Practice questions lecture 5 Flashcards
From ppt lecture 5+ Cassidy's practice questions (101 cards)
1
Q
Name 2 roles of the sarcoplasmic reticulum
A
1) Surrounds myofibrils like a sleeve
2) Stores Ca+ that releases with AP’s down T-tubules
2
Q
Which part of the sarcomere is “slid over” during muscle contraction?
A
A band
3
Q
List the 3 classifications of motor activity
A
Reflex
Rhythmic
Voluntary
4
Q
The back and leg muscles are usually associated with which muscle fiber?
A
Slow-oxidative
5
Q
True or false? Long distance runners don’t have as much muscle mass because their mitochondria and capillaries increased, making their O2 utilization more efficient, but not larger in size.
A
True
6
Q
Rather than using troponin, _____________ must occur for actin-myosin bonding in smooth muscle
A
phosphorylation
7
Q
List 3 cellular elements that are suspended in plasma
A
Erythrocytes
Leukocytes
Thrombocytes
8
Q
What makes up the smallest fraction of blood?
A
Platelets and leukocytes (<1%)
9
Q
Plasma makes up ____% of whole blood
A
55%
10
Q
RBCs make up _____% of blood in females and _____% in males
A
42%; 45%
11
Q
What need(s) to be removed for plasma to become serum?
A
Clotting factors
12
Q
Of the substances dissolved in plasma, which makes up the majority of plasma weight?
A
Organic substances
13
Q
List 5 electrolytes found in plasma. Organic or inorganic?
A
Na+, Cl-, HCO3-, K+, Ca+; inorganic
14
Q
List 4 nutrients found in plasma. Are these organic or inorganic?
A
Glucose, amino acids, lipids, vitamins; organic
15
Q
List 3 organic wastes found in plasma
A
Creatinine, bilirubin, urea
16
Q
Where are plasma proteins synthesized?
A
Liver
17
Q
Which plasma protein is the most abundant?
A
Albumins
18
Q
Which plasma lipid is a precursor for steroid hormone synthesis?
A
Cholesterol
19
Q
What enzyme(s) remain(s) within a mature RBC?
A
Carbonic anhydrase & glycolytic enzyme
20
Q
What is the primary transport form of CO2?
A
Carbonic anhydrase’s conversion of CO2 to bicarbonate (“bicarb”) (HCO3)
21
Q
What are needed to power transport mechanisms within RBCs?
A
Glycolytic enzymes
22
Q
True or false: Leukocytes and platelets are also produced in red bone marrow.
A
True
23
Q
1) What come from the ectoderm line?
2) What come from the mesoderm line?
3) What come from the endoderm line?
A
1) Skin and neurons 2) Heart muscle and RBCs 3) Lungs and pancreas
24
Q
When do the kidneys secrete EPO?
A
Upon detecting low O2
25
What two things make up anemia?
Low hematocrit level and decreased O2 capacity
26
Which classification of anemia is the inability to absorb vitamin B12?
Pernicious anemia
27
Which classification of anemia is due to bone marrow failing to produce RBCs (possibly due to toxic chemicals, radiation, cancer)?
Aplastic
28
What are two examples of hemolytic diseases?
Malaria and sickle cell disease
29
What type of anemia is common?
Nutritional
30
What disease involves the invasion of RBCs by parasites that then multiply, causing them to rupture, and invade more RBCs? (hint: involves cyclical fever)
Malaria
31
What disease involves deformed cells clumping together and blocking vessels in the spleen?
Sickle cell disease
32
True or false: all RBCs are deformed with sickle cell
False; some can be normal
33
What type of polycythemia involves an excessive, uncontrolled rate of erythropoiesis in red marrow? Give a potential cause.
Primary polycythemia; bone marrow cancer
34
What type of polycythemia can cause a hematocrit up to 80%? Does this have an additional benefit?
Primary polycythemia; hematocrit up to 80%
35
The liver produces thrombopoietin, which increases ___________________ that shed off ____.
megakaryocytes; platelets
36
Von Willebrand Factor detecting exposed collagen is step _____________ of the coagulation cascade
2
37
Where is fibrinogen produced?
Liver
38
Platelets function for how long before being removed by macrophages?
10 days
39
What two things do platelets have?
Organelles and cytosolic enzymes
40
What within the clotting cascade acts as a positive-feedback loop by facilitating its own formation?
Thrombin
41
List the 3 steps of hemostasis
1) Vascular spasm; myogenic contraction
2) Formation of platelet plug
3) Blood coagulation (clotting)
42
What 2 chemicals released by activated platelets help with platelet plug formation?
ADP and Thromboxane A2
43
Name an eicosanoid paracrine similar to prostaglandins
Thromboxane A2
44
What 2 things does ADP stimulate the release of (by nearby normal endothelium) to inhibit platelet aggregation?
Prostacyclin and nitric oxide
45
What converts prothrombin into thrombin?
Factor X
46
What does thrombin do?
Convert fibrinogen into fibrin
47
What does fibrin adhere to?
The damaged vessel
48
What does thrombin activate?
Factor XIII
49
How many plasma clotting factors participate in converting fibrinogen to fibrin?
12
50
What is also known as the “fibrin-stabilizing factor” that stabilizes the fiber into a clot?
Factor XIII
51
What is inactive in plasma?
Thrombin (it's prothrombin until activated)
52
What pathway of the clotting cascade involves clotting within damaged vessels and is a 7 step process that begins when factor XII comes into contact with exposed collagen?
