative estimating
Analagous estimating
Three-point estimating
Bottom-up estimating

Answer 95

Associative estimating

Question 96

_______is/ are updated to include the defined logical relationships and any associated leads and lags.

The project schedule network diagrams
The activity list
Activity attributes
Requested changes

Answer 96

Activity attributes

Question 97

Given a finish-to-start dependency, the project manger finds he has to build in a 28-day _____ period into the project schedule to ensure a concrete foundation has cured.

lead
gap
break
lag

Answer 97

lag

Question 98

Inputs to Estimate Activity Durations include all except

Activity attributes
Change log
Assumptions log
Activity list

Answer 98

Change log

Question 99

In Schedule Management, scaling factors to consider for agile environments include all except

team size
geographical distribution
regulatory compliance
industrial landscape

Answer 99

industrial landscape

Question 100

Earned value, red-yellow-green, and percentage complete are examples of

progress tracking
product novelty
project complexity
pace

Answer 100

progress tracking

Question 101

Tools used to sequence activities include:

PDM
frequency determination
sequence tags
all of the above

Answer 101

PDM

Question 102

The project management team has fifteen days remaining to put the contract out to bid. 90% of the contract is complete. The word processing team begins editing and compilation while the design team finalizes the special provision section and plan inserts. The project manager gave his team some _____ by giving the bulk of what was done to word processing to begin their work. The project manager has increased the probability that the contract will go out on time, since word processing will only have the special provision section to finish when it is ready.

breathing room
buffer
lead time
lag time

Answer 102

lead time

Question 103

Determining the cause, magnitude, and corrective action of a _______ is an important element of Control Costs

project, phase, or activity
phase overrun
budget underrun
variance

Answer 103

variance

Question 104

The total funds required are those included in the cost baseline plus the management contingency reserve amount. Funding requirements derived from the cost baseline can be established to

allow for early progress.
negate funds for cost overruns.
act continuously.
increase cash flow when the project is completed.

Answer 104

allow for early progress.

Question 105

The ________ method is helpful for cost control, resource management, and production, and compares the budgeted cost of work performed to the cost of planned and actual work performed.

actual cost
earned value
estimated value
planned value

Answer 105

earned value

Question 106

_______ includes influencing the factors that create cost baseline changes, managing actual changes when they occur, and monitoring cost performance to detect variances from the cost baseline.

Estimate costs
Determine budget
Control costs
Cost contingency

Answer 106

Control costs

Question 107

Work performance information the project manager uses in controlling costs includes

Authorized and incurred costs.
Project scope assumptions.
Constraint estimates.
All of the above.

Answer 107

Authorized and incurred costs.

Question 108

Inputs the project manager uses to control costs include

All of the above/below.
The project management and cost management plans.
Project funding requirements.
Work performance data.

Answer 108

All of the above/below.

Question 109

Control cost outputs include

Work efforts
Project charter
Change requests
all of the above

Answer 109

Change requests

Question 110

______ are time-phased budgets and components of the project management plan that overall cost performance is measured against.

Cost aggregates
Cost management plans
Cash flow controls
Cost baselines

Answer 110

Cost baselines

Question 111

The project team is in the final test phases of a systems project, when one of the senior technical designers informs the project manager of a significant design glitch. The product is due to be released within weeks, and the cost and schedule overruns will be extreme without a guarantee of meeting the target rollout date. What should the project manager do?

Call a project team meeting to brainstorm possible urgent solutions to the problem.
Pass the decision onto higher management.
Push the project through and release it on the scheduled target date, with a disclaimer that upgrades will follow.
Stop work and launch a full review of the system.

Answer 111

Call a project team meeting to brainstorm possible urgent solutions to the problem.

Question 112

Cost/schedule control systems are typically required when subcontractors work on government contracts. Information requirements that must be demonstrated by the cost/schedule control system include

Functional costs and schedules.
Estimated and budgeted costs at completion.
Forecasted work and costs.
Budget and schedule monitoring and control

Answer 112

Estimated and budgeted costs at completion.

