5/9 Flashcards

(50 cards)

1
Q

lead antidotes

A

adult: dimercaprol, EDTA
kid: succimer

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2
Q

meds that lead to increased falls

A
antipsychotics
antidepressants
benzos
CCB
NSAIDS
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3
Q

relative risk > 1 and <1 means what?

A

> 1- there is an association of exposure with increased risk of disease

<1- association of exposure with decreased risk of disease

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4
Q

pramipexole MOA and Rx

A

Parkisons

dopamine agonist

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5
Q

Barr body

A

inactivated x-chromosome into heterochromatin (heavily methylated DNA and HDAC)

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6
Q

xeroderma pigmentosum

A

aut rec defect in nucleotide excision repair

UV causes thymidine dimers which are then normally excised by endonucleases

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7
Q

can you get hallucinations in narcolepsy?

A

yes

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8
Q

most common cardiac defects in Downs

A

ASD, VSD (atrioventricular canal defects)

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9
Q

most common cardiac defects in DiGeorge’s

A

tetralogy of fallot
truncus arteriosus
transposition of great vessels

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10
Q

postexposure prophylaxis of rabies

A

rabbies Ig and inactivated vaccination

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11
Q

what surgery can accidentally cut the long thoracic nerve?

A

dissection of the axillary lymph nodes

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12
Q

which enzyme activates trypsinogen—>trypsin at duodenal brush border

A

enteropeptidase

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13
Q

what is the most sensitive screening test for hypothyrodism

A

serum TSH

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14
Q

incretins

A

hormones by gut mucosa that stimulate pancreatic insulin production in response to sugar meal (ingested orally, not IV)

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15
Q

serious tx of nitroprusside

A

cyanide poisoning- binds Fe3+ to cyt c oxidase, inhibitng electron transport chain

altered mentally, seizures, CV collapse, lactic acidosis, bright red venous blood

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16
Q

3 strategies of antidote for cyanide poisoning

A

1) hydroxycobalamin- direct binding of cyanide ions
2) sodium nitrite- induce methemoglobinemia
3) sodium thiosulfate- detoxifying sulfur

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17
Q

what’s anatomical landmark for lumbar puncture

A

iliac crest to get in the spinal cord around L3-5

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18
Q

most common way of getting bacillus anthracis

A

working with livestock- sheep!

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19
Q

peroxisomal diseases

A

peroxisomes absent/nonfunctional

long chain fatty acids cant undergo mitochondrial oxidation - beta or alpha

lead to neuro effects- improper CNS myelination

two types- Zellweger, Refsum

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20
Q

prussian blue staining detects

A

intracellular iron

–> hemosiderin laden macrophages

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21
Q

orotic acid

A

aut rec UMP synthase defect

cant covert orotic acid to UMP (pyrimidine synthesis)

FTT, developmental delay, megaloblastic anemia

22
Q

diamond-Blackfan anemia

A

defect in erythroid progenitor cells

rapid onsent macrocytic anemia, high HbF

short, craniofacial abnormalities

23
Q

cold agglutinin autoimmune hemolytic anemia

A

IgM attacks RBCs– anemia triggered by cold

associated with ALL, Mono, mycoplasma pneumoniae

24
Q

warm agglutinin autoimmune hemolytic anemia

A

IgG attacks RBCs

seen with CLL, SLE, drugs (methyldopa)

25
Extravascular hemolysis normocytic anemias
``` Hereditary spherocytosis Pyruvate kinase def HbC disease Sickle Cell Autoimmune hemolytic anemia- IgG ```
26
Intravascular hemolysis normocytic anemias
``` G6PD def PNH some sickle cell microangiopathyic anemia infections ```
27
RNA pol I function
make ribosomes in the nucleolus
28
alk phos levels in CML vs leukemoid reaction
alk phos decreased in CML normal/increased in leukemoid reaction
29
oxygen values in methemoglobinemia (Fe3+) and cause
nitrites poisoning (fe2-->fe3+ which cannot carry oxygen) total O2 content decreased %saturation decreased oxygen carrying capacity decreased partial pressure of oxygen in blood same!
30
which cytokine causes symptoms of cachexia (anorexia, malasie, weight loss, wasting)
TNFalpha
31
PD-1
programmed death receptor- expressed on T cells once bind to PD-L1, signals to inhibit cytotoxic T cells cancer up regulates this to evade immune system anti-PD1 therapy used so T cells can fight
32
conditons that induce sickling in sickle cell anemia
low O2 high altitude acidosis
33
RNA interference
short non-coding RNA sequences induce posttranscriptional gene silencing miRNA or siRNA in the cytoplasm after transcription: 1) cleaved by a dicer, 2)incorporated into RISC 3)complementary binds mRNA 4)degradation or translational repression
34
atropine Rx
bradycardia
35
elastin formation
1) large polypeptide precursor of nonpolar amino acids and proline and lysine 2 interacts with fibrillin in ECM 3) lysyl oxidase deaminates some lysine residues--> desmosine cross links
36
oocytes arrested before fertilization
secondary oocytes- metaphase of Meiosis II
37
oocytes arrested before ovulation
primary oocytes- prophase meiosis I
38
umbilical hernia
incomplete closure of umbilical ring--> defect in linea alba --> protrude bowel through abdomen
39
how many months can patients have viable sperm after a vasectomy
3 months
40
negatively skewed- order mean, median, mode
mode>median>mean
41
positively skewed- order mean, median, mode
mean>median>mode
42
how are carcinogens that enter the body activated?
CYP p450 system- microsomal monooxygenase
43
prepatellar bursitis
due to repetitive kneeling bursa forms between patella and skin to alleviate pressure
44
spinda bifida is what type of inheritance?
multifactorial
45
genes involved in the advancement of colon adenocarcinoma
1) APC --> hyperproliferative epithelium 2) KRAS --> adenoma 3) TP53--> adenocarcinoma
46
Atenolol MOA
selective B1 antagonist (Gs) decreases cAMP in cardiac and renal tissue (not vascular smooth muscle)
47
porcelain gallbladder
found incidentally- rim of calcium outlining gallbladder associated with chronic cholecystitis can increase risk for gallbladder cancer
48
acalculous cholecystitis
acute inflamm of gallbladdder without gallstones in critically ill patients- sepsis, burns, trauma fever, RUQ pain, leukocytosis
49
what structure divides direct and indirect inguinal herians
epigastric vessel indirect- lateral- processus vaginals fails direct- medial- Hesselbachs triangle
50
why some vaccines given with tetanus toxoid?
protein induces T-cell mediated response