UWorld- Endo/Biochem Flashcards Preview

Smart Book > UWorld- Endo/Biochem > Flashcards

Flashcards in UWorld- Endo/Biochem Deck (64):
1

what kind of transport is responsible for glucose movement through cell membranes

carrier-mediated transport (the membrane proteins change conformation, but don't use energy), which is a form of facilitated diffusion

2

what enantiomer of glucose is preferred by GLUT molecules

D-glucose

3

what is the most common cause of elevated AFP on triple test

dating error (underestimated gestational age, because AFP rises with gestational age)

4

list the three domains of proinsulin, and describe what has to happen to generate the mature form of insulin

proinsulin= N-terminal B chain, C peptide connects the two flanking chains, C-terminal A chain
beta cell peptidases cleave C peptide out to form mature insulin

5

what kind of drug is glyburide and what does it do

sulfonylureas
1st gen: tolbutamide and chlorpropamide
2nd gen: glyburide, glimepiride, glipizide

sulfonylureas increase insulin secretion (by closing beta cell K+ channel to depolarize membrane and increase Ca influx)

6

what kind of drug is risperidone and what specific side effect is it known for

risperidone is an atypical antipsychotic (D2 receptor antagonist)
side effect= increased prolactin

7

what's the difference between the kinds of proteins that are synthesized in ribosomes attached to the RER vs. free ribosomes

free ribosomes synthesize cytosolic proteins/ proteins for organelles

RER ribosomes synthesize secretory, membrane-bound and lysosomal proteins

8

where is the sodium-iodide symporter (NIS) found and what molecules compete with iodide to be taken up

NIS is found in the basolateral membrane of the thyroid follicular cell

anions like perchlorate, pertechnetate and thiocyanate compete with iodide for uptake by NIS from the blood

9

would giving exogenous T3 to a patient with primary hypothyroidism cause increased or decreased levels of rT3

decreased rT3:
normally TSH upregulates T4, which is converted either to T3 or rT3. T3 cannot be converted to T4 or to rT3. T3 is the active form, but it also negatively feeds back on TRH and TSH levels. This would decrease T4 and thereby decrease rT3

10

how does elevated estrogen cause an initial growth spurt, but short stature in adulthood

in childhood and during puberty estrogen increases linear bone growth, but also mediates closure of the epiphyseal plates so linear bone growth will end earlier leading to short stature in adulthood

11

what are the endocrine toxicities of amiodarone and why is this the case

amiodarone can cause hyperthyroidism/hypothyroidism because it is 40% iodine by weight

12

what amino acids are safe to be supplemented to a patient with pyruvate dehydrogenase deficiency and why

leucine and lysine are save to give a PDH deficiency patient because they are ketogenic and not glucogenic (meaning they produce only acetoacetate and its precursors, not pyruvate or any TCA cycle intermediates)

13

why do septic shock patients usually become acidotic

septic shock-related hypoperfusion leads to decreased oxidative phosphorylation and in the absence of oxidative phosphorylation pyruvate gets converted to lactate (by lactate dehydrogenase)

14

describe the polyol pathway that metabolizes glucose in the lens (include enzymes)

glucose gets taken up by cells in the lens and converted to sorbitol via aldose reductase; sorbitol is then converted to fructose via sorbitol dehydrogenase

15

how does hyperglycemia cause cataracts (explain the pathophysiology using the polyol pathway)

under normal conditions the limited forward reactivity of the sorbitol to fructose part of the pathway allows sorbitol to be cleared from the eye
in a hyperglycemic patient build up of glucose causes build up of sorbitol that overwhelms sorbitol dehydrogenase
increased sorbitol increases osmotic pressure leading to influx of fluid into lens and consequent hydropic fibers of lens that degenerate causing opacities

16

what is flutamide and how does it work

flutamide is a non-steroidal anti-androgen drug
it competitively inhibits androgen receptors by competing with testosterone and DHT to treat prostate cancer

17

what is finasteride and how does it work
what does it treat

finasteride is a 5-alpha reductase inhibitor used to block conversion of testosterone to DHT
used to treat BPH and male-patterned baldness

18

what does IGF-1 from the liver vs. from the hypothalamus do?

