UWorld-Mixed Deck from All Subjects Flashcards Preview

Smart Book > UWorld-Mixed Deck from All Subjects > Flashcards

Flashcards in UWorld-Mixed Deck from All Subjects Deck (56):
1

anti-centromere antibodies are found in most patients with

CREST syndrome

2

what the classic triad of reactive arthritis and what HLA gene is it associated with

asymmetric aseptic arthritis, conjunctivitis, urethritis ("can't see can't pee can't bend my knee)

associated with HLA-B27 along with the other seronegative spondyloarthropathies

3

what kind of drug are nafcillin, methicillin and oxacillin and what general kind of infection/ pathogen do they usually treat

penicillinase-resistant penicillins;
they treat S. aureus (except MRSA) and are often used for skin, soft tissue and follicle infections

4

a child with intellectual disability and bilateral lens subluxation that dies of MI could have been treated with what

pyridoxine (vit B6) for homocysteinuria, most commonly caused by cystathione synthase deficiency, which is catalyzed by vitamin B6

5

what are two reasons that niacin can cause increase side effects when given to a patient on anti-hypertensive therapy

niacin potentiates anti-hypertensive drugs by causing vasodilation

niacin can cause hyperuricemia as can thiazides

6

winged scapula involves injury to what nerve

long thoracic nerve (innervation to serratus anterior)

7

what is the normal A-a gradient and what respiratory conditions involve a normal A-a gradient

10-15mmHg;
hypoventilation and high altitude have normal A-a gradient

8

ataxia, increased risk of sinopulmonary infections and telangiectasias are the classic triad for

ataxia telangiectasia

9

what effect does COPD have on cerebral vasculature

COPD causes rising pCO2 and hypercapnia causes cerebral vasodilation

10

what are entacapone and tolcapone, how do they work and what do they treat

COMT inhibitors;
they increase levodopa levels in the brain and are used to treat Parkinson's

11

what kind of UV do PABA esters absorb
what kind of UV do zinc oxide containing sunscreens absorb

PABA esters absorb UVB only;

zinc oxide containing sunscreens are broad-spectrum and absorb UVAI, UVAII and UVB

12

what kind of UV does avobenzone absorb

UVAI and UVAII

13

which DNA viruses are enveloped, which are naked

enveloped=herpes virus, hepadnavirus, and poxvirus

naked=picornavirus, adenovirus, papillomavirus, polyomavirus

14

which DNA viruses are circular

papillomavirus, polyomavirus are circular and hepadnavirus is partially circular

15

name two echinocandins and explain the mechanism of action

capsofungin and micafungin;
inhibit synthesis of beta-glucan, a component of fungal cell walls

16

a smoker comes down with an acute illness involving very high fever, confusion, diarrhea and headache;
gram-stain shows no bacteria; what is the causal pathogen and the disease

Legionella pneumophila causes Legionnaire's disease and often doesn't show up on gram-stain

17

what differentiates Tay Sachs (beta-hexosaminidase A deficiency) from Niemann-Pick (sphingomyelinase deficiency)

no hepatomegaly in Tay-Sachs

(note: cherry red spot on macula and progressive neurodegeneration seen in both)

18

bilateral accoustic neuromas are associated with what condition and what chromosome is affected

neurofibromatosis 2
NF2 gene on chromosome 22

19

streak ovaries (underdeveloped elongated ovaries) are a classic sign of what condition

Turner's syndrome

20

how do you calculate attributable risk percentage

ARP= (RR-1) / RR

21

where is ACE produced

mainly in the endothelial cells of the pulmonary vasculature

22

where is prostaglandin E1 produced and what does it do

prostaglandin E1 is a locally produced vasodilator produced by almost all tissues in the body

23

pigmented gallstones are an indication of what process

hemolytic anemia

24

which test models the relationship between a continuous dependent variable and continuous independent variable

linear regression

25

what statistical test compares the means of two groups of continuous variables

t-test

26

name three cardiac defects that produce a holosystolic murmur

VSD, tricuspid regurg. and mitral regurg.

