5/10 Flashcards

(62 cards)

1
Q

causes of target cells

A
HbC disease
Asplenia
Liver disease
Thalassemia
(HALT)
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2
Q

causes of echinocytes “burr cell”

A

End stage renal disease
liver disease
pyruvate kinase deficiency

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3
Q

Howell-Jolly bodies

A

basophilic nuclear remnants in RBCs

seen in asplenia or hyposplenia (because normally spleen macrophages remove them)

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4
Q

acute intermittent porphyria enzyme defect

A

porphobilinogen deaminase

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5
Q

acute intermittent porphyria symptoms

A

abdominal pain
wine colored urine
polyneuropathy
psych disturbances

precipitated by drugs, alcohol, starvation

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6
Q

porphyria cutanea tarda enzyme defected and symotoms

A

uroporphyrinogen decarboxylase

tea-colored urine
blistering photosensitivity

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7
Q

lead poisoning enzymes defect

A

ALA dehydratase

ferrochelatase

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8
Q

which protein helps retrograde transport of herpes virus (periphery–> CNS) and which protein helps anterograde transport of herpes (reactivation)?

A

retrograde- dyenin

anterograde- kinesin

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9
Q

what do you measure in amniotic fluid to test for neural tube defects?

A

elevated AFP

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10
Q

what do you measure in amniotic fluid to test for fetal lung maturity

A

phospholipids (pulmonary surfactant)

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11
Q

phenytoin Tx

A

gingival hyperplasia
CNS effects- ataxia, nystagmus
megaloblastic anemia
if pregnant–> fetal hydrantoin syndrome

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12
Q

what should you think when you hear calf swelling and then dyspnea?

A

pulmonary embolism

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13
Q

what are the blood gases with pulmonary embolism

A

respiratory alkalosis-
high pH, low CO2, low bicarb
hypoxemia from VQ mismatch

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14
Q

what is special about d-xylose?

A

monosaccharide that doesnt use pancreatic exocrine activity

can be used to differentiate between pancreatic insufficiency and mucosal malabsorption causes

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15
Q

what does the carpal tunnel contain?

A

flexor digitorum profundus tendons
flexor digitorum superficialis tendons
flexor policis longus tendon
median nerve

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16
Q

what should you incise in carpal tunnel syndrome

A

transverse carpal ligament (to relieve some pressure)

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17
Q

Antiphospholipid syndrome symptoms

A

DVT, PE, ischemic attacks

miscarriages!

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18
Q

risk factors for transitional cell carcinoma

A

smoking

occupational exposure- rubber, plastics, aromatic amine dyes, textiles, leather

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19
Q

damage to femoral nerve causes…

A
weak quads
weak ilipsoas
knee buckling- stairs difficulty
diminished patella reflex
sensory loss over anterior and medial thigh, and medial leg
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20
Q

which artery has an aneurym in CN III palsy

A

posterior communicating artery

on ipsilateral side

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21
Q

when and where is S3 best heard

A

during diastole, after S2, at end expiration
with bell at apex
in left lateral decubitus position

