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Respiratory > Surgical conditions of the respiratory tract - SA 1&2 > Flashcards

Surgical conditions of the respiratory tract - SA 1&2 Flashcards

1
Q

What divides the airway into URT and LRT?

A

junction between the cricoid cartilage and the trachea (larynx is therefore URT)

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2
Q

Why aren’t any surgical interventions of the airways considered D1Ss?

A

all have the potential to cause life-threatening inflammation or haemorrhage that can obstruct the airway

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3
Q

Name 3 conditions of the rhinarium

A
  • congenital deformities (stenotic nares and cleft lip)
  • lacerations/trauma
  • neoplasia (SCC and MCT)
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4
Q

What raises your index of suspicion for SCC in rhinarium?

A

non-healing ulcers here

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5
Q

What are broad causes of nasal discharge? 6

A
  • chronic hyperplastic rhinitis
  • trauma
  • dental disease
  • intranasal neoplasia
  • mycotic rhinitis
  • FBs
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6
Q

Breed predisposition - chronic hyperplastic rhinitis

A

Whippets, Dachshunds and cats

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7
Q

Tx - severe and intractable chronic hyperplastic rhitinits

A

rhinotimy and turbinectomy

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8
Q

What should you do if a patient has trauma-induced nasal discharge? 4

A
  • little need for orthopaedic fixation
  • ensure maxillary fractures are reduced to maintain dental occlusion
  • check later fro acquired palatine clefts
  • occasionally as sequestrum may form so check radiographs for this and also osteomyelitis
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9
Q

Describe nasal discharge associated with dental disease

A
  • mucopurulent, occasional epistaxis
  • unilateral
  • periapical lucency on radiography (occasionally these are incidental)
  • lesions
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10
Q

What tumours are most common in the nose?

A

Most are malignant - solid carcinoma or adenocarcinoma, chrondo/fibro/osteo-sarcoma

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11
Q

What is a benign polypoid rhinitis?

A

very rare but clinically indistinguishable from nasal malignancies except histopath. Good prognosis following polyp removal

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12
Q

What causes mycotic rhinitis 2

A

Aspergillus and Penicillium

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13
Q

Define sinusotomy

A

surgical incision into a skull sinus

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14
Q

Treatment - mycotic rhinitis

A

If non-surgical treatment fails, surgical placement of irrigation tubes via sinusotomy may facilitate successful Enilconazole (imidazole fungicide) therapy

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15
Q

CS -FBs in nose

A

sudden onset sneezing. serous discharge, may progress to mucoid/purulent discharge if chronic

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16
Q

How common are nasal FBs?

A

not as common as many clients suspect!

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17
Q

How are defects in the secondary palate (hard and soft palate) characterised?

A

Congenital or acquried

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18
Q

Clinical signs - congenital defects of the secondary palate

A
  • noticed early in life
  • fail to thrive
  • unable to suckle succesfully
  • often have nasal return of milk
  • aspiration pneumonia signs
  • mild cases may only show chronic nasal discharge
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19
Q

Clinical signs - acquired defects of the secondary palate

A
  • chronic nasal discharge and sneezing due to constant impaction of food material in nasal cavity*
  • aspiration pneumonia
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20
Q

Treatment - secondary palate defects

A

surgical repair when CS present. often complicated

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21
Q

Define BAOD

A

Brachycephalic Airway Obstruction Syndrome

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22
Q

What is BAOD

A

a group of conditions commonly found amongst brachycephalic breeds. Abnormalities are often present at birth but clinical disease may not become a problem until middle age.

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23
Q

What are the primary and secondary BAOD pathologies?

A

PRIMARY - stenotic nares, long soft palate
SECONDARY - eversion of the lateral laryngeal ventricles, laryngeal collapse, others (tracheal hypoplasia, redundant pharyngeal mucosa, scrolling of the epiglottis)

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24
Q

CS - BAOD

A

MILD: execise intolerance or dyspnoea following stress or excitement, exacerbation by heat and stress
SEVER: loud noise on inspiration and expiration (steror) and visibly small external nares, poor heat dissipation (–> pyrexia) and vicious cycle develops

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25
Q

What is an acute obstructive crisis?