Intrinsic pathway
53
What path involves tissue factors coming into contact with tissue thromboplastin (outside of blood)?
External pathway
54
In the extrinsic pathway, damaged tissue releases tissue thromboplastin which activates factor ______ and bypasses preceding steps
factor X
55
1) Name a fibrinolytic enzyme
2) What activates it?
3) What removes dissolved clot products?
1) Plasmin
2) tPA (tissue plasminogen activator)
3) Phagocytic WBCs
56
What dissolves clots?
Plasmin
57
Primary lymphoid tissues are linked to what kind of immunity? What two things make up this category?
Adaptive; thymus and bone marrow
58
List 3 secondary lymphoid tissues
Lymph nodes, mucosa-associated lymphoid tissues (MALTs), spleen
59
List two structures that are linked to the adaptive immune system
Thymus and bone marrow
60
Which of the following WBC are indicative of a bacterial infection in high numbers?
Neutrophils
61
What leukocyte stores histamine and heparin, and is structurally similar to mast cells?
Basophils
62
A _____________ analog for WBCs directs their differentiation and proliferation
erythropoietin
63
What is the first line of defense against pathogens that is not technically part of the immune system?
Skin/body cavity linings
64
Which of the following innate defenses nonspecifically lyse viral and cancerous cells?
Natural killer cells
65
List 3 roles of phagocytes and plasma proteins in innate immunity
1) Prepare for tissue healing
2) Isolate, destroy, or inactivate pathogens
3) Remove debris
66
What WBCs only have one nucleus?
Lymphocytes and monocytes
67
True or false: Degranulation is when a neutrophil engulfs a bacteria and its granules kill it
False; it's when a neutrophil uses exocytosis to release granules
68
True or false: Eosinophils don't engulf parasites, they just secrete stuff to kill them
True
69
Name a phagocyte other than neutrophils
Monocytes
70
What type of WBC is released while immature and settles into tissues?
Monocytes
71
What attacks infected cells, T lymphocytes or B lymphocytes?
T lymphocytes
72
What attacks invaders outside the cells, T lymphocytes or B lymphocytes?
B lymphocytes
73
Name 3 places where leukocytes can be produced
Bone marrow, lymph nodes, and tonsils
74
Leukemia is cancer of what two things?
WBCs and bone marrow
75
Pathogenic bacteria release _________ or __________ that disrupt or damage cells
enzymes or toxins
76
Viruses cause the body's defenses to attack what?
Hijacked cells
77
What part of innate immunity involves sequentially activated plasma proteins that attack pathogen plasma membranes?
Complement system
78
What part of innate immunity involves proteins that nonspecifically fight viruses?
Interferon
79
Name a nonspecific response to tissue injury
Inflammation
80
Inflammation recruits _________ and __________ to damaged tissue
phagocytes and plasma proteins
81
What does inflammation do to vasodilation/ constriction and vascular permeability?
Increases vasodilation and permeability
82
Which stage of inflammation causes edema?
Local IF volume increases due to leaked plasma proteins
83
9 abbreviated stages of inflammation
1) Local macrophages
2) Histamine + vasodilation
3) ^ capillary permeability > plasma proteins come
4) Increase IF volume > edema
5) Fibrin clot fighting arena for phagocytes and microbes
6) Neutrophils ^, then monocytes ^
7) WBCs keep killing microbes
8) Phagocytes release antibodies and cytokines (inflammatory mediators)
9) Tissue healing
84
Which WBC is released within an hour of innate immunity inflammation?
Neutrophils
85
What is a specialized group of 3 related cytokines released from virus infected cells called?
Interferon
86
What markedly enhances natural killer cells and binds with receptors on healthy neighboring cells?
Interferon
87
Which part of innate immunity creates large channels in invader membranes that makes their cell walls extremely leaky and unstable? What forms these?
Membrane Attack Complexes; formed by complement system
88
True or false? B and T lymphocytes within acquired immunity are circulating, waiting to attack their specific type of foreign material.
False
89
What are the two ways to activate the complement system?
Exposure to:
1) Foreign carbohydrate markers [on microbes] (innate immune response)
-Alternate complement pathway
2) Antibodies produced against a specific invader (adaptive immune response)
-Classical complement pathway
90
What involves a group of more than 30 plasma proteins and activates inflammatory mediators?
Complement system
91
Gamma globulins or immunoglobulins are also called what? Give examples
Antibody subclasses (ex: IgG, IgA, etc)
92
Improperly functioning cells (ex: cancer or virus infected) are recognized and attacked by ____ cells, while free existing invaders (ex: bacteria and some viruses) are recognized by ____ cells.
T cells; B cells
93
Which type of cells are able to create memory of specific antigen attacks?
B cells
94
When __________________ bind with an antigen, the cells differentiate into active plasma cells and some become dormant memory cells
B cell receptors
95
What antibody is found in secretions of digestive, breast milk, respiratory, urogenital systems?
IgA
96
What antibody is produced in early stages of plasma cell response?
IgM
97
What antibody is secreted copiously when body is re-exposed to antigen?
IgG
98
What antibody is an allergy mediator that helps against parasites?
IgE
99
The AIDS virus selectively invades which cells? (hint: makes up 60-80% of T cells)
Helper T cells
100
Vaccination is an example of _________ immunity
Active
101
Differentiate between primary and secondary response
Primary: 90% die of apoptosis after initial infection, 10% become memory T cells
Secondary: activation of memory T cells