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22
Q

what are the sources of alkaline secretions in the duodenum

A

submucosal brunners glands

pancreatic secretions to the ampulla

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23
Q

staph scalded skin syndrome’s virulence factor

A

exotoxin

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24
Q

management of somatic symptom disorder

A

schedule regular visits with same provider

limit referrals and extra tests

legitimize symptoms

only mental health referral once relationship built

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25
chancroid
painful penis ulcer with ragged borders and grey exudate sex contact by gram neg bacteria- Haemophilus ducreyi
26
chlorthalidone MOA and Tx
MOA- thiazide diuretic Tx- reduce insulin--> high glucose, LDL cholesterol
27
newer generation antihistamines
loratadine, cetirizine less side effects, safer in elderly
28
if male athlete suddenly gets acne, what should you think?
steroids- methyltestosterone for example
29
which type of cancer do people with down's have increased risk?
ALL, and AML
30
what do small cell lung carcinomas stain for
``` neuroendorcine markers: neural cell adhesion molecule (NCAM) enolase chromogranin synaptophysin ```
31
dermatomyositis
autoimmune inflammatory disease proximal muscle weakness, heliotrope rash may occur alone or associated with malignancy (ovarian, lung, colorectal, non-Hodgkin lymphoma)
32
ionizing radiation MOA
cause double strand DNA breaks
33
in what way is vitamin K helpful for coag factors
cofactor for gamma-glutamyl carboxylase, which carboxylates coag factors 2,7,9,10
34
multidrug resistance genes encodes for...
P-glycoprotein, transmembrane ATP- dep efflux pump cancers use this to pump out chemo drugs (hydrophobic)
35
CO poisoning affects...
increase in carboxyhemoglobin decrease in oxygen carrying capacity and oxygen content in blood but NO CHANGE in oxygen dissolved in plasma (partial pressure) no effect on methemoglobin (drug toxicities...)
36
HFE mutation causes
hemochromatosis affects HFE protein that interacts with transferritin to detect iron levels leads to iron overload by increasing iron absorption from GI (decrease hepcidin and increase DMT1)
37
CD14
surface marker of monocyte/macrophages present in granulomas of TB
38
what happens when Rb phosphorylated
releasese E2F txn factor G1-->S
39
difference between pilocytic astrocytomas and medulloblastomas on imaging and prognosis?
pilo: solid and cystic parts, good prognosis med: only solid; bad prognosis
40
Haldane effect
in lungs: binding of O2 causes release of protons and CO2 from Hb
41
Bohr effect
in peripheral tissues: high CO2 and H+ causes release of oxygen from Hb
42
pathway of neural crest cells in GI
move caudally along vagal fibers- finish at the rectum by 12 weeks form the myenteric and meissner plexus
43
most common benign liver tumor
cavernous hemangioma (blood filled spaces)
44
antidote to rat poison
since most rat poisons contain brodifacoum (super-warfarin), antidote is fresh frozen plasma (immediate) and vitamin K (longer term)
45
phenotypic mixing
the acquisition of a new viral surface protein to infect a new host but because no genetic exchange or change, the progeny will revert to not being able to bind that new host
46
CMV esophagitis morphology
shallow ulcers with intranuclear inclusion bodies
47
where does renal clear cell carcinoma originate from in the kidney?
proximal tubules
48
DNA pol I vs II vs III functions
all have 3'-->5' exonuclease activity (remove mismatched nucleotides) DNA pol I has added 5'-->3' exonuclease activity (remove RNA primer)
49
which nerves are affected by injection between anterior and middle scalenes?
brachial plexus roots and trunks (eg. phrenic)
50
which nerves are affected temoromandibular disorder?
V3- mandible
51
lactate dehydrogenase deficiency
glycolysis is inhibited in strenuously exercising muscle because NAD+ cant be regenerated in the normal pyruvate --> lactate pathway
52
what is weak in direct hernia?
transversalis fascia
53
what type of hemolysis in enterococcus?
gamma hemolytic
54
pure red cell aplasia
rare form of marrow failure - severe hypoplasia of erythroid precursors but normal platelets and granulocytes associated with thymomas, lymphocytic leukemias, and parvovirus b19
55
why is hep C genetically unstable
no proofreading 3'-->5' exonuclease activity
56
how to best treat drug-induced parkisonism
centrally acting antimuscarinic agent (trihexyphidyl, benztropine)
57
most common cystic fibrosis mutation
F508- impaired posttranscriptional processing of CFTR
58
what does chronic rejection look like in lung vs kidney
lung- inflammation of small bronchioles kidney- vascluar obliteration
59
conductive vs sensorineural hearing loss
c: impaired transmission of air vibration to inner ear s: involves cochlea, or auditory nerve
60
rinne test
compares hearing vibration at external auditory meatus (air conduction) versus mastoid process (bone conduction) air conduction is normally louder than bone conduction so if someone hears mastoid better--> conductive hearing loss
61
weber test
put vibrating fork on top of head sensorineural hearing loss: unaffected side will hear vibration better conductive hearing loss: affected side will hear vibration better
62
how can lithium toxicities be precipitated?
volume depletion | drugs- thiazide diuretics, ACEI, NSAIDs