A

precipitated by heat or extreme stress in BAOD dogs, causes cyanosis and collapse

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26
Q

Diagnostic considerations BAOD

A

Rule out other causes fo inadequate ventilation/tissue perfusion

  • PE - rule out CV and pulmonary disease (auscultation difficult because of referred URT noise)
  • Haematology and serum biochemistry
  • thoracic radiographs
  • lateral radiograph of larynx
  • pharyngeal and laryngeal exam
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27
Q

Treatment - BAOD

A
  • early in day (full day supervision after)
  • best to follow examination of URT with surgery if necessary rather than giving a second anaesthetic
  • rhinoplasty
  • staphylectomy
  • resection of everted mucosa of lateral laryngeal ventricles
  • temporary tracheostomy (optional)
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28
Q

Post-op care - BAOD treatmetn

A
  • routine tracheostomy management (if used)
  • intensive observation and care
  • keep animal as quiet as possible for following 7-10 days
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29
Q

What is tracheal hypoplasia? Breed predisposition?

A
  • narrowed trachea
  • bulldogs
  • generally can live a normal life providing upper airway is in good condition. occasionally very severely affects animals
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30
Q

Define tracheotomy

A

a temporary tracheostomy

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31
Q

Indications - tracheotomy (temporary tracheostomy)

A
  • precaution prior to some upper airway surgery or in an emergency situation to bypass life threatening upper airway obstruction
  • constant supervision
  • selection of tubes available (low pressure cuffed type is best for animals to be maintained under anaesthesia or on a ventilator. Non-cuffed type that have a removable central sleeve to facilitate cleaning for chronic use. Selection of sizes).
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32
Q

Outline placement of a tracheotomy (temporary tracheostomy) tube

A
  • septic (if non-emergency)
  • ventral midline incision (neck), 2-4cm caudal to larynx
  • long stay sutures placed around tracheal rings with a separation of two tracheal rings (2-0 monofilament)
  • transverse incision between 4th and 5th tracheal rings between the stay sutures
  • tube placed in tracheal lumen
  • skin closed around the trachoestomy tube and the tube is secured by passing umbilical tape or similar around the dog’s neck. The pre-placed stay sutures are tied in a loose bow.
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33
Q

How does a tracheotomy animal need to be cared for? 5

A
  • constant monitoring
  • insert sleeve removed and cleaned every 2 hours
  • nebulisation every 4 hours
  • limit physical activity
  • suction tube (if plugged but increases inflammation)
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34
Q

When is a tracheotomy tube removed?

A

once the dog has demonstrated adequate upper airway air movement (air around tube)

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35
Q

How is the tracheotomy tube removed?

A

with the dog conscious and the hole left to heal by 2nd intention

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36
Q

What are the 3 main conditions of the larynx?

A
  • laryngeal paralysis
  • laryngeal neoplasia
  • granulomatous laryngitis
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37
Q

What are the 3 aetiopathologies for laryngeal paralysis?

A
  • CONGENITAL - Bouvier des Flandres, Husky
  • ACQUIRED (KNOWN) - trauma, neoplasia, secondary to polyneuropathy/polymyopathy (hypothyroidism etc)
  • ACQUIRED (IDIOPATHIC) - labrador, retriever
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38
Q

CS - laryngeal paralysis

A
  • chronic progressive exercise intolerance
  • dysphonia
  • increased resp. noise (especially inspiratory, stridor)
  • chronic cough
  • cyanosis and collapse (heat, stress, excitement)
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39
Q

What should you do in an obstructive crisis of laryngeal paralysis 5

A
  • often hyperthermic –> cool IV fluids, external body cooling
  • sedation
  • oxygen supplementation
  • occasionally rapid anaesthetic induction and orotracheal intubation
  • tube tracheostomy will permit complete patient evaluation prior to definitive treatment.
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40
Q

How should you further investigate a stable patient with laryngeal paralysis? 4

A
  • careful PE
  • haematology and biochemistry (con/intercurrent disease)
  • thoracic radiographs (pulmonary disease, mediastinal mass)
  • careful evaluation of laryngeal function under light plane of anaesthesia
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41
Q

What should you do if you localise the laryngeal paralysis to the left arytenoid?

