Review Flashcards
(129 cards)
1
Q
What is generativity in language?
A
The ability to combine words or symbols using rules of composition and syntax to communicate an almost infinite variety of ideas using a relatively small vocabulary.
2
Q
Define displacement in the context of language.
A
The ability to use language to convey messages that are not tied to the immediate context, communicating information about events in the past or future, or at some other location.
3
Q
What does semanticity refer to in language?
A
The extent to which a language uses symbols to represent ideas, events, and objects to transmit meaningful messages.
4
Q
What are phonemes?
A
The basic speech sounds in a language that distinguish one word from another.
5
Q
What are morphemes?
A
The smallest units of meaning within a language.
6
Q
What are free morphemes?
A
Morphemes that are meaningful on their own and can stand alone as words.
7
Q
What are bound morphemes?
A
Morphemes that are only meaningful when they are combined with other morphemes to form words.
8
Q
Define semantics.
A
The relationship between words and their meanings.
9
Q
What is syntax?
A
Grammatical rules of language for combining words to form phrases and sentences.
10
Q
What does pragmatics refer to?
A
The social rules of language that allow people to use the same language in different contexts.
11
Q
What is categorical perception?
A
The ability to ignore acoustic variability in speech sounds that are irrelevant to our native language while distinguishing phonemes in our own language.
12
Q
What is common ground in a conversation?
A
The set of knowledge that a speaker and listener share.
13
Q
Define audience design in language use.
A
Constructing statements to suit the audience’s knowledge.
14
Q
What percentage of everyday conversation is gossip?
A
60% to 70%.
15
Q
What is conversational coordination?
A
The ability to interactively align each other’s actions at different levels of language use.
16
Q
What is the lexicon in language?
A
Words and expressions.
17
Q
What is the social brain hypothesis?
A
The hypothesis that the human brain has evolved so that humans can maintain larger ingroups.
18
Q
What is linguistic intergroup bias?
A
The tendency for people to characterize positive behaviours by ingroup members and negative behaviours by outgroup members using more abstract expressions.
19
Q
What does the Sapir-Whorf hypothesis suggest?
A
A person’s language greatly influences their thoughts and behaviours.
20
Q
Define theory of mind.
A
The ability to reason about other people’s knowledge and beliefs and understand how those desires, intentions, and beliefs will relate to their actions.
21
Q
What is level 1 of the hierarchy of theory of mind?
A
Agents, recognizing goals, and intentionality.
22
Q
What is level 2 of the hierarchy of theory of mind?
A
Imitation, mimicry, synchrony, and mirror neurons.
23
Q
What is joint attention in the context of theory of mind?
A
The ability to share attention with another individual towards the same object or event.
24
Q
What are false belief tasks?
A
Tests used to determine theory of mind in children.
25
Fill in the blank: The ability to truly take another person's perspective is known as _______.
Mental State Inference.
26
What is the Container Test in false belief tasks?
A test where a child is shown a box of candies, then shown that it actually holds pencils, and asked what another person would expect to find in the box.
27
What is the Sally Anne Task?
A false belief task where a child observes Sally leaving her ball in a basket, Anne moving it to a box, and then predicting where Sally will look for the ball.
28
What is the family resemblance theory?
Part of typicality, Family Resemblance Theory – proposes that items are likely if they (a) have the features that are frequent in the category and (b) do not have features frequent in other categories o Suggests that things are typical because they have distinct characteristics unique to a category
29
What are Quantitative Changes in cognitive development?
Gradual, incremental change; can be hard to detect start and stop points for specific processes.
## Footnote
Also known as continuous development.
30
Who proposed the Stage Theory of cognitive development?
Jean Piaget
31
What is the Sensorimotor Stage and its age range?
Birth to 2 years; thinking realized through perceptions and physical interactions.
## Footnote
Involves sensory and motor functions.
32
What is the Object Permanence Task?
Infants below 9 months fail to search for an object removed from sight, acting as if it does not exist.