IGF-1 from the liver promotes bone growth
IGF-1 from the hypothalamus regulates CNS activity

19

what causes decreased potassium in a DKA patient and why does this sometimes result in normal net serum potassium balance

diuresis due to glycosuria wastes potassium;
acidosis causes outflux of potassium in order to shift H+ into of cells

20

why do you have to worry about exacerbating hypokalemia while giving insulin to treat

the DKA patient probably already has a decreased overall potassium content due to K+ wasting in the kidney; once the acidosis is fixed K+ will shift back into the cell and can cause hypokalemia as a result

21

a patient with Lynch syndrome has a defect in what cellular process

nucleotide mismatch repair

22

An older patient with atherosclerotic disease has cells with intracytoplasmic granules that are yellowish-brown in color. What is the molecule behind this pigment and what process causes it?

lipofuschin (natural result of aging and "wear and tear") results from lipid peroxidation and free radical injury

23

explain why a certain drug might reach higher serum levels when administered per rectum than when taken orally

a drug with high first-pass metabolism (metabolism by liver) would have low bioavailability (percent reaching the serum) because the gastric vessels drain through the portal system, but 2/3 of the rectal venous drainage goes straight to the systemic venous system via the internal iliacs

24

which amino acids and which other molecules are metabolized to form propionyl-CoA

valine, isoleucine, methionine, and threonine as well as odd-chain fatty acids and cholesterol side chains are metabolized to form propionyl-CoA

25

what do ApoE3 and ApoE4 do?

VLDL and chylomicron remnant uptake by hepatocytes

26

what vitamin would you want to give to a patient with measles

vitamin A

27

what enzyme converts norepinephrine to epinephrine

PNMT (phenylethanolamine-N-methyltransferase)

28

synthesis of ALA synthase is normally inhibited by what

heme

29

which amino acids have three titratable protons

histidine, arginine, lysine, glutamate, aspartate, tyrosine, cysteine

30

which monosaccharide (and in what form) has the highest rate of metabolism and why

F-1-P;
it bypasses the rate-limiting step of phosphofructokinase-catalyzed conversion of F-6-P to F-1,6-BP

31

what is the most common amino acid found in collagen

glycine (it is at least every third amino acid in the chain)

32

what's a common side effect of thiazolidinediones

fluid retention, weight gain and edema

33

in addition to treating beta-adrenergic effects, how else does propranolol treat hyperthyroidism

propranolol decreases peripheral conversion of T4 to T3 (mechanism unknown)

34

what kind of cell is most common in the pituitary vs. what kind of adenoma is most common

somatotrophs (GH secreting) are most common normally
prolactinomas are the most common pituitary tumor

35

what electrolyte (chem 7) differences would you expect between primary and secondary adrenal insufficiency

in primary adrenal insufficiency all 3 zones of the cortex are out ==> hyponatremia, hyperkalemia, hypochloremia and metabolic acidosis
in secondary adrenal insufficiency mineralocorticoid production is usually spared so these patients usually don't develop hyperkalemia or metabolic acidosis

36

through what cytokine do thiazolidinediones exert their therapeutic effect and how

thiazolidinediones (aka glitazones) bind and upregulate PPAR-gamma (an intracellular nuclear receptor) which increases adiponectin (a cytokine) levels leading to decreased insulin resistance

37

in what kind of thyroid cancer would you see Hurthle cells (large cells with eosinophilic cytoplasm)
what form of hypothyroidism also shows Hurthle cells

follicular thyroid carcinoma;
Hashimoto's thyroiditis

38

name two histologic features that differentiate papillary thyroid carcinoma from follicular thyroid carcinoma

papillary thyroid carcinoma has psammoma bodies (concentrically calcified structures) and ground glass, grooved nuclei

39

describe the molecular pathway by which insulin promotes glycogen synthesis

insulin bind the receptor which is a tyrosine kinase --> tyrosine kinase phosphorylates insulin receptor substrate which phosphorylates protein phosphatase--> protein phosphatase dephosphorylates and thereby activates glycogen synthase
--> upregulated glycogen synthesis

40

besides activating glycogen synthase, what else does protein phosphatase do (in regard to metabolic pathways)

protein phosphatase dephosphorylates and thereby inactivates F-1,6-BP, which is necessary for gluconeogensis
(so protein phosphatase inhibits gluconeogenesis)

41

what's an easy way to differentiate between 21-hydroxylase and 11-beta-hydroxylase deficiency

both 21-hydroxylase deficiency and 11-beta-hydroxylase deficiency cause female virilization, but in 21-hydroxylase there is hypotension and hyperkalemia due to absent mineralocorticoids;
where is 11-beta-hydroxylase there is hypertension (and low renin) since 11-deoxycorticosterone is increased and has mineralocorticoid activity

42

what are three classic findings for glucagonoma

diabetes mellitus, necrolytic erythema and anemia

43

jejunal ulcers should make you think of what tumor

gastrinoma

44

what are the 3 ways that PTH increases serum calcium

1. increases bone resorption through osteoclast activity
2. increases gut absorption of calcium via activation of vitamin D
3. increases Ca2+ reabsorption in the DCT