Question 113

Information required for the cost/schedule control system includes

estimated cost.
budgeted cost.
knowing when the tasks are scheduled and if actual costs differ from budgeted costs.
all of the above.

Answer 113

all of the above.

Question 114

During brainstorming sessions, many ideas are introduced in an effort to gather all plausible solutions. In one instance, a project team engages in a brainstorming session led by a senior team member who voluntarily designates to the recorder which ideas should be documented for further discussion, and which ideas are irrelevant, have little merit and will consume too much time. She also says the team will stay there until they have the list narrowed down to a “top three solutions” list, if it takes all morning. What is wrong with the brainstorming procedure?

There should not be a time limit on the session.
The session should be informal and all ideas should be documented.
Nothing is wrong with the session structure.
The session should not have a leader, but rather a facilitator.

Answer 114

The session should be informal and all ideas should be documented.

Question 115

Any schedule, technical performance, or cost deviation from a specific plan, which is used by all levels of management to verify the budgeting and scheduling systems is

a variance.
an undistributed budget.
a threshold.
an assumption.

Answer 115

a variance.

Question 116

Why is it necessary to compare budgeting and scheduling system variance together?

The scheduling variance does not address actual performance.
The scheduling variance does not include costs.
The cost variance includes a measured comparison between work scheduled and work accomplished, which the scheduling variance does not.
The cost variance compares both the budget and work performance.

Answer 116

The scheduling variance does not include costs.

Question 117

Project cost control may be effectively implemented when

the comprehensive cost summary is divided into work packages.
historical data is acted on throughout project duration.
the project manager exclusively resolves problems or develops opportunities.
stakeholders and sponsors are assigned to resolve problems and troubleshoot changes.

Answer 117

the comprehensive cost summary is divided into work packages.

Question 118

During a routing meeting, the discussion becomes heated. The participants are evenly divided on what should be done about the overcrowded workspace. Those who are budget-conscious believe laying off workers and outsourcing is most beneficial. Those who are more socially sensitive contend relocating to a larger office space to accommodate the employees is a better solution. How should this decision be made?

Short- and long-term capital benefits must take precedence.
Based on past experiences of the senior members of the discussion.
Based on how the competition has handled similar situations.
Based on facts, obligations, and long-term as well as short-term overall effects on the firm.

Answer 118

Based on facts, obligations, and long-term as well as short-term overall effects on the firm.

Question 119

Before deliverables are accepted, the ______ , which includes performance requirements and essential conditions, must be met.

Acceptance criteria
Thresholds
Benchmarks
Milestones

Answer 119

Acceptance criteria

Question 120

A measurement is

an actual value.
a defined parameter.
a quality planning tool.
a control standard.

Answer 120

an actual value.

Question 121

_______ provide the project manager with a basis to measure performance

Design experiments
Process analyses
Benchmarks
Work performance information

Answer 121

Benchmarks

Question 122

Based on definitions of “metric” and “measurement,” “quality metrics” include

Risk.
Defect prevention.
Failure rate.
Conformity.

Answer 122

Failure rate.

Question 123

What signifies the deliverables have met the needs of the customer?

Benchmark approval.
Acceptance of the quality baseline.
Formal acceptance.
Project payment.

Answer 123

Formal acceptance.

Question 124

A tool used in Control Quality is

Data gathering
Data analysis
Inspection
All of the above

Answer 124

All of the above

Question 125

Cost-benefit tradeoffs are primary concerns of the project manager. The primary benefit(s) achieved when the quality requirements of the project are met is

Less rework.
Higher productivity.
Stakeholder satisfaction.
All of the above.

Answer 125

All of the above.

Question 126

A metric is

A quality objective.
An actual measurement.
a definition of what something is and how it is measured.
Verification that a set of required steps have been performed.

Answer 126

a definition of what something is and how it is measured.

Question 127

What quality planning technique helps optimize products and processes by identifying which factors may influence specific products or processes under development or production?

Performance designing.
Design of experiments.
Issue logging.
Design of experience.

Answer 127

Design of experiments.