## Footnote
Indicates a lack of understanding of object permanence.
33
What is the age range for the Preoperational Reasoning Stage?
2 to 7 years
34
What characterizes the Preoperational Reasoning Stage?
Wide variety of symbolic-representation capabilities; thinking dominated by perception.
## Footnote
Language development occurs during this stage.
35
What are Conservation Problems in cognitive development?
Focus on one dimension resulting in transformation perceived as different in one or more aspects.
## Footnote
Example: A stack of coins perceived as fewer when spread out.
36
What is the age range for the Concrete Operational Reasoning Stage?
7 to 12 years
37
What defines the Concrete Operational Reasoning Stage?
Children can think logically with real or visible objects but struggle with systematic, scientific thinking.
38
What is the age range for the Formal Operational Reasoning Stage?
12 throughout the rest of life
39
What advanced abilities are attained in the Formal Operational Reasoning Stage?
Advanced reasoning power, often requiring formal education in scientific reasoning.
40
How can cognitive development be viewed in relation to stages?
As a potential stage, rather than necessary or guaranteed.
41
What are Qualitative Changes in cognitive development?
Large, fundamental change; distinct start and stop to stages or processes.
## Footnote
Also known as discontinuous development.
42
What evidence exists regarding cognitive development in relation to Piaget's Stage Theory?
Some evidence suggests cognitive development is more continuous than Piaget claims.
43
What can greatly influence when developmental changes occur in children?
Children’s specific experiences.
44
What do children with ASD display very early in life?
Reduced sensitivity to biological motion
## Footnote
This is correlated to reduced activity in the superior temporal sulcus (STS) area of the brain.
45
What is observed in people at increased genetic risk for ASD who do not develop the disorder?
Increased activity in the STS region
## Footnote
This increased activity is thought to be a mechanism to offset genetic vulnerability.
46
By what age do children with ASD show reduced attention to human faces?
6-12 months
## Footnote
This reduced attention is linked to decreased activity in the fusiform gyrus (FG) when viewing faces.
47
What do parents of children with ASD show regarding face processing?
Slowed processing of faces
## Footnote
This may indicate a potential genetic or environmental influence on social perception.
48
Psychoanalytic Therapy
Psychoanalytic Therapy - done through exploration of childhood experiences that may have continuing repercussions on one’s mental health over course of years
49
Cleckley's view on psychopathy
Outward appearance of good metal health, with symptoms of behavioural deviancy and impaired affect and social connectedness
- NOT characterized as inherently cruel, violent or dangerous
- greater emphasis on emotional coldness, aggression and predatory victimization
50
McCord and McCord view on psycopathy
Described the condition as a lack of remorse and lack of attachment capacity
51
Psychopathology testing in:
- Adult criminal offenders
- Noncriminal adults
- Children and adolescents
Adult criminal offenders:
- Psychopathic Checklist Revised (PCL-R):
* interview form, captures interpersonal-affective deficits and behavioural deviance (adaptive and maladaptive behaviour).
