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Flashcards in Slaughter 2 Deck (100)
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1

What does the EU health mark signify?

That food has been produced to current standards of hygienic food production in licensed premises and allows food to be traced back to those premises

2

On what products is the EU health mark required?

All animal products for human consumption e.g. milk

3

What information is included on the EU health mark?

- Country
- Producer
- European Community (EC)

4

Outline the Third Country approval procedure

- National authority submits formal request
- Must include: type of animal/product, anticipated volume of trade, main importing EU countries, class of animals, description of minimum treatment, number and type of establishments considered to meet EU requirements
- Questionnaire sent to and filled out by National Authority
- Bilateral contracts between NA and Commission
- On the spot inspection organised with FVO
- Report of inspection sent to NA, Commission, EU parliament, Member States
- Draft legislation to add 3d country
- Proposed legislation adopted by Commission

5

What is the purpose of Third Country approval for imports

Ensure animal products imported have been produced under the same legislation and to the same standard as in EU countries

6

Who has the responsibility for the health, welfare and food hygiene in the slaughterhouse?

The processing company

7

What is the Clean Livestock Policy?

- Policy that applies to sheep and cattle
- Ensures farmer has the responsibility to bring only clean and dry animals to slaughter

8

What happens to animals that are identified as not fit for slaughter on AMI?

Are killed but disposed of as ABP

9

What are the requirements regarding slaughter of TB reactors?

- Must be sent to specific approved slaughterhouses
- Following their slaughter need to clean and disinfect the processing area
- Place at end of processing line

10

Outline the responsibilities of the FBO

- Ensure all animals presented to OV
- Ensure only healthy animals accepted for human slaughter
- Identification of animals (match to passports and FCI)

11

Why can animals that are DOA not enter the human food chain?

No AMI was carried out

12

What are the requirements to enable animals to be accepted into the slaughterhouse?

- Proper ID
- Accompanied by relevant information
- No movement restrictions (unless permitted by Competent Authority)
- Clean and healthy
- Satisfactory welfare

13

What must be done if requirements for entry into slaughterhouse are not met?

- FBO must notify OV
- Use isolation facilities for suspect animals

14

What are the roles of the OV in the slaughterhouse?

- Verify FBO compliance
- AMI
- PMI in certain conditions

15

How is cleanliness of animals assessed in slaughterhouses?

- Visual inspection
- Categorised 1-5

16

Describe the appearance and consequences for a category 1 cleanliness animal

- Dry, clean with regard to dung/dirt
- Very minor amounts of loosely adherent straw/bedding
- Accepted for slaughter without any special treatment

17

Describe the appearance and consequences for a category 2 cleanliness animal

- Slightly dirty, dry/damp
- Light contamination with dirt/dung
- Small amounts of loosely adherent straw/bedding
- Accepted for slaughter without special treatment

18

Describe the appearance and consequences for a category 3 cleanliness animal

- Dirty
- Dry/damp
- Significant contamination with dirt/dung
- Significant amounts of adherent straw/bedding
- rejected for slaughter except in exceptional circumstances e.g. animal welfare grounds, disease control reasons

19

Describe the appearance and consequences for a category 4 cleanliness animal

- Very dirty
- Dry/damp
- Heavily contaminated with dirt/dung
- Significant amounts of adherent bedding
- Should not enter production line
- Rejected for slaughter except in exceptional circumstances e.g. animal welfare disease control reasons
- May have procedures in place to allow slaughter e.g. placing last in slaughter line, slow line to allow staff cleaning between animals, minimise splashing

20

Describe the appearance and consequences for a category 5 cleanliness animal

- Filthy, wet
- Very heavy contamination with dirt/dung
- Lots of adherent bedding
- Rejected for slaughter, should not be unloaded and sent back to farm, should not have been sent to slaughter

21

What are the aims of AMI?

- Establish fitness for human consumption
- Notifiable disease surveillance
- Animal welfare monitoring

22

What happens if notifiable disease or welfare issue on farm is suspected?

APHA informed

23

What happens if welfare issue during transport is suspected?