A

suture the arytenoid to teh thyroid (lateralisation) or cricoid (formation of prosthetic cricoarytenoid dorsalis muscle = laryngoplasty)

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42
Q

Post - op care after laryngeal paralysis treatment. 4

A
  • avoid excitement
  • keep tracheostomy tube handy in case post-op oedema causes further obstruction
  • typically cough for 2-3 weeks following this procedure
  • risk of aspiration pneumonia (greater with bilateral surgery)
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43
Q

What is the treatmetn for laryngeal paralysis?

A

left arytenoid lateralisation

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44
Q

Outline laryngeal neoplasia

A

rare, mostly malignant

  • Congenital rhabdomyosarcoma (oncocytoma)
  • SCC
  • adenocarcinoma
  • fibrosarcoma
  • lymphoma (cat)
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45
Q

CS - laryngeal neoplasia

A
  • dysphonia
  • sonorous respiration
  • exercise intolerance
  • respiratory distress
  • may be indistinguishable from laryngeal paralysis*
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46
Q

What is granulomatous laryngitis?

A

dog and cat
affected animals present in similar way to laryngeal paralysis and laryngeal tumours
presence of this disease mandates BIOPSY

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47
Q

Name 2 surgical conditions of the trachea

A
  • tracheal collapse

- tracheal trauma

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48
Q

What breeds does tracheal collapse tend to affect?

A

toy and small terrier (esp. YT)

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49
Q

What is tracheal collapse the result of? 3

A

poor tracheal cartilage development and poor tracheal conformation (low GAGs and low cellularity). May be exacerbated by LRT infections, heart disease and/or laryngeal dysfunction.

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50
Q

When does tracheal collapse cause a problem?

A

although present from birth, the disease causes a clinical problem in mid to late life (4-7 years). collapse is worsened by obesity.

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51
Q

CS - tracheal collapse

A
  • vibrant inspiratory and expiratory noise (exacerbated by exercise, excitement)
  • goose honk cough
  • cyanosis and collaspe (extremes)
  • DV flattening of trachea can be palpated in neck and gentle pressure can completely occlude the airway (harder if obese)
52
Q

Investigative steps - tracheal collaspe

A
  • plain radiographs misleading
  • thoracic radiographs - heart and lungs
  • fluoroscopy - much better for demonstration of tracheal collapse because this is a dynamic condition
  • endoscopy
  • laryngoscopy (to determine if normal, especially if considering surgery)
53
Q

What part of the trachea is affected by tracheal collapse?

A

most commonly the entire trachea is affected, even if only cervical tracheal collapse can be documented by investigation

54
Q

Treatment - tracheal collapse

A
  • older dogs are likely to have other important diseases at the same time (heart, larynx, metabolic/endocrine - cushings)
  • 1st line tx - medical (treat respiratory infection, steroids to control oedema of respiratory tract, weight loss programme)
  • 2nd line tx (where tracheal collapse is the primary disease or where conservative management has failed) - salvage procedure, technically demanding surgery, place prosthetic rings around trachea (ventral midline approach), may need to be combined with arytenoid lateralisation with laryngeal function is poor prior to or as a result of surgery)
55
Q

When are intralumenal stents indicated?

A

older dogs with co-morbid disease as a palliative measure (long term complications associated with this method means it is contra-indicated in young dogs)

56
Q

What are the commonest causes of tracheal laceration?