* high score = impulsive/aggressive, low empathy, Machiavellianism, lack of social connectedness, persistent violent offending
Noncriminal adults:
- Psychopathic Personality Inventory (PPI):
* Subscales on Fearless dominance (FD) and Self-centered impulsivity (SCI)
* Captures more adaptive features than PCL-R
Children and adolescents
- PCL-R to predict callous-unemotional traits (low empathy, deficient remorse/guilt, shallow affect, lack of concern about performance, etc)
- Antisocial Process Screening Device (APSD):
used with clinic referred children ages 6-13
* Measures Callous-Unemotional (CU) traits and Impulsive/Conduct Problems (I/CP)
* Children scoring high I/CP below avg intelligence, behavioural deviancy, inflated self importance
* Children high on both show avg or above avg intelligence, low anxiety/nervousness, reduced reactivity to stress, preference for novel and risky activities, learn less from punishment, more persistent violent behaviour
52
Ego-syntonic meaning
ppl comfortable with theirselves, dont wanna change (dont want treatment)
53
Antisocial Personality Disorder
- defined by specific symptoms of behavioural deviancy in childhood continuing into adulthood as a counterpart diagnosis to psychopathy in the early versions of the DSM
o E.g. fighting, lying stealing, truancy manifested as repeated rule-breaking, impulsiveness, irresponsibility, aggressiveness
o Provides limited coverage of interpersonal-affective symptoms considered essential to psychopathy
54
o Id – ______________________
o Ego – ____________________
o Superego – ______________________
o Id – represents pleasure-driven-unconscious urges
o Ego – a partially conscious part which mediates between the id and
superego
o Superego – a semi-conscious part of the mind where morals and societal
judgement are internalized
55
Transference – __________________
Countertransference – ___________________
Transference – patient displacing feeling for people in their life onto therapist
Countertransference – therapist displacing their own emotions onto the patient
56
The more adaptive elements of psychopathy are embodied in its ________ facet, entailing social poise, emotional stability, and enjoyment of novelty and adventure
Boldness
57
What is considered the "mask" element of psychopathy?
Boldness
58
What is antagonism (personalities)
Opposite of agreeableness
skeptical, cynical, sus, paranoid, cunning, manipulative, exploitative, selfish, greed,y opp, combative, confident, arrogent, ruthless, tough, boastful, etc
59
What is emotional stability the opposite of?
Neurotocism (emotional instability)
60
What is Avoidant Personality Disorder?
pervasive pattern of social inhibitiion, feelings of inadequacy, and hypersensitivity to negative evaluation as a combination of traits from **introversion**
61
What is Schizotypical Personality Disorder?
pervasive pattern of social and interpersonal deficits marked by acute discomfort with, and reduced capacity for, close relationships as well as perceptual distortion and eccentricities of behaviour including traits from **neurotocism, introversion, unconventionality, and antagonism**
62
what is unconventionality?
Openness is unconventionality
Closedness is conventionality
63
What is Histrionic Personality Disorder?
pervasive pattern of ecessive emotionality and attention seeking linked to **maladaptive extraversion**
64
which personality disorders have less empirical support ? more?
histrionic, schizoid and paranoid PD
whereas strong empirical suppro for borderline, antisocial and schizotypical PD
65
What is avoidant personality disorder? Vs antisocial personality disorder?
Avoidant:
- social inhibition
- feelings of inadequacy
- hypersensitivity to negative evaluation as a **combination of traits from introversion**
Antisocial:
- disregard and violation of rights of others
- behaviours may include aggressive or destructive acts including breaking the law, deceit, or theft **as a combination of traits from antagonism**
66
Schizotypical vs schizoid personality disorders
Schizoid:
- detachment from social relationships
- restricted range of expressive emotions in interpersonal settings
- combo of **introversive traits**
Schizotypical:
- social and interpersonal deficits
- discomfort with/reduced capacity for close relationships
- perceptual distortion
- eccentricities of behaviour
- traits from **neuroticism, introversion, unconventionality, and antagonism**
67
Cognitive Enhancement Therapy – aimed to improve cognition, functional outcome, and social cognition by protecting against __________
grey matter loss
68
Alogia
type of disorganized behaviour
reduction in the amount of speech produced
69
Diagnostic Criteria for Schizophrenia, describe Criteria A, B and C
**Criteria A**: two or more of the following symptoms (must have at least ONE of the first three)
- delusions
- hallucination
- disorganized speech
- disorganized behaviour
- negative symptoms (flat affect, amotivation, anhedonia, alogia)
**Criteria B**: pervasive pattern of major social or occupational dysfunction
**Criteria C** - continuous signs of disturbance persist for at least six months
- At least one monh mus include Criteria A symptoms
- Remaining time includes periods of prodromal or residual symptoms
70
Delusion vs hallucination
delusions - erroneous beliefs that involve a misinterpretation of perceptions or experiences
hallucination - experience of an external stimulus that isnt actually present in the world
71
Schizophreniform Disorder – ____________________
Schizoaffective Disorder – ____________________
Delusional Disorder – ____________________
Brief Psychotic Disorder – ___________________
Attenuated Psychotic Syndrome – ____________________
Schizophreniform Disorder – briefer version of schizophrenia
Schizoaffective Disorder – mixture of psychosis and mood disorder
Delusional Disorder – the experience of only delusions
Brief Psychotic Disorder – psychotic symptoms that last only a few days or weeks
Attenuated Psychotic Syndrome – individuals who show milder symptoms of psychosis and experience distress or disability because of these symptoms but do not meet diagnostic criteria for full-blown psychotic disorders
72
A major safety concern associated with tricyclic antidepressants is:
A. Increased risk of hypomania
B. Lethality in overdose
C. Tyramine-related hypertension
D. Serotonin syndrome
B. Lethality in overdose
73
MAOIs require dietary restrictions because:
A. They increase insulin levels
B. They interact with dairy to cause serotonin syndrome
C. Tyramine-rich foods can dangerously elevate blood pressure
D. They increase heart rate to unsafe levels
C. Tyramine-rich foods can dangerously elevate blood pressure
74
What is one of the main side effects of lithium treatment?