Trading Standards Agency informed

24

What is required by the OV in order to carry out the AMI effectively?

- Light
- Space
- Facilities
- Assistance
- Time
- Proper equipment (PPE, torch, thermometer, stethoscope)

25

Give examples of notifiable diseases that may be identified on AMI in cattle

- Anthrax
- Aujeszky's
- BSE
- Bluetongue
- Brucellosis
- Enzootic bovine leukosis
- FMD
- Lumpy skin disease
- Rift valley fever
- Rinderpest
- bTB
- Vesicular stomatitis
- Warble fly

26

Outline the considerations when pneumonia is suspected on AMI

- In cow: discharge from nostrils, foaming at mouth
- Some respiratory distress
- Should not have been transported
- Withdrawal period from drugs a concern
- Emaciation may occur with systemic disease
- May have had special certification to allow travel
- First in line to minimise standing time

27

Outline the considerations following finding of ringworm on AMI

- Common in cattle
- Only an issue as potential zoonotic infection via contact
- Nothing of major concern on AMI

28

Outline the considerations following identification of orf on AMI

- Zoonotic by contact
- Extensive/advanced disease highlights welfare issue on farm
- Likely to be associated with emaciated animal
- Report to APHA and trading standards if extensive and causing welfare issue

29

Outline considerations followig sudden death at slaughterhouse

- Anthrax
- May also be electrocution, clostridial disease
- May be zoonotic
- Report to APHA
- Blood test from ear

30

What test is used to identify anthrax?

Staining of blood sample with polychromemethylene blue (violet pink surrounded by pink halo indicates anthrax)

31

Outline the considerations following identification of ulcerations and degeneration of tissue in the mouth of cattle/sheep on AMI

- Potentially FMD
- Notify APHA
- Sheep lesions not as evident as in cattle

32

Outline the considerations following identification of ulcerations in pigs mouth/snout

- Could be FMD or vesicular disease
- Appear the same clinical
- Notify APHA

33

Outline the considerations following identification of neurological signs on AMI

- Scrapie/BSE potential, notify APHA
- Also trading standards as should not have been transported
- Potential for Listeria (zoonotic)
- Aujeszky's disease (exotic to UK, notify APHA)

34

Describe the clinical signs of Listeria

- Abortion at end of pregnancy
- Paralysis
- Salivation
- Tongue out to side of mouth

35

Outline the considerations following identification of lesions in mouth, swollen tongue and haemorrhage under the skin on AMI

- Bluetongue potential
- Most signs are non-pathognomic so need to consider time of year ad place of origin

36

Outline the considerations following identification of Actinomyces on AMI

- Can lead to emaciation
- Welfare issue
- Potentially zoonotic
- Only head needs to be rejected
- No need to notify APHA and Trading standards

37

Outline the considerations following identification of emaciation on AMI

- Unfit for slaughter, rejection
- Potential referral to APHA and Trading Standards (welfare issue)

38

Outline the considerations following identification of a severely lame animal on AMI

- Kill in situe, cannot be moved to stunning box
- Emergency slaughter so AMI still required
- Contact APHA and Trading standards

39

Outline the consideration following identification of abnormal growths/malformations on AMI

- If able to stand/walk independently and no signs of generalised infection, refer to APHA after death of animal for investigation
- Slaughter permitted with partial rejection where no signs of systemic infection
- Where systemic infection indicated, entire carcass rejection

40

What is the purpose of the PMI?

- Supplement AMI
- Detect diseases, residues, contaminant
- Identification of other conditions rendering unfit for human consumption
- Animal welfare

41

What legislation pertains to PMI?

- EC 853/2004 (FBO standards)
- EC 854/2004 (purpose, procedures, decisions)

42

Who is the PMI carried out by?

- FBO
- MHI
- OV in special circumstances

43

In what circumstances may an OV carry out the PMI?

- Emergency slaughter
- Unusual conditions
- Where contacted by MHI during PMI

44

What are the broad features of the PMI?