A

neck bite wounds, traumatic intubation. In cats, blunt trauma to the chest may cause tracheal rupture/avulsion, most commonly just cranial to the carina ‘ intrathoracic tracheal avulsion’

57
Q

CS - tracheal trauma -4

A
  • SC emphysema which can become generalised over teh whole body
  • pneumomediastinum
  • pneumothorax
  • respiratory distress (varies with head position)
58
Q

Diagnosis - tracheal trauma

A
  • can be challenging
  • cerivcal and thoracic radiographs may show peri-tracheal, IM and SC emphysema. Pneumomediastinum and pneumothorax may be present too.
  • positive contrast studies may be useful
  • bronchoscopy (diagnose and locate teh lesion)
  • exploratory surgery
59
Q

Where are tracheal tears from intubation most commonly found?

A

dorsal wall of the cervical trachea

60
Q

Tx - tracheal tauma -2

A
  • conservative therapy with strict cage rest and observation (if stable and non-progressive)
  • surgical therapy warranted if CS are progressive and if respiratory distress is severe
61
Q

How are tracheobronchial FBs dealt with?

A

usually removed endoscopically or using fluoroscopic guidance, these cases are rarely surgical.

62
Q

List 3 surgical conditions of the lung

A
  • primary lung tumour
  • spontaneous pneumothorax
  • lung lobe torsion
63
Q

How common are primary lung tumours in dogs?

A

Uncommon. Most are malignant, adenocarcinoma is the most common type.

64
Q

CS - lung tumour

A
  • cough (50%)
  • dyspnoea (23%)
  • lethargy (18%)
  • weight loss (12%)
  • no CS (25%)
65
Q

Diagnosis - lung tumoour

A
  • thoracic radiographs and/or CT (when a mass lesion is detected on thoracic radiography, every effort should be made to exclude the existence of a primary tumour elsewhere in the animal)
66
Q

Treatment - lung tumour

A
  • exploratory thoracotomy and lung lobectomy (if no other disease found)
67
Q

Prognosis - differentiated lung adenocarcinomas without local LN involvement

A

longest post-op survival times

68
Q

How often should lung cancer dogs be rechecked?

A

every 3-6 months after surgery and thoracic radiographs made to check for recurrent disease

69
Q

When does a pneumothorax occur and how is a spontaneous pneumothorax different?

A

Pneumothorax - when atmospheric air enters the pleural space. Spontaneous pneumothorax - this is a ‘closed’ pneumothorax in which the lung is suspected as the source of the leakage and the animal has no hx of trauma.

70
Q

Aetiology - pneumothorax - 5

A
  • ruptured pulmonary bullae or blebs
  • migrating inhaled plant material
  • bacterial pneumonia
  • chronic obstructive lung diseases (emphysema and chronic bronchitis)
  • asthma, TB, pulmonary neoplasia airway parasites (filaroides)
71
Q

CS - pneumothorax

A
  • tachypnoea
  • dyspnoea
  • exercise intolerance
  • absence of lung sounds on auscultation and thoracic resonance on percussion
  • radiography/ CT (care dyspnoeic animal, single DV?)
72
Q

Treatment - pneumothorax - 3

A
  • stabilise - thoracocentesis or chest tube indicated
  • exploratory thoracotomy via median sternotomy and removed of disease lobe(s)
  • prolonged pleural evacuation using a chest drain
73
Q

How common is lung lobe torsion?

A

uncommon but is reported in both dogs and cats. dogs with narrow, deep chests appear to be more frequently affected. The middle and right cranial lung lobes are most frequently involved.

74
Q

What can lung lobe torsion be association with?

A

This condition can be associated with pleural effusions, trauma, thoracic surgery, neoplasia and chronic respiratory disease.