A. Seizures
B. Liver toxicity
C. Cognitive impairment and weight gain
D. Insomnia and appetite suppression
C. Cognitive impairment and weight gain
75
Deep brain stimulation and electroconvulsive therapy, used for what and how they work?
Biological methods of treatment for Major Depressive Disorder (MDD)
Deep Brain Stimulation – electrodes surgically implanted into the brain that
deliver pulses to disrupt neural activity
Electroconvulsive Therapy – apply brief electrical current to the brain to
induce a temporary seizure
▪ Effective for cases of severe depression
▪ Few side effects but some confusion and short-term memory loss
▪ Relapse is common so treatment cycles are necessary
76
Lithium does what
Pharmacological treatment for Bipolar Disorders
▪ Reduces levels of excitatory neurotransmitters like dopamine and glutamate
▪ Increases levels of inhibitory neurotransmitters like GABA
Side effects include cognitive impairment, nausea, tremor, weight gain, and fatigue
77
What is attributional style? What type of attributional styles fo ppl with major depressive disorder have (internal, global, vs stable attributions)?
The way in which individuals tend to infer the cause of behaviours or events
MDD ppl have pessimistic attribution styles
- Internal attributions "I didnt get into Harvard and its my fault"
- Global attributions "I didnt get into Harvard because Im stupid"
- Stable attributions "I didnt get into Harvard so I will never get into University"
78
Bipolar disorder I vs bipolar disorder II
Bipolar I Disorder – characterized by at least one **manic** episode, with **no depressive** episode necessary for diagnosis
Bipolar II Disorder – characterized by at least one **hypomanic** episode and at least **one depressive** episode
mania -> at least one week of symptoms
hypomania -> at least 4 days of symptoms
79
Interoceptive Avoidance – ____________________
Interoceptive Avoidance – avoidance of situations/activities that produce sensations of physical arousal similar to those occurring during a panic attack or intense fear response
80
Generalized anxiety disorder, how long and how often must it be occurring?