27

renal angiomyolipomas and ash-leaf patches are associated with what condition

tuberous sclerosis

28

which DNA polymerase has 5' to 3' exonuclease activity

DNA polymerase I has both 3' to 5' and 5' to 3' exonuclease activity

29

how do benzodiazepines work;
which other psych drugs have a similar mechanism of action

allosterically binding GABAa receptor to increase Cl channel opening (causing hyperpolarization)

30

what kinds of receptors are GABAa, GABAb and GABAc

GABAa and GABAc are ion channels that increase Cl influx
GABAb is a G protein that (1) increases K+ efflux, (2) decreases Ca2+ influx and (3) inhibits adenylyl cyclase

31

what effect do loop diuretics have on prostaglandins

loop diuretics increase prostaglandin release, which leads to increased renal blood flow --> increased GFR

32

BMPR2 (bone morphogenic protein receptor type 2) predisposes to what condition

PAH (pulmonary artery hypertension)

33

name 6 drugs that are metabolized by CYP450

warfarin, phenytoin, propranolol, metoprolol, quinidine, theophylline

34

will a positive urease test show high or low pH

high;
urease converts urea to CO2 and ammonia

35

what part of the lung is most affected in chronic rejection

the small bronchioles (bronchiolitis obliterans)

36

what do Clara cells do

secrete clara cell secretory protein (which inhibits neutrophil recruitment and activation); precursors for goblet cells

37

direct bilirubin fraction of over 50% suggests

Dubin-Johnson syndrome with otherwise normal liver profile

38

what does ADH do to urea

ADH increases concentration of urea passive transporters in the inner medullary collecting duct

39

name two direct (selective) arteriolar vasodilators and list their side effects

hydralazine and minoxidil;
since they only dilate arterioles and not the venous system they can cause reflex tachycardia and sodium retention

40

most common side effect of inhaled glucocorticoids (fluticasone, beclomethasone, flunisolide)

oral candidiasis

41

which medication helps decrease risk of adenomatous polyp formation and via what mechanism

aspirin;
COX-2 overexpression has been implicated in recurrence of adenomatous polyp formation so aspirin blocks COX-2, thereby reducing risk

42

for what issues can a minor give consent for medical treatment without parental permission

pregnancy, birth control, STDs, alcohol or drug addiction

43

which of the immune cells are acutely increased after glucocortiocoid administration

neutrophils; demargination of neutrophils that were previously attached to vessel walls is induced acutely by glucocorticoids
all other immune cells are decreased rather than increased during this time

44

deficiency of what vitamin causes peripheral neuropathy, cardiomegaly, congestive heart failure and tachycardia

this is wet beriberi;
B1

45

how does dextrans facilitate strep viridans infection

dextrans is synthesized by strep viridans and it allows the pathogen to adhere to fibrin

46

name some symptoms you would expect from systemic mastocytosis

gastric acid hypersecretion, diarrhea, flushing, pruritus, rash (all the things H1 and H2 receptors mediate)

47

how would you treat drug-induced parkinsonism vs. how would you treat Parkinson's disease

drug-induced parkinsonism is caused by D2 antagonism by antipsychotics; treat with benztropine (antimuscarinic) not D2 agonists like levodopa or bromocriptine b/c they allow psychosis to reemerge

Parkinson's is treated with levodopa/carbidopa or bromocriptine (as well as selegiline) and benztropine can also be used (to curb disinhibited ACh actvitity)

48

bronchoaveolar lavage of the lungs of a patient with sarcoidosis will have an abnormal predominance of what cell type

CD4+ cells

49

what are the relative values of calcium and PTH compared to normal in osteoporosis

both Ca2+ and PTH are normal;
the loss in bone density and interconnections is due to increased bone resoprtion/decreased bone formation due to other causes

50

what kinds of molecules are c-Jun and c-Fos

nuclear transcription factors that bind DNA and promote oncogenic activity when mutated

51

the oxidative part of the HMP shunt (involving G6PD-mediated generation of NADPH) is most important for what sites in the body

adrenal cortex, mammary glands, liver and RBCs (sites of fatty acid or steroid synthesis)

52

cauda equina syndrome involves damage to what nerve roots

S2-S4

53

anal wink reflex (anocutaneous reflex) is mediated by what nerve root

S4

54

which drugs prolong QT?
of these drugs which has the lowest risk of torsades de pointe?

Class 1A (quinidine, procainimide, disopyramide) and Class III (amiodarone, ibutilide, dofetilide, and sotolol)

of these amiodarone is associated with a low incidence of Torsades

55

BRAF is associated with what cancer

oncogene associated with melanoma
(note: p16 is a tumor suppressor associated with melanoma)

56

you want to treat your patient for an allergic rash, but your patient has a medical history of poor vision and frequent falls; what would you use

second generation anti-histamines (fexofenadine, loratadine, desloratadine, and certirizine) have less antimuscarinic (blurry vision), less sedative, and less antiadrenergic (postural dizziness) effects