- Individual inspection of
- Head (cattle only)
- Offal (spit into green and red)
- Carcass

45

What is included in "green" offal?

Intestines and stomach

46

What is included in "red" offal?

Lungs, heart, liver

47

What should be taken into account during a PMI?

- AMI results
- All external surfaces
- FCI
- Whole carcass and accompanying offal

48

What are the potential outcomes of the PMI?

- Pass meat as fit for human consumption
- Declare meat unfit for human consumption
- detain meat for further examination following rectification (trimming, removal of unsuitable parts)

49

When should the PMI take place?

Should take place without delay after slaughter

50

What are the potential outcomes of a PMI where there is history of recent illness?

- Evidence of generalised disease = condemned
- Evidence of localised disease = trimmed
- No evidence of disease = passed

51

What are the potential outcomes of a PMI where there is history of recent medication?

- Positive residue test = condemned
- Negative residue test = passed

52

What are the potential outcomes of a PMI where there are signs indicative of localised disease condition?

- Evidence of localised disease condition = trimmed
- No evidence of localised disease = passed

53

What is assessed on PMI?

- Age and sex of animal
- State of nutrition
- Efficacy of bleeding
- Colour
- Smell
- Obvious other abnormalities

54

What conditions of the head in cattle lead to partial rejection on PMI?

- Cysticercus bovis
- Hydatid cysts
- Contamination
- Other

55

What conditions of the offal of cattle lead to partial rejection on PMI?

- Pneumonia
- Pleurisy
- Lungworm
- Liver abscesses
- Fluke (immature and mature)
- Hepatic scarring
- Cysticercus bovis
- Hydatid cysts
- Traumatic pericarditis
- Contamination
- Other

56

What conditions of the carcass of cattle lead to partial rejection on PMI?

- Localised abscesses (neck, fore/hindquarter)
- Cysticercus bovis
- Joint lesion (incl arthritis)
- Bruising
- Hydatid cysts
- Contamination
- Other

57

What conditions of lead to total rejection of cattle on PMI?

- Oedema/emaciation
- Generalised TB
- Pyaemia/multiple abscesses
- Septicaemia/fever
- Hydatidosis
- Jaundice
- Naval/joint ill in young animals
- Abnormal odour
- Uraemia
- Cysticercus bovis
- Less than 7 days old
- Contamination
- Other

58

What parts of cattle must be inspected on PMI?

- Head
- Offal
- Carcass

59

What conditions of offal in sheep and goats on PMI lead to partial rejection?

- Pneumonia, (defined as Mycoplasma like/Pasteruella like on report)
- Lung abscesses
- Lung worm
- Hydatid cysts
- Fluke (mature/immature)
- Cysticercus tenuicolls
- Historic scarring
- Cysticercus ovis
- Contamination
- Other

60

What conditions of the carcass of sheep/goats on PMI lead to partial rejection?

- Abscesses (neck/forequarter/hindquarter)
- Bruising (traumatic/wool pull)
- Joint lesions
- Cysticercus ovis
- Hydatid cysts
- Contamination
- Other

61

What conditions of sheep/goat carcasses on PMI lead to total rejection?

- Septicaemia/fever
- Jaundice
- Contamination
- Cysticercus ovis (generalised)
- Hydatidosis
- Emaciation/generalised oedema
- Multiple abscesses/pyaemia
- Generalised tuberculosis
- Polyarthritis
- Contamination
- Other

62

Why is the head of pigs not removed for PMI?

- Greatest risk to humans from pork consumption is Salmonella/Yersinia
- Present in lymph nodes of most pigs (incl. healthy)
- Removing head for inspection would open these and present contamination risk

63

What conditions of the offal of pigs on PMI would lead to partial rejection?

- Milk spots (Ascaris suum)
- Peritonitis
- Pleurisy visceral
- Pneumonia (mild/severe on report)
- endocarditis
- Kidney lesions
- Pericarditis
- Abscesses (single/multiple on report)
- Contamination
- Other

64

What conditions of the carcass of pigs on PMI lead to partial rejection?