Question 128

A Quality Management Plan may be

formal
informal
detailed
all of the above

Answer 128

all of the above

Question 129

What quality planning technique creates a visual diagram of system process inputs, process actions, and outputs for a project?

Affinity diagramming.
Decision-making.
Analysis.
Flowcharting.

Answer 129

Flowcharting.

Question 130

A Plan Quality Management technique that involves a group of members and general data gathering, used to identify risks or solutions, is

brainstorming.
decision-making.
analysis.
flowcharting.

Answer 130

brainstorming.

Question 131

______ costs are total costs incurred by investing in preventing nonconformance to requirements or reworking.

Cost of quality
Management quality
Failure costs
Process improvement

Answer 131

Cost of quality

Question 132

What is the benefit of performing an independent quality management peer review?

cost reduction
rework avoidance
all of the above
none of the above

Answer 132

all of the above

Question 133

A RACI chart is

seldom used
used to ensure clear assignment of roles and responsibilities
only used on programs
is similar to a histogram

Answer 133

used to ensure clear assignment of roles and responsibilities

Question 134

______ determines the method and timing of releasing team members, to effect smooth project phase transitions, improve morale, and optimize time and budget.

Staff release plan
Schedule management
A timetable
Resource management

Answer 134

Staff release plan

Question 135

To be effective, a planned recognition and rewards system should be based on ________ under a person’s control.

activities and schedules
schedule and performance
activities and performance
behavior and activities

Answer 135

activities and performance

Question 136

What is the purpose of having resource calendars?

To make changing the staffing management plan easier.
To improve cohesiveness within the team.
To update the project charter more effectively.
To create a reliable final schedule.

Answer 136

To create a reliable final schedule.

Question 137

What should be considered when planning the acquisition of project team members?

Budget.
Available sources.
Internal and external assistance.
All of the above.

Answer 137

All of the above.

Question 138

The resource management plan must be updated

when roles and responsibilities change.
when there are changes in the project scope.
weekly.
after each project.

Answer 138

when roles and responsibilities change.

Question 139

Negotiating staff assignments on projects is common. How does the project management team influence staff assignments for a project?

They demand the majority of the work be performed in-house, and only by known competent performers.
They negotiate with a functional manager to ensure their project receives competent staff for the duration of the project.
They negotiate with outside contractors to do activities the internal staff does not want to do, at less cost.
They request upper management ensure they get the best people for their project, regardless if the people are currently assigned to other project management teams.

Answer 139

They negotiate with a functional manager to ensure their project receives competent staff for the duration of the project.

Question 140

What should a project manager do when there is no in-house staff available to complete the project?

Delay the project until personnel becomes available.
Acquire needed services from outside sources.
Assign the entire job to a consultant.
Cancel the project.

Answer 140

Acquire needed services from outside sources.

Question 141

What characterizes “effective teamwork”?

Cooperation.
Communication.
Information sharing.
All of the above.

Answer 141

All of the above.

Question 142

The most important factor to have and implement if you are going to successfully use a virtual team on a project is

Explicit authority and direction.
Effective risk management policies.
Good communication.
Stringent quality control.

Answer 142

Good communication.

Question 143

Training strategies, rewards, feedback, and disciplinary actions are part of, and added to, the ________ .

Develop Reward Plan
Develop Team
Cost Reward Plan
Recognition Plan

Answer 143

Develop Team

Question 144

Tools and techniques for Acquire Resources include

post-assignment
confrontation
negotiation
all of the above

Answer 144

negotiation

Question 145

Are there any real benefits to using virtual teams on projects?

No. Time, coordination, communication, and management costs outweigh the savings and member convenience.
Yes. It reduces travel expenses, accommodates handicap workers, and adds special expertise from those in remote locations.
No. There is not enough control or quality planning.
Yes. Time spent monitoring and controlling staff is reduced, freeing up managers to concentrate on other projects.

Answer 145

Yes. It reduces travel expenses, accommodates handicap workers, and adds special expertise from those in remote locations.

Question 146

What ensures greater success of team development?

