u18 Flashcards

(92 cards)

1
Q

as radio waves travels away from its source, what happens to the signal, wavelength and amplitude

A

weaker
smaller amplitude
same wave length

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

LF/MF frequency
- range
- what nav aid uses these frequencies
- _______ to _______ and ________ to ______ KHz

A

30 to 3000 KHz
NDB
190-415 and 510-535 KHz

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

HF frequency
- range
- location
- how does ionosphere determine which frequency you use

A

3000 to 30 000 KHz
crossing ocean and high north
sun up, frequency up (above 5000)
sun down, frequency down (below 5000)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

VHF frequency
- range
- 108.10 to 111.95 MHz is used for what
- 112.00 to 117.95 MHz is used for what
- 118.00 to 137.00 MHz is used for what

A

30 to 300 MHz
ILS
VOR
comms

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

UHF frequency
- range
- used for what
- used by who

A

300 to 3000 MHz
DME
military

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

what is the skip zone for sky waves

A

planes can get reception from sky waves before it hits the ionosphere
once it hits the ionosphere and bounces back to the earth, plane can’t get good receiption (skip zone)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

at night time, does the sky wave reception distance increase or decrease and why

A

increase reception distance
night = higher ionosphere = larger range = farther reception distance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

do higher or lower frequencies have a farther reception distance of ground waves

A

lower frequencies have farther ground wave reception distance

high frequency = hits ground more = more attenuation = smaller range

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

why are LF/MF better ground waves than VHF

A

LF/MF = lower frequency = less attenuation = better ground waves

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

which one does NOT experience precipitation static - LF/MF or VHF

A

VHF

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

what is the equation for plane line of sight (NM) to VHF

A

line of sight (NM) = 1.25 x root (AGL)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

how does HF single side band work
- why does it transmit a stronger signal as a single side band
- how does it affect spectrum space

A

only one side band of the frequency is transmitted
more power into 1 side band instead of 2 = stronger signal
only 1 side band used so it conserves spectrum space

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

ELT broadcasts a distress signal when it senses

A

sudden deceleration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

what frequencies does ELT emit on?

A

121.5, 243, 406 MHz

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

what does the 406 ELT transmit on 406 MHz along with the siren

A

coded identification

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

406 ELT sends your information to who following its activation

A

joint rescue coordination centre (JRCC)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

when can you test an old ELT and for how long

A

first 5 mins of UTC hour for 5 sec

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

an ELT is required when flying farther than ____ from base

A

25 NM

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

if you’re in a crash and turn on your elt, where can you put it to boost the signal

A

up high and attached to metal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