Must occur for at least six months, must be ongoing, happening more days than not and a good proportion of the day
81
___________ – involving a particular group of signs and symptoms
syndrome
82
Traitement Moral
created by Philippe Pinel (1745-1826) which was a therapeutic regimen of improved nutrition, living conditions, and rewards for productive behaviour following the release of mentally ill from restraints
83
Cathartic Method
– therapeutic procedure whereby a patient gains insight and emotional relief from recalling and reliving traumatic events
84
Animism
– belief that everyone and everything has a “soul” and that mental illness was due to spirits controlling an individual and their behaviour
85
Describe Type A vs Type B behaviour
Individual Behavioural Patterns
* Type A Behaviour – characterized by impatience, competitiveness, neuroticism, hostility, and anger
* Type B Behaviour – characterized by less competitive, aggressive, and hostile
behaviour
* Hostile individuals tend to get upset quickly, which strains their heart
* Hostile individuals tend to lack a supportive social network, impairing their ability to effectively cope with stressors
86
Self-Efficacy – ________________
Social Integration – ________________
Social Support – _________________
Self-Efficacy – the belief that one can adequately perform in a specific situation
Social Integration – size of social networks or number of social roles
Social Support – an individual’s social network that helps in times of need and provides a variety of useful resources
87
Proactive Coping – ________________
Stress Inoculation – ________________
Proactive Coping – used early to reduce or prevent future stressful events
Stress Inoculation – exposure to mild stressors to prepare more extreme stressors in the future
88
Health – not just the absence of disease or disorder, but _________________
Health – not just the absence of disease or disorder, but the complete state of physical, mental, and social well-being
89
Which neurotransmitter or neurochemical is directly associated with the inhibition of the fear system?
Benzodiazepines
90
Damage to which combination of brain regions would most likely impair fear conditioning?
A. Periaqueductal gray and nucleus accumbens
B. Amygdala and ventral hippocampus
C. Hypothalamus and dorsal preoptic area
D. Visual cortex and medial amygdala
B. Amygdala and ventral hippocampus
91
Which emotion system is most sensitive to disruptions in anticipated rewards?
A. Fear
B. Grief
C. Rage
D. Love
C. Rage
92
Describe for desire
The neural circuits:
Brain structures involved:
Neurotransmitters:
Desire:
- The Neural Systems of Reward Seeking
- Brain structures involved include the Lateral Hypothalamus, amygdala, nucleus accumbens, left frontal cortex
- dopamine creates excitement
- structures also sensitive to cocaine and amphetamines
93
Describe for liking
The neural circuits:
Brain structures involved:
Neurotransmitters:
Liking:
- The Neural Circuits of Pleasure and Enjoyment
- Neural circuits involved are different than the ones involved in desire and rewards
- Brain structures include nucleus accumbens and posterior half of the ventral pallidium
- sensitive to opioids and endocannabinoids
94
Describe for fear
The neural circuits:
Brain structures involved:
Neurotransmitters:
Fear
- Neural System for Freezing and Fleeing
- Brain circuit extends from the central amygdala to the periaqueductal gray in the midbrain
- sensitive to glutamate, corticotrophin-releasing factor, adreno-cortico-trophic hormone, cholecystokinin, and several different neuropeptides
- benzodiazepines and other tranquilizers inhibit activation
- damage to amygdala or ventral hippocampus interferes with this
95
Describe for rage
The neural circuits:
Brain structures involved:
Neurotransmitters:
Rage:
- The Circuits of Anger and Attack
- approach and attack
- can be evoked through frustration, physical pain, or physical restraint
- neural networks extend from medial amygdala, through parts of hypothalamus, and into periaqueductal gray of the midbrain
- **linked to appetitive circuits** - lack of anticipated reward can evoke rage
- testosterone, arginine-vasopressin, others involved but not well known
- opioids and high doses of antipsychotics inhibit this
96
Describe for love
The neural circuits:
Brain structures involved:
Neurotransmitters:
Love:
- The Neural Systems of Care and Attachment
- emotions that motivate nurturing behaviour
- distinct from those that motivate staying close to an attachment figure to receive care and protection
- brain structures include dorsal preoptic area and the bed nucleus of the stria terminalis, regions that overlap with sexual desire areas (sensitive to oxytocin, arginine-vasopressin, and endogenous opioids (endorphins and enkephalins))
97
Describe for grief
The neural circuits:
Brain structures involved:
Neurotransmitters:
Grief:
- The Neural Networks of Loneliness and Panic
- brain structures involved include attachment system which begins in midbrain periaqueductal gray (**near PHYSICAL PAIN response areas**), or the dorsomedial thalamus, ventral septum, dorsal preoptic region, and areas in the bed nucleus of the stria terminalis
- sensitive to endogenous opiates, oxytocin, and prolactin to prevent separation distress by producing feelings of pleasure
98
What is a reward value?