- Joint lesions (single/multiple on report)
- Abscesses (single/multiple on report)
- Tail bite
- Papular dermatitis
- Erysipelas
- Pleurisy (parietal/visceral on report)
- Fight marks
- Contamination
- Other

65

What conditions of pigs lead to total rejection of the carcass on PMI?

- Pyaemia/multiple abscesses (+/- tail bite on report)
- Septic peritonitis and pleurisy
- Polyarthritis
- Emaciation/generalised oedema
- Septic pleurisy
- Processing fault
- Badly bled
- Anaemia
- Fever/septicaemia/toxaemia
-Jaundice
- Cysticercus
- Contamination
- Other

66

Other than rejection, what is a potential outcome of identification of emaciation on PMI?

May need reporting as welfare issue, especially if high number of flock affected

67

Why is meat with melanosis rejected?

Does not present risk, but black meat is unappealing. May be partial or whole rejection depending on degree

68

Why can actinomycosis lead to only partial rejection?

- Is zoonotic but not as a food-borne pathogen
- Fit for slaughter, can go into human food chain with rejection of head alone

69

What may abnormal retropharyngeal lymph nodes in cattle indicate and what are the consequences?

- May indicate bovine TB
- Need to sample and culture for M. bovis
- This takes 2 months
- If lesions are only in the lymph nodes of head, can go for human consumption with rejection of head, but if generalised then whole carcass is rejected

70

What are the consequences of identification of enlarged intestinal lymph nodes in cattle?

- Report to APHA as may be enzootic bovine leukosis
- May also be Johne's but this is only notifiable in NI
- Whole carcass rejection

71

What are the main implications of Fasciola hepatica infestation at slaughter?

- No risk for human consumption, partial rejection
- However feed conversion will have been poor and so is detrimental to farmer
- May signify welfare issue

72

What causes "shot-pellet" lesions in sheep lungs and what are the consequences at slaughter?

- Muelleris capillaris parasitic infection
- No risk to human consumption

73

What are the consequences of identification of fly strike on PMI?

- If found out of season, in unusual location, on one animal only then reporting is not necessary
- The affected region is trimmed and rest of carcass can go for human consumption

74

What are the requirements for performing shechita?

- Jewish religious slaughter
- Must be Jewish
- Must have licence from Rabbinical Commission for the Licensing of Shochetim
- Perform with sharp knife severing the trachea and oesophagus

75

What are the requirements for performing Halal slaughter?

- Must be Muslim
- Stunning disliked but can use low voltage shock
- Severe trachea, oesophagus, and jugulars in single stroke
- Some certification bodes require praying (not official control)

76

What are the official control of religious slaughter?

- Check method of slaughter
- Law applies to animal welfare
- Require mechanical restraints
- Back up stunning method available
- Certificate of Competence required (not required for Kosher)

77

Where can slaughter without stunning be performed in the UK?

In a slaughterhouse approved by the FSA

78

What are the requirements regarding ear tagging in cattle?

- Must have 2 tags (one in each ear)
- Dairy: one tag within 36 hours of birth, second within 20 days of birth
- Dairy: both within 20 days of birth

79

What are the steps following identification of an animal missing an ear tag by the FBO?

- Reported to OV
- Detain animal, inform owner
- If appropriate, owner has 48hours to arrange correct identification
- Must give opportunity to establish identity and provide reason for lack of full identification
- If repeat occurrence at a farm report to LA
- If no ear tags, unlikely to be able to prove identity, slaughter but not for human consumption
- Call BCMS to check information matches
- If 1 official tag + correct passport, OV may allow slaughter

80

What are the identification requirements for sheep?

- 2 ear tags + EID over 12 months old
- If under 12mo, only need 1 tag
- Movement documents must include individual ID numbers

81

What are the consequences of a sheep arriving at slaughter with an EID but no tags?

Give owner chance to provide tags

82

Name the parasites relevant for PMI in red meat

- Taenia saginata (Cysticercus bovis, cattle)
- Taenia solium (Cysticercus cellulosae, pigs and humans)
- Taenia ovis (Cysticercus ovis)
- Trichinella sprialis (pigs)

83

What is the consequence of identification of Cysticercus bovis on PMI?