When efforts are begun early.
When historical events are used in developing current teams.
Training.
Rotating roles and responsibilities until the project manager finds the “right fit.”

Answer 146

When efforts are begun early.

Question 147

Pre-assignment of project team members occurs

When particular expertise is needed.
When the budget is severely limited.
When specific people are promised as part of a no-bid proposal.
When there are no competing projects.

Answer 147

When particular expertise is needed.

Question 148

Which of the following is not one of the 5 stages of development in the Tuckman ladder?

Forming
Norming
Storming
Conforming

Answer 148

Conforming

Question 149

What officially denotes the project has been staffed?

When project team members are inserted into the project management plan and organizational charts and schedules.
When the project budget has been approved for the resources and payroll.
When the project begins.
When in-house members have been selected and only specific outside expertise is needed.

Answer 149

When project team members are inserted into the project management plan and organizational charts and schedules.

Question 150

A virtual team is/are:

A specialized consultant who achieves project completion by working and documenting offsite.
A project team whose members are physically located in different areas, who conduct their project roles from those locations, but who meet regularly in a central location to discuss project progress.
groups who share a project goal, who fulfill their roles with little or no face-to-face meetings.
a project team comprised of consultants, subcontractors, and off-site documentation, coordinating the project based on milestone meeting dates.

Answer 150

groups who share a project goal, who fulfill their roles with little or no face-to-face meetings.

Question 151

What are the primary objectives a project manager tries to accomplish through the Develop Team process?

Acquire the best outside expertise for each project.
Improve team members’ competencies and interactions.
Develop and implement effective conflict management.
Maintain preventive and corrective action plans for human resource activities.

Answer 151

Improve team members’ competencies and interactions.

Question 152

The project manager has coffee with the supervisor of the project, who commends the project team for expediting project progress. The project manager sends an email to the project team members to convey the satisfaction of the stakeholder. The email is an overall example of what type of communication?

external and informal
internal and formal
internal and informal
external and formal

Answer 152

internal and informal

Question 153

As part of the communications process, who is responsible for making information clear and complete so the receiver can receive it correctly?

The project manager.
The sender.
The communications manager.
The receiver.

Answer 153

The sender.

Question 154

How is information gathered and retrieved?

From office files and manual filing systems.
Electronically.
Through PM software.
All of the above.

Answer 154

All of the above.

Question 155

Communication technology factors that impact the project include

stakeholder communications requirements.
the availability and capabilities of the technology.
the frequency of the communications.
the cost to value of the communications systems.

Answer 155

the availability and capabilities of the technology.

Question 156

Outputs from Manage Communications include:

project communications
project management plan updates
project document updates
all of the above

Answer 156

all of the above

Question 157

What type of communication is an internal, horizontally circulated memo?

A project-related brief from the project manager to the media.
Ad hoc compliments from the customer to project manager about project team’s performance.
An email memo about the project.
A formal project-related communication among team members.

Answer 157

A formal project-related communication among team members.

Question 158

The receiver is responsible for

collecting and distributing information.
giving information to stakeholders.
ensuring the information is correctly understood.
giving feedback to the sender.

Answer 158

ensuring the information is correctly understood.

Question 159

Lessons learned meetings focus on

Requested changes.
Schedule completions.
Identifying project successes and failures.
Feedback from stakeholders.

Answer 159

Identifying project successes and failures.

Question 160

Project information can be distributed by almost any method EXCEPT

through ad hoc and general conversation.
at project meetings.
by video and web conferencing.
by email, voice mail, or portals.

Answer 160

through ad hoc and general conversation.

Question 161

Information distribution is NOT information

sharing.
analysis.
collection.
distribution.

Answer 161

analysis.

Question 162

What information is contained in the communications management plan?

Information to be communicated.
General level of noise factors.
Required communication management skills.
Methods of reporting risk.

Answer 162

Information to be communicated.

