Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM


Top Flashcards (Certified)
All Flashcards

neuro > psychiatry > Flashcards

psychiatry Flashcards

(67 cards)

Start Studying
1
Q

schizotypal personality disorder

A

eccentric appearance, odd beliefs or magical thinking, interpersonal awkwardness

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

differential diagnosis of DSM-5 psychotic disorders

A

brief psychotic disorder, schizophreniform disorder, schizophrenia, schizoaffective disorder, delusional disorder

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

brief psychotic disorder

A

> 1 day and < 1 mo. , sudden onset with full return to function

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

schizophreniform disorder

A

> 1 mo. and < 6 mo, same symptoms as schizophrenia, functional decline not required

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

schizophrenia

A

> 6 mo (includes > 1 mo of active sx, can include prodromal and residual periods), requires functional decline

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

schizoaffective disorder

A

concurrent mood episode, active-phase sx of schizophrenia + at least 2 week lifetime history of delusions or hallucination in the absence of prominent mood symptoms

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

delusional disorder

A

one or more delusions > 1 mo, no other psychotic symptoms, normal functioning apart from direct impact of delusions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

how to distinguish b/w schizophreniform disorder and schizophrenia?

A

time! > 6 mo = schizophrenia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

viral encephalitis

A

most commonly HSV

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Lhermitte’s phenomenon

A

a shock-like sensation radiating to the feet with neck flexion, commly seen in MS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

common presenting signs and sx of myasthenia gravis

A

ptosis, diplopia, dysarthria, dysphagia, and fatigable chewing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

myasthenia is associated with which type of tumors?

A

thymoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

sporadic cancer

A

2 acquired mutations causing tumor formation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

hereditary cancer

A

1 acquired and 1 inherited mutation causing tumor formation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

hereditary retinoblastoma

A

germline mutations in one of the RB1 gene, associated with development of other primary tumors (such as osteosarcoma) later in life

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

septic arthritis

A

s. aureus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Failure of third and fourth pharyngeal arches

A

Di George Syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What will CD3 and CD20 values be for a person with Di George?

A

CD 20 = B cells and will be normal, CD3 = T cells and is reduced! due to hypoplastic or absent thymus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

CD3

A

B cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

CD 20

A

T cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

recurrent infections with catalase + organisms

A

NADPH oxidase deficiency causing CGD

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

metabolic derangements associated with DKA

A

metabolic acidosis, ketonemia, hyperglycemia, hyperkalemia, hyponatremia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

why not use b-blockers for HTN control in setting of cocaine OD and pheochromocytoma?

A

unopposed alpha stimulation could cause hypertensive crisis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