75
Q

CS - lung lobe torsion

A 
depressed
inappetant
febrile
dyspnoea + cough
muffled lung sounds 
thoracocentesis, thoracic ultrasound, radiography, CT
Repeat imaging once drained
76
Q

Treatment - lung lobe torsion

A

lobectomy of the affected lobe

77
Q

Outline the surgical approach to the diaphragm

A

the most versatile approach to the diaphragm is the VENTRAL MIDLINE CELIOTOMY which can be extended into a CAUDAL MIDLINE STERNOTOMY if further exposure is needed

78
Q

Define DR

A

diaphragmatic rupture

79
Q

Pathogenesis - DR

A

blunt abdominal trauma causes a sudden elevation in intra-abdominal pressure that results in rupture of the weakest (muscular) portion

80
Q

What does the pathophysiology of DR focus on?

Acute and chronic consequences of this?

A

loss of diaphragmatic contribution to pulmonary ventilation and the resulting dyspnoea. Also migration of abdominal organs into thoracic cavity.
ACUTE - pulmonary contusions (bruises), rib fractures, pneumothorax, haemothorax and pain all exacerbate poor pulmonary function
CHRONIC - effusion from surface of entrapped or strangulated organs –> hydrothorax which also compromises lung function. GIT disease signs

81
Q

Diagnosis - diaphragmatic rupture -3

A
  • PE - muffled heart sounds, loss of lung sounds, dull thoracic percussion, empty abdomen on palpation.
  • Radiography - confirms acute DR (may be obscured chronically by pleural effusion)
  • OTHERS: repeat thoracic radiographs, ultrasound, GIT contrast studies, positive contrast peritoneography
82
Q

What should the acute DR trauma patient be checked for?

A

multi-system onvolvement

83
Q

Treatment - DR

acute versus chronic

A

ACTUE CASES: 24-48hrs medical stabilisation prior to surgical repair of the rupture BUT immediate action if radiography reveals a dilated stomach within thoracic cavity (trans-thoracic gastrocentesis). If gastric decompression can be maintained by NGT, continue non-surgical therapy.
- CHRONIC - fluid removal prior to surgery

84
Q

Outline surgical repair of DR

A

Expose diaphragm - examine defect - remove abdominal organs from thorax (enlarge defect sometimes) - adhesions to be gently broken down - thoracostomy tube placed prior to closure of defect (large dogs or where ongoing effusion is anticipated) - debride edges of DR (chronic cases only) - closure achieved using a simple interrupted or continuous sutures incorporating a rib where avulsion from the lateral thoracic wall has occurred - full abdominal exploration - repair anything necessary - abdominal closure is routine.

85
Q

Define PPDH

A

Peritoneopericardial diaphragmatic hernia

86
Q

Pathogenesis - PPDH - 3

A

EITHER failure of septum transversum to advance OR failure of the lateral pleuroperitoneal folds to unite OR a result of intrauterine trauma

87
Q

What other developmental abnormalities may PPDH be associated with? 2

A
  • sternal and ventral abdominal wall fusion defects
  • intracardiac defects (VSD, PS, ASD)
  • PSS
88
Q

Pathophysiology - PPDH - 4

A
  • loss of intrapleural volume causing reduction in lung volume
  • displaced GIT organs
  • primary signs of CV compromise
  • other vascular defects –> CNS, urinary and GIT signs
89
Q

Diagnosis - PPDH

A

AS FOR DR:

  • PE - muffled heart sounds, loss of lung sounds, dull thoracic percussion, empty abdomen on palpation.
  • Radiography - confirms acute DR (may be obscured chronically by pleural effusion)
  • OTHERS: repeat thoracic radiographs, ultrasound, GIT contrast studies, positive contrast peritoneography
90
Q

Outline treatment - PPDH

A
  • young patients asap (reduces risk of adhesion formation)
  • older patients - incidental - manage conservatively
  • surgery (most important if showing CS)
91
Q

Outline PPDH surgery

A

Approach diaphragm and ID defect - return abdominal organs - break down any adhesions carefully - repair defect (without separation of pericardial membrane - simple interrupted or continuous sutures

92
Q

Define EHH

A

Eosphageal Hiatal Hernia

93
Q

What is Eosphageal Hiatal Hernia (EHH)

A

A congenital diaphragmatic disease

94
Q

Pathogenesis - EHH

A

defect in the formation of the oesophageal hiatus, from the embryonic megaoesophagus

95
Q

Which breed has hereditary EHH?