Question 163

A communication management plan can be:

formal
informal
detailed
all of the above

Answer 163

all of the above

Question 164

In Communications Management, identified lessons learned include _______.

causes of issues
histograms
top-down charts
none of the above

Answer 164

causes of issues

Question 165

Formal and informal project reports detail the

project status and inputs.
project status, and include lessons learned.
project closure report and historical database.
project inputs and outputs.

Answer 165

project status, and include lessons learned.

Question 166

Project records should include:

Standard business policies and procedures.
Closure reports.
Correspondence and memos.
Project team members’ individual and collective performance reports.

Answer 166

Correspondence and memos.

Question 167

Lessons learned documentation output that becomes part of the historical project and performance database includes:

Formal and informal project and status reports.
causes for failures and corrective actions.
Feedback from all the stakeholders.
Project team members’ project diaries and reports, and changes.

Answer 167

causes for failures and corrective actions.

Question 168

How are lessons learned during the project life cycle handled?

They are reviewed and discussed.
They are documented and distributed.
Feedback meetings are scheduled.
They are updated and sent to engineering.

Answer 168

They are documented and distributed.

Question 169

If the project yields less than desirable results, the project manager has a professional obligation to hold a lessons learned session. Attendees should include

Internal stakeholders.
External stakeholders.
All key stakeholders.
Upper management and internal stakeholders.

Answer 169

All key stakeholders.

Question 170

Which of the following statements is incorrect regarding the project stakeholders?

Engaging stakeholders increases the probability of project success
Stakeholders influence on the project is highest during the early stages of the project
The responsibility of stakeholder engagement lies with the project manager
Project stakeholders do not include the project management team members

Answer 170

Project stakeholders do not include the project management team members

Question 171

Which of the following is an executing process from the project stakeholder knowledge area?

Identify Stakeholders
Plan Stakeholder Management
Manage Stakeholder Engagement
Control Stakeholder Engagement

Answer 171

Manage Stakeholder Engagement

Question 172

What organizational process assets are used in Identify Risks?

The project scope statement.
Previous project files.
Schedule and cost information.
Plans, assumptions, and constraints information.

Answer 172

Previous project files.

Question 173

Risk identification is an iterative process because

it typically leads to risk response analysis
new risks become known as the project progresses.
it can be used in qualitative analysis.
it guarantees effective risk response.

Answer 173

new risks become known as the project progresses.

Question 174

A grid that maps the probability of each risk occurrence and its impact on project objectives if that risk occurs is:

impact
relative impact
probability and impact matrix
impact matrix

Answer 174

probability and impact matrix

Question 175

The risk management plan includes

reasoning
methodology
cost
none of the above

Answer 175

methodology

Question 176

The period of time that may elapse after a risk has occurred before its impact is discovered is

Urgency
Proximity
Connectivity
Dormancy

Answer 176

Dormancy

Question 177

The risk management plan reporting formats describe the ______ which defines how the outcomes of the process will be documented, analyzed, and communicated.

risk identification output
qualitative and quantitative analysis
scope of risk
content and format of the risk register

Answer 177

content and format of the risk register

Question 178

The Probability and Impact Matrix chart is used

To determine the degree of risk impact compared to similar past project risk impacts.
To prioritize risks.
To see causes of risks.
To determine probability.

Answer 178

To prioritize risks.

Question 179

The ______ scale reflects the significance of negative threats or positive opportunities on each project objective.

impact
relative impact
non-linear
impact matrix

Answer 179

impact

Question 180

The quality and credibility of the qualitative risk analysis process requires varying levels of the risk______

duration and significance to the project.
scope and degree.
probabilities and impacts.
significance and impact.

Answer 180

probabilities and impacts.

Question 181

Risks are typically prioritized by

Time impact.
Potential time and cost expenditures.
Impact to project objectives.
organization’s and stakeholders’ criteria.

Answer 181

Impact to project objectives.

Question 182

What enterprise environmental factor inputs are used in Identify Risks?

Commercial databases.
Benchmark information.
Industry studies.
All of the above.

Answer 182

All of the above.

