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Uworld > Test 26: Immunology/Microbiology > Flashcards

Test 26: Immunology/Microbiology Flashcards

1
Q

Neurofibrillary tangles in neocortex are seen in what disease

A

Alzheimer

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2
Q

Loss of neurons in substantia nigra is characteristic of what disease

A

Parkinson disease

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3
Q

Atrophy of caudate nucleus is seen in what disease

A

Huntington disease

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4
Q

Posterior column degeneration is seen in what

A

Vitamin B12 deficiency

Syphilis

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5
Q

Presence of Lewy bodies is characteristic of what

A

Parkinsonism

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6
Q

Ataxia-Telangiectasia

- how is it inherited

A

autosomal recessive

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7
Q

Ataxia-Telangiectasia clinical symptoms

A
  • cerebellar ataxia
  • oculocutaneous telangiectasias
  • repeated sinopulmonary infections
  • increased incidence of malignancy
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8
Q

What is the most common eye-related complication of congenital cytomegalovirus

A

Chorioretinitis

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9
Q

When is the highest risk of transmission of CMV during pregnancy

A

first trimester

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10
Q

What is choroidal nevus

A
  • eye freckle
  • non hereditary
  • benign pigmented area underneath the retina
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11
Q

classic triad for rubella infection

A
  1. congenital cataracts
  2. Sensory neural defect
  3. Patent ductus arteriosus
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12
Q

How do humans get Schistosomoiasis

A

freshwater sources that contain snails infected with Schistosoma larvae.

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13
Q

what do
S. Japonicum
S. Mansoni
S haematobium cause

A

S. Japonicum and S. Mansoni cause intestinal and hepatic schistosomiasis

S. haematobium causes urinary schistosomiasis (mild bilateral hydronephrosis and bladder wall thickening)

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14
Q

what is the immune response for Schistosomiasis

A

Th2-mediated granulomatous response directed against the egg

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15
Q

Bata are a major reservoir for what virus

A

rabies virus

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16
Q

What dog tapeworm Echinococcus granulosus is the most common cause of what

A

hydatid cysts in humans

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17
Q

Infection of human tapeworm usually results in

A

Vitamin B12 deficiency and megaloblastic anemia

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18
Q

Location of S. Haematobium

A

North Africa
Sub-Saharan Africa
Middle East

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19
Q

Pneumococcal conjugate vaccine are strongly immunogenic in who and what response do they get

A

infancy due to B and T cell recruitment

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20
Q

Insect sting results in what type of hypersensitivity reaction

A

Type I

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21
Q

Describe the cutaneous findings consistent with a wheal

A

single lesion of urticaria ( erythematous papule or plaque with central pallor)

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22
Q

In insect sting, Antibody class switches to what

A

IgE

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23
Q

Where can lysozymes be found

A

tears
saliva
granules in neutrophils

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24
Q

function of lysozyme

A

hydrolyzing bonds in the peptidoglycan cell walls of bacterial organisms

25
Q

who produces TNF-alpha

A

macrophages and mast cells

26
Q

Function of TNF-alpha

A
  • signal for apoptosis of tumor cells

- activation of inflammatory cell

27
Q

MOA of Infliximab and Etanercept

A

humanized anti-TNF immunoglobulins

- reduce inflammation by binding TNF

28
Q

C3b plays a role in what type of hypersensitivity

A

Type III

29
Q

IL-2 is a cytokine produced by who?

A

Th1-lymphocytes

30
Q

IL-2 signals for what

A

proliferation of increased activity of Th and TC lymphocytes, NK cells

31
Q

role of Th1 cells

A

inducing macrophage and cytotoxic T-lymphocyte mediated inflammation

32
Q

role of TH2 cells

A

induce humoral immunity

33
Q

What cytokine signals for TH2 cells

A

IL-4

34
Q

Which Ig crosses breast milk

A

IgA

35
Q

What initiates IgM to switch to IgE

A

Il-4 from B-lymphocytes

36
Q

What is the key immunoglobulin in providing immunity against bacterial toxins

A

IgG

37
Q

common clinical results for Hyper-IgM syndrome

A
  • lymphoid hyperplasia

- recurrent sinopulmonary infections

38
Q

What can cause Hyper-IgM syndrome

A
  • genetic absence of CD-40 ligand on T-lymphocytes

- genetic deficiency in enzymes responsible for DNA modification during isotype swtiching

39
Q

Role of IL-10

A
  • anti-inflammatory
  • immunomodulatory
  • inhibits Th1 cytokines
  • reduces MHC-II expression
  • suppression of activated macrophages and dendritic cells
40
Q

Who secretes IL-10

A

Regulatory T cells

41
Q

Who produces IL-1

A

macrophages and epithelial cells

42
Q

Role of IL-1

A
  • Fever
  • endothelium activation ( express adhesion molecules)
  • increased chemokine expression (promoting leukocyte recruitment)
43
Q

Who secretes IL-5

A

Th2 Cells

44
Q

role of IL-5

A
  • promotes humoral response by stimulating B cells and increasing IgA production
45
Q

role of IL-12

A
  • induces differentiation of Th1 cells

- activation of NK cells

46
Q

who secretes IL-12

A

macrophages

47
Q

Who secretes Interferon-gamma

A

Th1

48
Q

Who produces TNF-alpha

A

macrophages, NK, T cells

49
Q

CD8+ cells recognize foreign antigens presented with what protien

A

MHC class I proteins

50
Q

Each MCH class I molecule consists of what

A

heavy chain

Beta2- microglobulin

51
Q

Structure of MCH Class II

A

alpha and beta polypeptide chaines

52
Q

antigen presentation of MHC class I results in

A

apoptosis of the presenting cell

53
Q

Antigen presentation of MHC class II results in

A
  • activation of TH cells –> stimulate humoral and cell-mediated immune responses
54
Q

What is cold agglutinins

A

antibodies specific from red blood cells that only cause agglutination, or clumping, of red cells at low temperatures

55
Q

What illnesses cause cold agglutinins

A

Mycoplasma penumoniae
EBC infection
hematologic malignancy

56
Q

What is the most common cause of febrile seizures

A

Human herpesvirus 6 (Roseola)

57
Q

clinical presentation for Human herpesviurs 6 (roseola)

A

fever for 3-5 days

followed by truncal rash

58
Q

What is the most common presentation of Cryptococcus neoformans infections

A

Meningoencephalitis

59
Q

How is Cryptococcal pneumonia diagnosed

A

mucicarmine staining of lung tissue and bronchoalveolar washings

Uworld (63 decks)

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