45

in patients with fructose intolerance what enzyme can allow for some fructose to still be metabolized for glycogen synthesis

hexokinase converts fructose to F-6-P, which can then be converted to glucose for glycogen synthesis or F-1,6-BP for glycolysis

46

fatigue, weight loss with normal or increased food intake, polyuria, and polydipsia in a young physically active individual suggests what disease and what would you do to test for it

type 1 DM;
test with fasting blood glucose

47

describe sensors that lead to ADH secretion

osmoreceptors in the hypothalamus and baroreceptors in the carotids and atria

48

how can you distinguish between central DI and nephrogenic DI

on water restriction test administer DDAVP and observe whether the urine becomes even more concentrated;
if it does= central DI
if nothing changes=nephrogenic DI (unresponsive receptors to ADH)

49

delayed puberty plus anosmia is suggestive of what disease?
what is the etiology?

Kallman syndrome;
caused by mutation of KAL-1 gene or FGFR-1 gene leading to failure of GnRH secreting neurons to migrate from the olfactory placode to the hypothalamus

50

A female patient has amenorrhea due to prolactinoma. What complication or sequelae of a microprolactinoma (less than 10mm in size) would she have to worry about if she opted not to treat

osteoporosis due to downregulation of GnRH which leads to decreased FSH and LH and thereby decreased estrogen, which is important for bone density

51

how does the hypothalamus regulate prolactin secretion

dopamine, secreted from the hypothalamus acts on D2 receptors in the lactotrophs to downregulate prolactin secretion

52

what is tachyphylaxis

tachyphylaxis (aka rapid drug tolerance) is decreased response to a drug after repeated administration

53

what is permissive effect (with regards to drug interactions)

when one molecule has a permissive effect on another drug it allows that other drug to reach its full potential
(e.g. NE, when administered with cortisol has a greater effect on vasoconstriction than NE administered alone; note that cortisol by itself has no vasopressive actions)

54

in the TCA cycle which steps produce NADH?
which produce FADH2?
which produce GTP?

-NADH is generated by the 3 reactions catalyzed by isocitrate dehydrogenase, alpha-ketoglutarate dehydrogenase and malate dehydrogenase
-FADH2 is produced by rxn catalyzed by succinate dehydrogenase (succinate to fumarate)
-GTP is produced by rxn of succinyl-CoA to succinate (catalyzed by succinate thiokinase aka succinyl-CoA synthetase)

55

explain how pyruvate is converted to PEP in gluconeogenesis

1. pyruvate is first converted to oxaloacetate by pyruvate carboxylase
2. oxaloacetate is converted to PEP by PEP carboxykinase
(note: oxaloacetate cannot cross the mitochondrial membrane so it must either first be converted to PEP from within the mitochondria and then transported or must be transported as malate or aspartate to cytosol where cytosolic PEPCK can catalyze the rxn)

56

what are neurophysins

carriers of ADH and oxytocin that carry them from hypothalamus to posterior pituitary

57

what do acarbose and miglitol inhibit and where on the cell is it located

acarbose and miglitol treat T2DM by inhibiting alpha-glucosidase (a disaccharidase)

58

what is the medication of choice for treatment of gestational diabetes mellitus

insulin

59

why are non-selective beta blockers contraindicated in diabetes patients?
what kind of beta blocker could you use and why?

in response to hypoglycemia, the body releases Epi and NE to stimulate glucose production and decrease peripheral glucose use;
non-selective beta blockers block the adrenergic effects of Epi and NE, masking and exacerbating hypoglycemia

60

what embryologic process causes lingual thyroid

failure of the thyroid gland to migrate properly ==> sublingual thyroid that must be surgically removed to avoid asphyxiation

61

explain the metyrapone stimulation test

metyrapone test is used to determine if the HPA axis is functioning normally or not;
metyrapone inhibits 11-beta-hydroxylase, thereby increasing ACTH stimulation via low cortisol;
if the patient is normal, build up of 11-deoxycortisol (which doesn't inhibit ACTH) will lead to increased 17-hyxdroxycorticosteroids in the urine, which can be measured;
if the patient has abnormal HPA axis function the metyrapone will not elicit increased urine 17-hydroxycorticosteroids

62

mononuclear infiltration with germinal centers and a diffusely enlarged thyroid on physical exam is characteristic of what thyroid disease

Hashimoto's thyroiditis

63

what enzyme in the kidney converts 25-hydroxycholecalciferol to 1,25-dihydroxycholecalciferol

1-alpha-hydroxylase

64

from what cells does medullary thyroid carcinoma arise and what does it look like on histology with stain

medullary thyroid carcinoma arises from parafollicular calcitonin-secreting C cells;
on histology medullary thyroid carcinoma appears as polygonal or spindle shaped cells with extracellular amyloid deposits (amyloid stains with Congo red)