kernicterus

A

permanent neurological damage resulting from severe untreated hyperbilirubinemia in the neonatal period; grossly yellow discoloration of brain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
ondansetron
anti-emetic used by patients undergoing chemotherapy
26
SE of cisplatin
ototoxicity
27
drugs that can cause interstitial lung disease
amiodarone, nitrofurantoin, methotrexate, bleomycin
28
long-term prednisone associated with ___
cushing syndrome
29
misoprostol
PGE1 analog that can be used to help prevent and treat NSAID induced peptic ulcers by stimulating gastric epithelial cell mucus production
30
aspirin exacerbated airway disease
10% patients with asthma will develop nasal congestion or bronchospasm after ingesting aspirin or NSAIDs; increased diversion of AA down the 5-lipoxygenase pathway due to cyclooxygenase inhibition
31
most head and neck CA are what?
squamous cell carcinomas
32
what is this an example of: osteogenesis imperfecta can result from mutations affecting either of the genes coding for type 1 collagen
genetic heterogeneity
33
what is this an example of: not all patients with BRCA gene mutations develop breast cancer
incomplete penetrance
34
what is this an example of: family members affected by Marfan syndrome may present with a wide range of clinical symptoms despite harboring the same FBN1 gene mutation
variable expressivity
35
nitrates MOA
anti-ischemic effects of nitrates is mediated by systemic vasodilation (predominately venodilation) with a decrease in LEDV and wall stress, result = decreased myocardial oxygen demand despite a reflexive increase in HR
36
do nitrate directly affect cardiac chronotropy and/or inotropy?
NO
37
what is the role of CFTR in sweat glands?
reabsorb chloride from sweat fluid and enhance sodium reabsorption by ENaC; mutate this and more sodium and chlorine is found in sweat
38
CFTR is respiratory epithelium
secrete chloride into the lumen, inhibiting ENaC and decreasing luminal sodium absorption, result = hydrated mucous
39
mutated CFTR in respiratory epithelium
destroys electrolyte balance that normally keeps mucosal cells hydrated, result = thick, viscid secretion both low in sodium and chloride
40
Albright hereditary osteodystrophy
pseudohypoparathyroidism associated with short stature and short metacarpal and metatarsal bones
41
what is this an example of: all 3 patients have disease X but 3 different mutations of the same gene are identified that cause the disease
allelic heterogenity
42
epistasis
interactions between multiple genes that combine to create a new phenotype or mask/modify the phenotype of one of the gene
43
what is this an example of: patients with sickle cell anemia who also have a mutation causing persistence to high fetal hemoglobin levels often have a less severe clinical course
epistasis
44
indomethacin
to close PDA as it antagonized prostaglandin E2
45
leukotriene D4
made by eosinophils and mast cells; important role in bronchial asthma pathogenesis by inducing bronchospasm and increasing bronchial mucus secretion; anti-leukotriene rx like montelukast anatagonizes leukotriend D4
46
sx of ACTH dependent Cushing's syndrome
HTN, central obesity, thinning of the skin, moon facies
47
sx of Addison's disease (primary adrenal insufficiency)
elevated ACTH, hypoTN, hypolglycemia, hyponatremia, hyperkalemia
48
menkes disease
increased serum copper
49
hemochromatosis sx
liver disease with hepatomegaly, DM secondary to pancreatic islet destruction, arthropathy, pituitary hormone deficiencies, hyperpigmentation, and cardiomyopathy; dx > 40 y/o once accumulated enough iron
50
what organ can be affected by portal HTN?
spleen! since portal venous system is valve-less, blood flows back into splenic vein and congests red pulp or spleen leading to splenomegaly
51
most common causes of impetigo
s. aureus and GAS
52
bullous impetigo
s. aureus infection with toxin production
53
intraabdominal abscesses following abdominal trauma, surgery, gynecologic procedures
bacteroides fragillis
54
how may bacteria move abx out of cell?
efflux pumps paired with protons
55
gain of function point mutation of FGFR3 mutation making its inhibitory function constituitively active
achondroplasia; chromosome 4
56
COL1A1 gene mutation
osteogenesis imperfecta, defect in type 1 collagen and short stature; blue sclerae
57
FGFR3
achondroplasia
58
bruton agammaglobulinemia
intracellular messaging abnormality that results in recurrent infections; defective gene on X chromosome
59
androgen binding protein (ABP)
synthesized by Sertoli cells of seminiferous epithelium and secreted into the seminiferous tubule lumen; ABP maintains high local concentration of testosterone necessary for normal sperm production and maturation
60
LH
stimulate leydig cells to secrete testosterone
61
sertoli cells
stimulated by FSH to release APB which binds testosterone to keep testosterone local for promotion of spermatogenesis
62
how does glucagon confer message?
binds Gs GPCR on hepatocyte to increase cAMP which activates protein kinase A, which leads to activation of key enzymes involved in glycogenlysis and gluconeogenesis
63
red safranin O
colors cartilage, mast cell granules and mucin red
64
sphingomyelin
classically found in myelin sheath around nerve; neimann pick = defective degradation
65
connects the ovary to the wall of the pelvis
suspensory ligament
66
wide fold of peritoneum that connects the uterus to the pelvis
broad ligament
67
what are some structures included in the broad ligament?
round ligament, ovarian ligament, fallopian tube

neuro (34 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions