SHB Category: I, Diseases Flashcards
Pages 295-381 LEFT OFF PAGE 326 (250 cards)
1
Q
What is acute abdominal pain characterized by restlessness?
A
Colic
2
Q
What is the term for a defect in form or function that interferes with the usefulness of the horse?
A
Unsoundness
3
Q
What does the Coggins test determine?
A
If the horse is a carrier of equine infectious anemia (swamp fever)
4
Q
Stringhalt is most easily detected by what simple test?
A
Backing or sharply turning the horse
5
Q
What condition is a general term used to describe a variety of digestive disorders?
A
Colic
6
Q
What is the general term that indicates abdominal pain in horses?
A
Colic
7
Q
What is the most noticeable symptom of strangles?
A
Swelling of the lymph nodes
8
Q
What term means to give an animal (usually by injection) protection or immunity from a specific disease?
A
Vaccinate
9
Q
What is more critical: Heat exhaustion or heat stroke?
A
Heat stroke
10
Q
What condition is caused by an anaerobic organism that causes necrosis of the tissue of the frog and a foul, blackish discharge?
A
Thrush
11
Q
What is colic?
A
General term indicating abdominal pain
12
Q
What is the general term indicating abdominal pain?
A
Colic
13
Q
Heaves are caused by the inability to do what during the respiratory process?
A
Exhale or move air out of the lungs
14
Q
What is another term for founder?
A
Laminitis
15
Q
What do the letters EVR stand for?
A
Equine viral rhinopneumonitis
16
Q
What is another name for lockjaw?
A
Tetanus
17
Q
What term refers to defects in form or function that interfere with the usefulness of the horse?
A
Unsoundness
18
Q
What is the most common medical emergency in horses?
A
Colic
19
Q
What part of the horse becomes inflamed when founder attacks?
A
Laminae
20
Q
What is an acquired physical defect that does not interfere with the usefulness of the horse but may diminish its value?
A
Blemish
21
Q
Prolapse of the third eyelid is a characteristic of what equine disease?
A
Tetanus
22
Q
Name the condition that is the most common cause of acute pain in the horse’s abdomen.
A
Colic
23
Q
What is a split in the quarter area of the hoof wall?
A
Quarter crack
24
Q
What term is not a disease in itself but is clinical signs and symptoms of abdominal pain?
A
Colic
25
Name 4 of the internal parts of the horse that are affected and damaged by the EIA virus.
Kidneys, liver, spleen, lymph nodes, bone marrow, brain
26
Describe 6 symptoms of a horse in shock.
Apathy, prostration, rapid breathing, cool skin, low/falling blood pressure, subnormal temperature, sweating, rapid-shallow pulse, pale or blue mucous membranes
27
In reference to wound care, name 4 purposes of a bandage.
Immobilize wound to aid healing, keep wound clean, protect from infection, keep medicine on/in wound, protect from further trauma, reduce swelling, control hemorrhage
28
What is the more common term for borreliosis?
Lyme disease
29
What virus causes rhinopneumonitis?
Herpes
30
WHat type of colic is a blockage of the internal tract with normal ingesta or with foreign material?
Impaction colic
31
Where do most snakebites occur on horses and why?
On their heads because they are so curious
32
What is the visual symptom of exercise induced pulmonary hemorrhage?
Epistaxis
33
What is a lower respiratory infection located in the bronchi?
Bronchitis
34
Which teeth are most commonly infected?
Premolars and first molars
35
Name the organ in the horse's body that is affected by heaves.
Lungs
36
What genetic disease results from a failure to produce blood clotting factor causing bleeding into joints and the development of hematomas?
Hemophilia A
37
What is pathogenicity?
Proportion of animals exposed to a virus that will develop the disease
38
What is a chronic, purulent, deep-seated inflammatory swelling of the lateral cartilage?
Quittor
39
What type of colic is caused by a loop intestine becoming entrapped within a normal or abnormal structure within the abdominal cavity?
Incarceration colic
40
Which genetic disease results from a failure to form certain types of nerves in the intestinal tract causing foals to die of colic within several days after birth?
Lethal white foal syndrome
41
What type of Equine Encephalomyelitis has the lowest mortality rate?
Western
42
What is grating movement such as would occur in broken bones?
Crepitation
43
Which viral respiratory disease in horses can also cause abortion?
Equine viral rhinopneumonitis
44
What term describes accumulation of fluid within compartments of the brain, resulting in crushing of normal brain tissue?
Hydrocephalus
45
What are the 2 types of equid herpes virus associated with rhinopneumonitis?
Equid herpes virus 1 and 4
46
What term describes openings in the body wall at the naval that does not close normally, resulting in the presence of a sack into which intestines may fall?
Umbilical hemia
47
In bleeders, where does the blood originate?
Lungs
48
What is the scientific name for overheating?
Hyperthermia
49
What piece of equipment is used in preventing capped elbow?
Doughnut
50
What are 2 abnormalities of the jawbone?
Parrot mouth (overshot jaw) and Monkey mouth (undershot jaw)
51
What is the normal capillary refill time?
2 seconds or less
52
What type of colic is similar to simple indigestion in people?
Spasmodic colic
53
WHat is the most common cause of abdominal pain?
Parasite obstruction
54
During what time of the year do most cases of Potomac Horse Fever occur?
Summer (July, August, and early September)
55
What is the most common example of incarceration colic?
Strangulating hernia
56
Name 2 causes of a shoe boil.
Injury from heel calk and injury from contact with the floor
57
What is usually the mildest and most common type of colic?
Spasmodic colic (Although it can be severe)
58
What term describes an inflammation of bone?
Osteitis
59
What is the cause of the most complicated and life threatening form of colic?
Ingestion of excessive grains which distends the stomach
60
What is a degenerative condition of the frog?
Thrush
61
What term describes a cloudiness of the lens of the eye resulting in blindness?
Cataracts
62
What condition is a dysfunction or partial paralysis of the larynx such that it does not open completely when the horse inspires?
Laryngeal hemiplegia (roaring)
63
What is the most common term for metastatic abscessation, which occurs in the lungs, mesentery, liver, spleen, and kidneys and is a complication of strangles?
Bastard strangles
64
What disease is caused by a virus closely related to the human immunodeficiency virus and is characterized by fever, anemia, jaundice, depression, edema, and chronic weight loss?
EIA (equine infectious anemia)
65
What is another name for lyme disease in horses?
Borreliosis
66
What is a condition that affects some of the offspring produced by mating 2 overo paint horses?
Lethal white foal syndrome
67
WHy shouldn't a collicky horse that is having trouble urinating be given a diuretic?
Could cause dehydration
68
Heaves develop gradually and the clinical signs are most commonly seen in horses of what ages?
5 years and older
69
WHat is the only breed to have CID (Combined immunodeficiency)
Arabians
70
What term is used to grade the severity of lameness in horses?
Obel grade
71
What is another name for hives?
Uticaria
72
A pounding digital pulse, warm feet, 'camped in front' stance and an abnormal gait are all signs of what problem?
Founder (laminitis)
73
What are the 2 distinct types of equine influenza A viruses?
A Equine 1 and A Equine 2
74
WHat term describes a disturbance in the circulation and bond of sensitive laminae to the hoof and is usually caused by gastrointestinal disturbances?
Laminitis (Founder)
75
What is a protrusion of a piece of the intestines into the scrotum?
Scrotal hernia
76
WHat are radiographs?
X-rays
77
What is inflammation of structures of a joint?
Arthritis
78
WHen you are taking the vital signs of a horse, what does TRP refer to?
Temperature, pulse, and respiration
79
What is dourine?
Venereal disease of the horse
80
WHat is an acute and progressive failure of the peripheral circulation to the outer limbs of the body?
Shock
81
WHat is a dynamic process in which the body responds to a sublethal injury by trying to destroy, dilute, or wall of an irritation agent?
Inflammation
82
What are the white spots called that occur in the inner surface of the external ear?
Aural placques
83
In what breed is Equine Night Blindness most predominant?
Appaloosa
84
What is the disease of Quarter horses that is characterized by intermittent attacks of muscle weakness, disorientation, tremors, and convulsion?
HYPP (Hyperkalemic Periodic Paralysis)
85
A skin pinch test and capillary refill time of 10 seconds is an indication of what problem?
Dehydration
86
What happens when the lacrimal duct is plugged?
Tears from the horse's eye pour onto the face
87
What condition can be alleviated by resting the animal, providing fresh air, and eliminating dust?
Heaves (COPD)
88
What breed is usually affected by Hyperkalemic Periodic Paralysis?
Quarter horse
89
What term describes a disease of a muscle?
Myopathy
90
Which one of the 2 bones of the forearm is most likely to break?
Ulna
91
What is the test used to detect equine infectious anemia?
Coggins
92
What is unusually high levels of fat in the blood?
Hyperlipemia
93
What are the 2 types of laminitis?
Acute and chronic
94
Which condition is similar to a severe blood blister under a human fingernail?
Laminitis
95
What deformity is an accumulation of fluids in the brain resulting in the crushing of the brain tissue?
Hydrocephalus
96
What genetic disorder is a cloudiness of the lens of the eye, resulting in blindness?
Cataracts
97
Name the most severe and the least severe diseases affecting the hoof.
Least severe-thrush
| Most severe-Laminitis
98
WHere on the body to papillomas usually occur?
Nose and lips
99
What is an infectious disease of the nervous system caused by the toxin clostridium tetani?
Tetanus
100
What is another name for blind staggers?
Selenium poisoning
101
What is a pus pocket or an infection of the sensitive structures of the foot?
Abscess
102
What is a specific type of sole bruises in the heel area of the foot>
Corns
103
What does EVA stand for?
Equine Viral Arteritis
104
What causes a dropped sole?
Downward rotation of the coffin bone
105
What does DOD stand for?
Developmental Orthopedic Disease
106
What is a destruction of the frog by anaerobic bacteria and usually has a foul smell and black discharge?
Thrush
107
Incised wounds, lacerations, tears, punctures, penetrating wounds, and abrasions can all be classified as what?
Open wounds
108
What are the 2 types of poultices, and when do you use them?
Hot poultice-either to increase blood supply, draw out an infection, or encourage an abscess to open.
Cold poultice-decrease inflammation
109
What does the bacteria, Streptococcus Equi, cause?
Strangles (distemper)
110
What problem is compared to nail or bone bruises in humans?
Sole bruises
111
What disease is often compared to athletes foot in humans?
Thrush
112
What is another name for a tumor?
Neoplasm
113
Melanomas are most common in horses of what color?
Gray, by age 15 almost all gray horses have a melanoma
114
A skin pliability test is used to check for what?
Dehydration
115
What is another name for ringworm?
Girth itch
116
WHat is another name for heaves?
Chronic alveolar emphysema
117
What term describes a failure to produce blood clotting factor, bleeding into joints, and the development of hematomas?
Hemophilia A
118
WHat term describes the defect in movement of sodium and potassium in and out of muscle, causing the animal to have intermittent attacks of muscle weakness, tremors, and collapse?
HYPP (Hyperkalemic Periodic Paralysis)
119
How long can a horse be infected with EIA or swamp fever?
Rest of its life
120
Name the horse disease that can be detected in seemingly healthy horses by giving them a coggins test.
Equine Infectious Anemia
121
Wat is the laboratory blood test for the presence of antibodies against the Equine Infectious Anemia virus?
Coggins test
122
HYPP is a genetic disease of the Quarter horse in which there is a defect prohibiting what 2 things from moving in and out of the muscles correctly?
Sodium and potassium
123
What disorder is considered to be a wound disease?
Tetanus
124
What term describes a preventative injection of bacteria or viruses that have been modified or inactivated to protect the horse against certain diseases?
Vaccination
125
What is the condition where the frog is narrow and shrunken and the heels of the foot are pulled together?
Contracted heels
126
Give 2 examples of why you would use a hot poultice.
To increase blood supply to an injured area, to draw out infection from an abscess or puncture wound
127
In which condition does cerebrospinal fluid accumulate, causing the foal's head to enlarge before birth?
Hydrocephalus
128
Name the most common lameness in horses.