A

Chinese Shar-Pei

96
Q

Pathophysiology - EHH

A

laxity in oesophageal hiatus –> allows abdominal oesophagus and stomach cardia to slide into thorax OR permits a portion of the stomach to enter the thorax adjacent to the abdominal oesophagus.

The problem relates to the impairement of the ‘high pressure zone’ of the caudal oesophagus resulting in chronic GIT reflux, regurgitation and/or vommitting –> chronic oesophagitis, oesophageal hypomobility and aspiration pneumonia.

97
Q

Diagnosis - EHH - 4

A
  • History
  • PE - highlights secondary disease processes
  • PLAIN FILM RADIOGRAPHY - shows a gas-filled viscus in the dorsocaudal thorax, alveolar pattern in CrV lung fields due to aspiration pneumonia
  • OTHERS: barium paste oesophagram and fluoroscopy of the caudal thorax
98
Q

Outline surgical treatment - EHH - 3

A
  1. ) STOMACH RETURNED TO ABDOMEN by gentle traction on phrenicosophageal ligament gently dissected free to improve ID of hiatal defect
  2. ) DEFECT CLOSED - begin dorsal to oesophagus and proceed ventrally with simple interrupted or continuous sutures. Include 4 interrupted ‘oesophagopexy’ sutures between the ventrolateral abdominal oesophagus and the diaphragmatic hiatu. Hiatus should be closed to a diameter of 2-3cm.
  3. ) GASTRIC FUNDUPEXY - either a tube gastrostomy or belt-loop gastropexy
99
Q

List 3 surgical conditions of the diaphragm

A

ACQUIRED - DR

CONGENITAL - PPDH and EHH

100
Q

Outline the general approach to treating thoracic wall trauma cases

A

global approach - immediate aim is to confirm adequate airway and effective ventilation - detect deficits in circulating blood volume and replace with ongoing circulatory support - analgesia - cover external wounds with sterile bandages - immobilise fractures limbs - thoracic radiographs to evaluate intrathoracic pathology and determine need for pleural drainage - frequent re-evluation of patient with objective and subjective measurements - BS AB cover for bite wound or massive trauma patients - specific therapy for thoracic wall is postponed - temporary thoracostomy tubes with LA - rapid surgical thoracic exploration if massive, uncontrollable haemorrhage or pneumothorax exceeds capacity of thoracostomy tube drainage

101
Q

What are the 2 types of thoracic wall trauma

A

Non-penetrating and penetrating thoracic trauma

102
Q

How can you manage non-penetrating thoracic trauma?

A

manage conservatively. superficial bite wounds or skin avulsion wounds should undergo surgical exploration and wound debridement

103
Q

How can you manage penetrating thoracic trauma?

A

exploratory thoracotomy around the traumatic thoracic opening - aim of surgery should be to remove injured or devitalised tissue, provide pleural drainage and closure of thoracic walls using either native tissue or if tissue loss is extensive, synthetic (polypropylene) mesh

104
Q

What effect will stabilising loose ribs and flail segments have?

A

unusual to normalise pulmonary function but will relieve pain and thereby improve ventilation

105
Q

Why might a patient be stabilised for 24-48 hours prior definitive rib repair?

A

because of the progressive nature of massive pulmonary contusions, a period of mechanically assisted ventilation (24-48 hrs) and medical therapy may be beneficial.

106
Q

How might flail segments and unstable ribs be immobilised?

A

by percutaneously placed circumcostal sutures secured to an external splint

107
Q

How may ribs be stabilised?

A

suturing to adjacent ribs or resected if damage is severe. closure of the wound with native tissues is ideal but massive trauma may necessitate reconstruction with synthetic implants

108
Q

What are the most common malignant primary tumours of the thoracic wall?