Depending on level and type of cysts present, are condemned or partially rejected as humans are definitive host

84

What is the consequence of identification of Cysticercus cellulosae on PMI?

Whole carcass rejected

85

What is the consequence of identification of Cysticercus ovis on PMI?

- Whole carcass and associated offal rejected as unfit for human consumption if cysts found in 3 or more different locations in whole animal
- Is not a human parasite

86

What is the outcome of identification of Trichinella spiralis on PMI?

- Whole carcass rejection
- Risk to human health, must wear rubber gloves and practice careful hygiene and handwashing

87

Where are Trichinella spiralis lesions usually found?

- Present in any voluntary muscle, best seen in thin muscles e.g. diaphragm, tongue, masseters etc
- Grey appearance of muscle directly observable
- Lesions (cysts and larvae) only visible under microscope

88

What are the best strategies for controlling/reducing the risk of Taenia solium?

- Mass drug administration for taeniasis
- Identificationand treatment of cases
- Health education, hygiene, food safety
- Improved sanitation
- Improved pig husbandry
- Anthelmintic treatment
- Vaccination
- Improved meat inspection and processing of meat products

89

What are the best strategies for controlling/reducing the risk of Taenia ovis?

- Worm dogs on property with praziquantel (~every 4 weeks)
- Cook/freeze all sheep meat fed to farm dogs
- Prevent scavenging of carcasses
- Dispose of dead sheep
- Do not allow visiting dogs in that have not been treated with praziquantel
- Manage fox access
- Praziquantel not effective in sheep

90

What are the best strategies for controlling/reducing the risk of Trichinella spiralis?

- Anthelmintics
- Thoroughly cook meat

91

Where are bovine tuberculosis lesions most likely located in beef carcasses?

- Lungs
- Retropharyngeal and lung draining lymph nodes
- Nasopharynx
- Lower respiratory tract

92

Which tissues are routinely inspected for bovine tuberculosis?

- Retropharyngeal LN
- Parotid LN
- Submandibular/submaxillary LN
- Bronchial, mediastinal LN
- Lungs
- Pleura
- Hepatic LN
- Liver
- Mesenteric LN
- Supramammary LN
- Udder

93

What additional lymph nodes must be inspected where bovine TB is suspected?

- Prescapular
- Superficial inguinal

94

What actions are taken following identification of a potentially bTB positive carcass on PMI?

- Movement restriction on farm of origin pending lab culture results
- Remove from food chain
- Care regarding respiratory transmission to workers

95

When are poultry likely to be handled in their lives?

- Only 3 times
- As day old chicks, delivery to rearing house
- As laying hens, transferred to point of lay
- At the end of their lives when taken to slaughter facilities

96

What are the welfare considerations at bird depopulation/harvesting?

- Big change in usually very controlled lives
- Very little contact with people otherwise
- Stressed due to water and food withdrawal 6-12h earlier
- Difficult to recruit and retain labour
- Large numbers need to be caught
- Low individual value (less care)
- Genetic selection means there are inherent anatomical problems

97

What are some advantages of mechanical harvesting of poultry over manual?

- Reduced labour costs
- Reduced rejection rates
- Better conditions for workers
- Reduced injury and bruising, especially leg injuries

98

Describe the process of harvesting broilers

- Module brought into house (reduce carrying distance)
- Birds caught by one leg, inverted, dropped into crates
- Catchers will hold 3-4 birds per hand
- Considerable injury rates

99

Discuss the welfare issues associated with the harvesting of spent hens

- Low/no economic value so no incentive for careful handling
- All caught by hand
- Injuries relating to handling and osteoporosis
- Carried further distances than broilers
- Tend to have more depopulation injuries

100

List transport associated factors that may result in compromised welfare of birds

- Handling
- MIxing/social disruption
- Food and water withdrawal
- Movement of vehicle may exacerbate/cause injury
- Fatigue
- Noise
- Novelty/confinement
- Thermal challenges