how often must a pilot do the operational test for an ELT

A

1yr

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

how often must a technician do a performance test for an ELT

A

2yr

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

how much power does a L(ow) NDB have

A

less than 50 watts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

how much power does a M(edium) NDB have

A

50-2000 watts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

how much power does a H(igh) NDB have

A

50-2000 watts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
NDB range specific KHz
190-415 and 510-535 KHz
26
how does the night effect affect NDB reception / ADF pointing what can you do to minimize night effect
height of the ionosphere changes dramatically within 1hr to sunrise and sunset, which can cause the ADF pointer to fluctuate when you are very far from the station fly at higher altitude, use lower frequency
27
how do mountains affect NDB reception / ADF pointing
mountains reflect radio waves magnetic deposits can mess with pointer
28
how do shorelines affect NDB reception / ADF pointing at what angle should you approach the shoreline when flying over water to the NDB to minimize this effect
shorelines can bend LF radio waves when passing from land to water don’t use NDB signal if your angle to the shoreline is less than 30º
29
how do electrical storms affect NDB reception / ADF pointing
ADF pointer will point to lightning
30
how does precipitation static affect NDB reception / ADF pointing what can the pilot do to reduce precipitation static
heavy rain and snow causes static on the plane so ADF doesn’t know where to point since theres static every where reduce airspeed
31
how does bank angle affect NDB reception / ADF pointing
when in a bank, the antenna isn’t parallel to incoming signal anymore = error
32
if homing to a NDB station (adf pointer) and there’s a strong cross wind, how will this affect your track
you’ll fly a curved route
33
does NDB have a shorter or farther range than VOR
farther range
34
what is the frequency for VOR
112 to 117.95 MHz
35
is VHF affected by precipitation static or other weather interference
no
36
the farther you are from the station, the _______ the area of ambiguity
wider
37
when testing a VOR, spin the obs to 180. the CDI must centre +/- ____º with a ____ flag
4º TO think cessna 182
38
when testing a VOR, spin the obs to 360. the CDI must centre +/- ____º with a ____ flag
4º from
39
when testing your VOR at the airport test sign checkpoint, the VOR must be within +/- ____º and the DME must be within _____ NM
4º 0.5NM
40
when testing your VOR by flying over a town with a VOR published radial on the map, your VOR must be within +/- ____º
41
the RMI can used a slaved or free gyro system, what does this mean? and when the gyro is slaved, what is the heading indicator connected to
slaved = HI connected to compass via flux valve free = HI manually reset by pilot
42
what does DME provide
slant distance to station (NM) and sometimes ground speed
43
DME operates in what frequency band
UHF
44
how does DME work
you send signal to DME station DME sends signal back we measure the time between sent and received signal to get distance
45
the closer to the station, the _________ the distance error using a DME
greater
46
slant distance errors for DME greatest when you are where (x2 places)
directly overhead station high altitudes
47
if flying a DME arc, what will the DME say your ground sped is and why
0 KT since you’re flying a perfect circle around the DME station, your distance isn’t getting closer/farther from the station
48
the GPS satellite group has _____ satellites that orbit around the earth _____ times per day
24 satellites x2 orbits per day
49
GPS position is based on measuring the _____ it takes for the signal to reach the receiver, then it calculates the ______ between satellites to get your position. this is called _________
time distance trilateralation
50
it takes _____ satellites to get a 3D image
4
51
each GPS satellite has ____ atomic clocks to ensure the timing is perfect
4
52
is GPS affected by weather
no
53
95% of the time, GPS is accurate _____m horizontal x ____m vertical
6m x 8m
54
WAAS - stands for - what does it do
wide area augmentation system ground stations send ionosphere correction to satellite so it’s more accurate when tracking you on your xc
55
LAAS - stands for - what’s it used for
local area augmentation system ground station at airport that gives an accurate, local ionosphere correction so when you’re on approach/ILS at that airport your distances are super accurate
56
what does it mean that a navigation system must have strong integrity
system will warn the pilot that something is wrong with it within seconds
57
RAIM - stands for - how does it work - how many satellites
receiver autonomous integrity monitoring compares scans of different combinations of satellites so you can easily tell if one satellite is broadcasting wrong data 5+ satellites
58
what is RAIM + Baroaiding - what does baroaiding do - how many satellites used
planes static system gives vertical reference to your position in space 4 satellites (less)
59
what is FDE - how many satellites - can it work with a faulty satellite
fault detection & exclusion 6 satellites still works with a faulty satellite
60
only a GPS with ___________ is approved for IFT flights because it has _________ integrity warnings if something goes wrong with the system
TSO C-129 RAIM
61
what is a VDF steer - what does it mean when ATC asks you to transmit for bearing
ATC uses planes radio signal to help them get un lost say your call sign slowly for 5 sec
62
does primary or secondary radar detect planes, weather, birds…
primary
63
secondary radar requires what in order to detect you
transponder
64
the CDI for RNAV shows _______ off track the CDI for VOR/ADF shows _______ off track
RNAV = distance off track VOR = degrees off track
65
the inertial navigation system (INS) has what 3 things to give you position, altitude, heading, ETA, speed, other information… how accurate is it accuracy decays by ______ NM per hour so must do position updates to ensure alignment throughout entire flight does it require ground stations to work (VOR, NDB, etc)
inertial platform + accelerometers + computer as accurate as your first initial programming decays 1-2 NM per hour no, it’s internal (plane itself) system
66
the flight management system (FMS) is like a multi sensor RNAV, it uses ______, ______ and ________ data from multiple sensors to make the best route does it require ground stations to work
navigation, atmosphere and fuel flow data yes
67
TACAN - who uses it - what frequency - what can civilians get from a TACAN
military UHF DME information only
68
how does a radar altimeter work when is it not accurate
radar on belly of plane broadcasts signal, bounces off ground, hits plane = distance AGL not accurate over water
69
what is the precision approach radar (PAR)
ATC has a horizontal and vertical screen to guide you for landing military only
70
when a pilot isn’t using the flight director system (arrows that tell you to follow this action), the pilot is using _______
raw data
71
the altitude warning system warns the pilot when there’s a _____ ft deviation
200 ft
72
the traffic alert and collision avoidance system (TCAS) uses _______ data and voice prompts if there’s a change of collision what does it require
secondary radar transponder
73
what is dependent (procedural) surveillance
pilot self reports position
74
a transponder has a _____, ______ and _______ antenna on belly of plane
controller transmitter/reciever L-band antenna
75
mode A transponder gives you what information
position
76
mode C transponder gives you what information
position + pressure altitude
77
mode S transponder gives you what information
position, pressure altitude, extra data + unique signature
78
transponder code ______ for IFR below 18 000 ASL
1000
79
transponder code ______ for IFR at or above 18 000 ASL
2000
80
transponder code 1200 for what
VFR below 12 500
81
transponder code 1400 for what
VFR above 12 500 ASL
82
what kind of transponder is needed for traffic and collision avoidance system (TCAS) for airliners
mode S
83
how does ADS-B work what kind of transponder do you need does it need ground radar to know your position
satellite tells your plane position -> your plane sends information to ATC and nearby planes mode S no, you know your position from the satellites not a ground stations
84
Aireon is a satellite ADS-B organization and has ______ Low Earth Orbit (LEO) satellites
66
85
UAT - what does it stand for - what frequency - altitude it’s for - what information can it get
universal access transverse 978 MHz below 18 000 ASL weather and traffic
86
1090 ES - what does it stand for - what transponder must you have - what frequency - altitude - what information can it get
mode s extended squitter transponder 1090 MHz above 18 000 ASL traffic only - no weather
87
what equipment do you need for ADS-B?
1. WAAS GPS reciever (how you get your position) 2. mode S extended squitter transponder or mode C or S transponder with UAT
88
is ADS-B In or Out required for USA
ADS-B Out (so everyone knows your location)
89
does 1090ES ADS-B In or 978UAT ADS-B In get traffic AND weather information
978 UAT
90
the traffic information service (TIS-B) that the ground station gives to you will give you traffic within _____NM diameter and _______ ft high
300 NM 3000 ft
91
how many receiving units are required from Multilaterataion (MLAT) to get your horizontal position
3
92