Question 183

_____ risks determines which risks might affect the project and documents their characteristics.

Identify
Analyze
Plan
Monitor and control

Answer 183

Identify

Question 184

______ contribute to the effectiveness and quality of risk identification

Risk categories
Budgeting factors
Budgeting categories
Roles and responsibilities

Answer 184

Risk categories

Question 185

The ______ hierarchically organizes identified project risks arranged by risk category and subcategory that identifies the areas and causes of potential risks.

WBS
PBS
RRS
RBS

Answer 185

RBS (Resource Breakdown Structure)

Question 186

Who should be responsible for risk identification activities?

The project manager, project team members, and those responsible for directly managing project risks.
The organization and stakeholders.
Risk management experts.
All project personnel.

Answer 186

All project personnel.

Question 187

______ documents how all elements of risk activities will be recorded for current project and future project needs, and lessons learned.

Tracking
Information
Report
Probability and impact

Answer 187

Tracking

Question 188

_______ contracts may include incentive clauses where the seller receives an incentive or bonus payment if project objectives are met or exceeded.

Cost-reimbursable
Cost-plus-incentive
Cost-plus-fixed price
Cost-plus

Answer 188

Cost-reimbursable

Question 189

“Buy” decision analyses include both direct and indirect costs. The buy-side of the analysis includes

out of pocket costs to purchase
costs for risk analysis
cost avoidance
cost estimates

Answer 189

out of pocket costs to purchase

Question 190

_______ contracts are hybrid contractual agreements that are combined cost-reimbursable and fixed-price contracts based on duration of performance and the exact quantity of items to be delivered.

Cost-plus-fixed-fee
Time and materials
Cost-plus-incentive-fee
Cost-plus-percentage-of-cost-fee

Answer 190

Time and materials

Question 191

Any project budget constraints are _____ the make-or-buy decision.

separate from
subtracted from
divisions of
factored into

Answer 191

factored into

Question 192

A contract that only pays the majority of the fee based on satisfaction of certain broad subjective performance criteria is:

Time and materials
Cost plus award fee
Cost plus incentive fee
Cost plus fixed fee

Answer 192

Cost plus award fee

Question 193

Cost-plus-incentive-fee contracts reimburse the seller for allowable costs for performing the contract work plus

a fixed percentage for meeting or exceeding contract requirements.
a graduated fee based on early schedule completion milestones.
a fee calculated as an agreed-upon percentage of costs.
a predetermined fee based on achieving certain performance objectives.

Answer 193

a predetermined fee based on achieving certain performance objectives.

Question 194

______ are “hard costs” that include labor, subcontractors, and materials

Project overhead
Company overhead
Direct costs
Indirect costs

Answer 194

Direct costs

Question 195

______ contracts reimburse the seller for allowable costs for performing the contract work plus a fixed fee payment calculated as a percentage of the estimated project costs.

Cost-plus-fixed-fee.
Cost-plus-incentive-fee.
Cost-plus-percentage-of-cost-fee.
Time and materials

Answer 195

Cost-plus-fixed-fee.

Question 196

______ contracts involve payment to the seller for the seller’s actual costs, plus a fee, which typically represents the seller’s profit

Cost-plus
Lump sum
Fixed-price
Cost-reimbursable

Answer 196

Cost-reimbursable

Question 197

A purchase order for a specified item to be delivered by a specified date for a specified price is the simplest form of a ______ contract.

contractual provisions
lump sum
fixed-price
cost-reimbursable

Answer 197

fixed-price

Question 198

Expert judgment is used to assess inputs and outputs from the plan procurement management process. What else is it used for in this process?

To create seller incentive.
To more effectively coordinate project procurements.
To evaluate buyer and seller risk.
To develop criteria used to evaluate sellers’ proposals.

Answer 198

To develop criteria used to evaluate sellers’ proposals.

Question 199

A type of cost that is considered indirect, or overhead is:

Vehicle expense.
A foreman’s salary.
Loss from selling equipment.
Any of the above.

Answer 199

Any of the above.

Question 200

How are indirect costs calculated?

According to the straight-line method.
As a percentage of direct costs.
By the accrual method.
On a net income basis.

Answer 200

As a percentage of direct costs.