– neuropsychological measure of a drive state outcome’s
affective importance affecting motivation
▪ Can fluctuate based on the intensity of the drive state
99
Which of the following best represents the distinction between General Mental Ability (g) and Specific Ability?
A. General mental ability determines the area of achievement, while specific ability determines the level of achievement
B. General mental ability affects the breadth of skills; specific ability determines overall success
C. General mental ability influences magnitude; specific ability influences domain
D. Specific ability influences problem-solving, whereas general mental ability reflects motivation
C. General mental ability influences magnitude; specific ability influences domain
100
Which bias is most clearly illustrated when a person sticks with their initial salary expectation in a negotiation, despite strong evidence that it is unrealistic?
A. Overconfidence
B. Anchoring
C. Framing
D. Bounded awareness
B. Anchoring
101
What aspect of bounded ethicality might explain why someone fails to report unethical behavior in their workplace?
A. They are emotionally paralyzed by ambiguity
B. They are unaware of their own moral blind spots
C. They rationally weigh risk and reward
D. They use a logical heuristic to prioritize job security
B. They are unaware of their own moral blind spots
102
What do these mean:
Willpower is bounded
Self-interest is bounded
Willpower is bounded
o We tend to give greater weight to present concerns than future concerns
o Immediate motivations are often more influential than long-term interests
Self-interest is bounded
o We care about the outcomes of others
o We are willing to forgo our own benefits in order to help or harm others
103
Francis Galton did what
* First to study intelligence as a measurable construct
* Popularized the idea that heritability of psychological traits could be studied by comparing identical and fraternal twins
* Tracked the family tree of top-scoring Cambridge students over 40 years
104
Alfred Binet
Created an individual test to study the intellectual capacity of children along with
Theodore Simon
Developed the first IQ test, which he called the Binet-Simon Test
Intelligence Quotient (IQ) – score that ranks a person’s intellectual ability against
others
105
Lewis Terman
Developed the Stanford-Binet Test as an adapted version of the Binet-Simon test
Standardized the IQ test by referencing individual scores against normative scores
of the population
Plotted children’s IQ scores on a bell curve to demonstrate the normal distribution
Allowed for easy and reliable comparisons between individuals
* IQ = (Mental Age / Chronological Age) x 100
o Mental Age – the age level a person performs at
o Chronological Age – how many years old a person is
106
David Wechsler
* Developed the Weschler Adult Intelligence Scale (WAIS) from criticisms of the Stanford-Binet test
* Addressed a wider range of intellectual abilities, including people’s ability to remember, compute, understand language, reason well, and process information quickly
* Deviation IQ – IQ score that compares individuals to others in the same age group
* Accounted for the problem of people’s mental age stabilizing after childhood while their chronological age continues to increase
107
John Carroll & his stratums
Divided intelligence into three levels descending from most abstract to least
abstract
* Stratum III – g (general intelligence)
* Stratum II – subcategories like fluid intelligence, visual perception, and processing speed
* Stratum I – specific components of the above subcategories like spatial scanning, reaction time, and world fluency
108
Raymond Cattell
Fluid and crystallized intelligence
109
Howard Gardner
Theory of Multiple Intelligence (ppl learn in different ways): logic-math, visual-spatial, music-rhythm, verbal-linguistic, bodily-kinesthetic, interpersonal, intrapersonal, naturalistic
- not supported today as valid measures of intelligence
110
Ryff’s (1995) Model of Psychological Well-Being
Older adults tend to report higher environmental mastery and autonomy, lower personal growth and life purpose, and similar levels of positive relations with others as younger adults
111
Global Subjective Well-Being
Individuals’ overall perceptions of their own lives which can be influenced by age, health, personality, social support, and life experiences
112
Which of these traits typically **declines** with age and is associated with reduced performance in complex cognitive tasks?