Laminitis (founder)
129
Name the disease caused by streptococcus equi.
Strangles (distemper)
130
Name the genetic disease of foals caused by a deficiency of B and T lymphocytes.
Combined immunodeficiency syndrome
131
Where is the inflammation when a horse has pleurisy?
In the membranes surrounding the lungs
132
What is the term fro the examination performed on sale horses by the buyer's veterinarian prior to the sale's final approval?
Pre-purchase exam
133
Describe a thoroughpin.
Soft, fluid filled enlargement in the hollow on the outside of the hock. It can be pushed freely from the outside to the inside.
134
The salivary glands can become the site for an acute contagious bacterial infection called what?
Strangles (distemper)
135
What is an enlarged dorsal swelling of the tarsocrural joint capsule?
Bog spavin
136
What is the swelling of the subcutaneous bursa over the calcaneal tuber caused by repeated blows such as those from kicks against a trailer tailgate?
Capped hocks
137
What causes Potomac Horse Fever?
Rickettsia Ehrlichia
138
Name 2 of the most common problems concerning a newborn foal's bowel movements.
Constipation and diarrhea.
139
Horses that are shown or mixed with other horses during the year should be given at least what 5 vaccinations?
Eastern and Western encephalomyelitis, tetanus, influenza, rhinopneumonitis, potomac horse fever
140
Septicemia in the foal is often caused by bacteria entering the blood stream. What is the common route of the infection?
Umbilical cord
141
What is enteritis?
Inflammation of the intestines
142
If a veterinarian said that your horse has scratches, what area would be affected?
Fetlock and/or heel area
143
Tetanus is caused by what bacteria?
Clostridium tetani
144
Equine encephalomyelitis is caused by what insect?
Mosquito
145
Strangles usually affects a horse between what ages?
1-5 years
146
What is a venereal disease that is characterized by pus or fluid coming from the uterus?
Contagious equine metritis
147
What is excessive breathing noise during exercise caused by upper airway obstruction?
Roaring
148
What is the most common vector for transmission of equine encephalomyelitis?
Mosquitos
149
What problem would be suspected if your horse's back cannon area was sore to the touch, hot, swelling, and had a tendency to flex in the knee in order to raise the heel and relieve pressure?
Bowed tendon
150
What is the term used when EVR (equine rhinopneumonitis) causes a high percentage of mares on one farm to abort?
Abortion storm
151
Name the bacterial disease that may cause abscessed lymph nodes under the lower jaw and in the throatlatch region.
Strangles (distemper)
152
What is the destruction of the frog by anaerobic bacteria called?
Thrush
153
Selenium deficiency can cause muscles to become very pale in young foals. This disease is called what?
White muscle disease (muscular dystrophy)
154
Which type of colic is considered to be the mildest and most common?
Spasmodic
155
What is another term for grease heel?
Scratches
156
Where would you find osselets?
Fetlock joint
157
What is bradycardia?
Slower than normal heart beat
158
What is an acute upper respiratory tract infection caused by a specific herpes virus that may cause abortions and all ages of horses are susceptible?
Equine Viral Arteritis
159
How do horses get rabies?
Bitten by infected rabid wildlife
160
What is an inflammation of the distal intertarsal, tarsometatarsal, and sometimes the proximal intertarsal joints and the surrounding bone, resulting in excess bone formation?
Bone spavin
161
Classifications of ringbone depend on the location of the new bone growth. What are the 2 classifications?
High and low
162
Any injury to the navicular bone of the front foot is called what?
Navicular disease
163
What is an incomplete development of an organ so that it fails to reach adult size?
Hypoplasia
164
What condition is characterized by sudden, brief attacks of sleep?
Narcolepsy
165
What is a bone enlargement or destruction to the inner surface of the hock?
Bone spavin
166
What disorder results from an infection by Sarcocystis neurona or Neospora hughesi protozoa that causes inflammation of the brain and spinal cord and can be traced to the opossum?
Equine protozoal myeloencephalitis (EPM)
167
What do the initials, NSAID stand for?
Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug
168
When referring to the process of a disease, what does 'acute' mean?