A
  • Most commonly OSA and chondrosarcoma arising from the costochondral junction.
  • Tumours of the chest wall such as HSA, MCT and infiltrative lipomas can also occur.
109
Q

CS - tumours of thoracic wall

A
  • palpable mass

- occasionally lameness (pulmonary osteoarthropathy)

110
Q

Diagnosis - thoracic wall tumours

A
  • Plain film radiography –>intrathoracic extent of tumour

- Thoracic CT and MRI - to document disease and plan surgery

111
Q

Treatment - thoracic wall tumours

A

Because the biological behaviour of various tumours differ, an incisional biopsy should be performed. The definitive plan should be based on anatomical location, presence or absence of metastatic disease and the tissue diagnosis. Treatment = full thickness thoracic wall resection followed by reconstruction.

112
Q

What is the rhinarium?

A

the moist, naked surface around the nostrils

113
Q

Treatment - SCC of rhinarium

A

Wide local surgical excision (REFERRAL)

114
Q

Treatment - MCT of rhinarium - 3

A
  • Wide local surgical excision
  • Adjunctive radiation therapy
  • Chemotherapy (depending on histological grade and clinical stage)
115
Q

Outline primary and secondary pathology of BAOD

A

PRIMARY - stenotic nares, long soft palate, ethmoid turbinates filling the meatus
SECONDARY - eversion of the mucosa of the lateral laryngeal ventricles, laryngeal collapse

116
Q

Why does the larynx become oedematous in BAOD?

A

exercise –> mouth breathing –> soft palate vibration –> inflammation –> airway closes down –> vicious cycle. Larynx becomes oedematous because of inflammation and leads to laryngeal collapse.

117
Q

Name 5 treatment options for laryngeal collapse

A
  • orotracheal intubation
  • emergency tracheostomy
  • partial laryngectomy
  • arytenoid lateralisation
  • permanent tracheostomy
118
Q

What does stridor indicate?

A

URT obstruction which is usually either:

  • laryngeal collapse *
  • laryngeal neoplasia
  • laryngeal FB
119
Q

Describe treatment objectives for laryngeal paralysis

A
  • relieve obstructive crisis

- permanent increase in glottic diameter (intralaryngeal or extralaryngeal)

120
Q

Outline the steps in unilateral arytenoid lateralisaion

A
  • surgical treatment of laryngeal paralysis
  • disarticulate arytenoid from thyroid and cricoid
  • laryngoplasty sutures secure arytenoid, in abducted position, to thyroid and/or cricoid cartilage
  • unilateral procedure.
121
Q

What is the success of unilateral arytenoid lateralisation to treat laryngeal paralysis?

A
  • overall 85-90% improved long-term
  • short term complications in 30% (poor arytenoid abduction, haematoma formation, laryngeal penetration, aspiration pneumonia)
122
Q

When is a tube tracheostomy indicated? 4

A
  • when an ETT can’t be placed
  • temporary airway diversion to permit oral cavity surgery
  • long term ventilatory support
  • emergency provision of airway
123
Q

What size should a tracheostomy tube be?

A

50-60% internal lumenal diameter of the trachea (this means tube blockage is not life-threatening as air can pass round it)

124
Q

What should you try not to damage when placing a tracheostomy tube?

A

parotid, vagus, oesophagus, recurrent laryngeal nn.

125
Q

Indications for lung lobectomy 6

A
  • primary lung tumour
  • metastatic pulmonary mass
  • lung lobe torsion
  • pulmonary abscess/infection
  • bullous damage
  • trauma
126
Q

Lung lobectomy - technique

A
  • lateral 5th or 6th ICS thoracotomy
  • isolate lung lobe (cut pulmonary ligament)
  • identify PA, PV and bronchus
  • clamp, divide and oversew bronchus
  • check for leaks
  • use US Surgical TA 30 vascular staple gun.

Respiratory (34 decks)

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