A. Crystallized intelligence
B. Inhibitory functioning
C. Conscientiousness
D. Verbal fluency
B. Inhibitory functioning
113
Life course vs life span theories
Life Course Theories – focus on effects of social expectation and timing of events
nd social roles
o Consider lifelong cumulative effects of membership in generational cohorts and sociocultural subgroups and exposure to historical events
Life Span Theories – greater focus on processes within the individual, emphasizing
intra- and inter-individual differences
* Generally measured using longitudinal studies
114
Convoy Model of Social Relations –
proposes that accumulate social
connections are held together by mutual exchanges in social support which influence the well-being of givers and receivers
▪ Not always the actual support that is crucial, rather the perception that support is available if needed
115
Socioemotional Selectivity Theory
Looks at changes in motivation for actively seeking social contact with others
▪ With increasing age, motivational goals change from information gathering towards emotional regulation
116
Differential Susceptibility
model that suggests some genetic variations are riskier than others, but genetic variations may also make adolescents more/less susceptible to environmental factors
117
The feature of emerging adulthood known as "the self-focused age" is best described as:
A. A time of heavy family responsibilities
B. A period marked by intense career dedication
C. A phase of learning to become self-sufficient before committing to others
D. A time focused on romantic exploration and long-term relationship building
C. A phase of learning to become self-sufficient before committing to others
118
Patterson’s (1982) Early vs. Late Model
About agression and antisocial behaviour
Early starters are at greater risk for long-term antisocial behaviours
Late starters are theorized to experience poor parental monitoring and supervision contributing to increased involvement with deviant peers, promoting adolescents’ own antisocial behaviour
* Stop antisocial behaviour when changes in environment make other options more appealing
119
Moffitt’s (1993) Life-Course Persistent vs. Adolescent-Limited Model
about aggression and antisocial behaviour
Adolescent-limited antisocial behaviour results from “maturity gap” between dependence on and control by adults coupled with their desire to demonstrate freedom from adult constraint
* As privileges become available there are fewer incentives for antisocial behaviours
120
Adolescents’ positive and negative emotions more tied to ________ relationships than any other relationship at this time
romantic
121
Which of the following age ranges is most commonly used to define adolescence?
A. 5–12 years
B. 10–20 years
C. 15–25 years
D. 8–18 years
B. 10–20 years
122
Which attachment style is most often linked to abuse or neglect?
Insecure-disorganized
123
Coregulation
both the parent(s) and child recognize the child’s growing competence and accommodate for child’s sense of independence
Example: When Haley turned 16, she was allowed to get a job, drive her mother’s car, go to parties with her peers, and extend her curfew to 11 o’clock.
124
T or F: Development of attachments are biologically natural
True
125
Social Perception –
Initial stages in the processing of information that results in accurate and efficient appraisals of the emotions and intentions of others
o Foundational to more sophisticated social behaviours
126
Describe the levels of the hierarchy of the theory of mind.
Level 1:
- agents
- recognizing goals
- assessing intentionality
Level 2:
- imitation (mimicry (causes synchrony)
- mirror neurons
- automatic empathy
Level 3:
- Joint attention
- visual perspective taking
Level 4:
- projection
- simulation
Level 5:
- mental state inference
127
What are the different false belief tasks
Sets of tasks to determine TOM in kids
Container test: Candy Task
- child shown box of candies
- child asked what is in the box, they answer candy
- child shown the box acc has pencils
- child asked what someone else not in the room would expect to find in the box
- 3 yo would say pencils
- 4 yo would say candy
Displacement test: Sally Anne Task
- child watches Sally leave her ball in a basket
- when sally leaves the room, anne moves it into a box
- sally comes back, child asked where sally thinks the ball is
- 3 yo says the box
- 4 yo says the basket
128
Qualitative vs quantitative changes in cognitive development. Which is Piaget?
QuaNtitative: gradual, incremental change; can be hard to detect start and stop points for specific processes (aka coNtinuous development)
QuaLitative: arge, fundamental change; distinct start and stop to
stage/processes (aka discontinuous development)
- Piaget
129