Symptoms appear quite suddenly
169
What is the trade-name for flunixin meglumine?
Banamine
170
A horse with chronic founder may not show pain, but how will it move?
In a heel to toe step
171
If your horse gets cut on a sharp metal object, what type of wound would this most likely be?
Incision
172
Name the breed that is most affected by CIDS.
Arabian
173
What is an inflammation of the epiphyseal cartilage plate of the long bones?
Epiphysitis
174
What is an atrophy of the muscles in the shoulder due to paralysis of the suprascapular nerve?
Sweeney
175
What is the technical term for heaves?
Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease
176
What problem can cause a horse to shorten his stride, go up on his toes, have increased tendency to stumble, and results from any injury to the distal sesamoid bones?
Navicular disease
177
What is 'Big Head' disease caused by?
Excessive phosphorous and low levels of calcium
178
Name the unsoundness that is manifested by a chronic, purulent, inflammatory swelling of the lateral cartilage resulting in sub-coronary abscesses.
Quittor
179
What is an artificially produced drug which is similar to the natural hormone that controls inflammation?
Steroid
180
What is any inflammation of the periosteum?
Periostitis
181
What is any inflammation or swelling of the soft tissue of the hock?
Bog spavin
182
Name a disease of the horse's foot, characterized by a putrid dark or black discharge.
Thrush
183
How is the rabies virus transmitted to humans and horses?
Through the saliva when bitten by an infected animal
184
What is the progressive degeneration of the navicular bone?
Navicular disease
185
What ligament attaches to the back of the cannon bone just below the knee, travels downward, and splits above the sesamoid bones with each part connecting to a sesamoid bone?
Suspensory ligament
186
Name the organ whose disorder causes a jaundice appearance.
Liver
187
What is a blood disorder caused when toxic oxidants, such as those contained in onions or red maple leaves, damage the body's red blood cells, producing microscopic round granules known as Heinz bodies?
Heinz body anemia
188
What is bleeding into the angle of the sole of the hoof or adjacent white line in response to chronic pressure or shearing force?
Corn
189
What is another name for popped knee?
Carpitis
190
What is any agent that increases urine production?
Diuretic
191
What is a diagnostic test that involves draining fluid from the abdominal area using a hypodermic needle?
Belly tap
192
What is usually fatal food poisoning from contaminated feed or water characterized by paralysis that begins with the muscles of swallowing?
Botulism
193
What is high frequency sound waves used to break down unwanted tissue and promote healing by stimulating circulation and aid in accurate diagnosis?
Ultrasound
194
What is a type of antibody found in blood, colostrum, and most secretions and is an important part of the body's immune mechanism?
Immunoglobulin
195
What is a shortage of red blood cells, commonly caused by excessive bleeding, infection, dietary deficiency, or presence of toxins in the body?
Anemia
196
What is a flexible tube inserted into a body opening to remove or administer fluids?
Catheter
197
What is Xylazine used for?
Sedative/analgesic widely used to calm horses
198
What is a defect in form or function that interferes with the usefulness of a horse?
Unsoundness
199
Where is septicemia frequently located?
In the joints
200
What term describes an inflammation of the stifle joint?
Goritis
201
Sidebones are more common in what type of horses?
Draft breeds
202
Side bones are more common in horses that have what conformation defects?
Toe in or out
203
A deficiency of what 2 lymphocytes has been found in some Arabian foals and causes death from Combined Immunodeficiency Syndrome?
B and T Lymphocytes
204
In what area of the horse wold goritis occur?
Stifle
205
What is the condition called when the lower jaw is shorter than the upper jaw?
Parrot mouth or overshot jaw
206
What is the more common term for laryngeal hemiplegia?
Roaring
207
What is epiphysitis?
Inflammation of the epiphyseal cartilage plate (growth plates) of the long bones
208
What is another name for foal septicemia?
Naval ill
209
What is the usual cause of Sweeney?
Usually caused by a direct injury to the point of shoulder & subsequent damage to the nerve
210
What is a heredity defect in the clotting mechanism of the blood called?
Hemophilia
211
What is a partial or complete esophageal obstruction?
Choke
212
What is another term for nosebleed?
Epistaxis
213
Inadequate amounts of iron in the diet can result in which condition?
Anemia
214
What does the suffix "oma" refer to?
Tumor or neoplasm
215
What is a therapeutic shoe in which the heels are joined by a bar, allowing greater pressure on the bar & frog of the foot?
Bar shoe
216
Equine viral rhinopneumonitis (EVR) is caused by what type of virus?
Herpes virus
217
Swelling under the skin caused by leakage of blood from damaged vessels are called what?
Hematoma
218
What 3 vaccines should you give performance horses annually?
Tetanus, encephalomyelitis & rabies
219
What type of wound has clean straight edges & often bleeds quite freely?
Incised wound (Incision)
220
Name 2 types of wounds that have torn rather than cut edges, may be irregular in shape & may have some associated bruising.
Laceration & tears
221
What is thrush compared to in humans?
Athlete's foot
222
What type of wound is characterized by a small skin opening with soft-tissue penetration to a variable depth?
Puncture wound
223
What type of wound enters into one of the body cavities, such as the thorax or abdomen, are
very serious & may or may not injure internal organs?
Penetrating wound
224
What type of wound is a very superficial skin wound resulting from rubbing or scraping
against an irritant surface?
Abrasion
225
In treating a wound, what is the first step to be taken?
Stop the bleeding
226
What type of wound is characterized by swelling, heat & pain at the site of injury &
discolorations of the overlying skin?
Contusion
227
What does COPD stand for?
Chronic Obstructive Pulmonary Disease
228
A horse suffering from acute laminitis will have a pounding pulse, where can this be felt?
Over the fetlock joint in the digital artery
229
What is the name given to pain in the area of the navicular bone & may involve inflammation
of the navicular bursa, ligament sprains, cartilage or tendon destruction & bone changes?
Navicular disease
230
What is a disturbance in the circulation & bond of the sensitive laminae of the bone to the
horny laminae of the hoof?
Founder or laminitis
231
If a horse becomes ill with a potentially contagious disease, it should be promptly isolated
from the remainder of the herd for how long?
At least 10 days beyond complete recovery
232
What disease is caused by a spore-forming, toxin-producing bacterium which is present in
the intestinal tract & feces of humans, horses & other animals & is abundant in the soil on all horse facilities?
Tetanus
233
What is an infrequently encountered neurologic disease of horses which results when horses
are bitten by infected wildlife?
Rabies
234
Where on the horse are most bites located that are caused by rabid animals?
Muzzle, face & lower legs
235
Potomac Horse Fever is a seasonal disease, with most cases occurring in which months of
the year?
July, August & September
236
The 'golden period' for the elapsed time from injury to closure by suturing is generally
considered to be how long?
About 6 hours
237
What is an infection that penetrates the white line of the sole & travels under the hoof wall
between the sensitive & insensitive laminae until it abscesses at the coronet?
Gravel
238
What is the roll placed around the horse's pastern to prevent capped elbow or shoe boils?
Doughnut
239
What are the 2 most dangerous locations for wounds in regards to hemorrhage control?
Lower part of neck (jugular vein & carotid artery), & sides of the pastern (digital arteries)
240
What is a condition where the hoof wall separates at the toe?
Seedy toe
241
Where would you find conjunctivitis?
In the eye
242
What is the most common cause of colic?
Parasites
243
Calcification of the lateral cartilages of the third phalanx or coffin bone is called what?
Sidebones
244
What is the term for a soft, fluid-filled enlargement in the hollow on the outside of the hock?
Thoroughpin
245
What is the medical term for inflammation of the pedal (coffin) bone?
Pedal osteitis
246
What is conjunctivitis?
An irritation of the eye
247
What are the 3 types of encephalomyelitis?
Eastern, Western & Venezuelan
248
What condition is caused by an incompatibility of blood groups between a mare & foal?
Neonatal isoerthryolsis (jaundice foal, isohemolytic icterus or NI)
249
What are fecaliths?
Balls of ingesta containing a small unnatural object (rock hard mineral accumulations in the
horse's gut)
250
What is another name for an intravascular clot?
Thrombus
