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Uworld > Test 8-10: All > Flashcards

Test 8-10: All Flashcards

1
Q

What are lab values for Hereditary Spherocytosis

A
  • increase mean corpuscular [hemoglobin]
  • spherocytes on peripheral smear
  • positive osmotic fragility test on acidifed glycerol lysis test
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2
Q

Hereditary spherocytosis results from red cell cytoskeleton abnormalities, most commonly of what

A

spectrin and ankyrin

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3
Q

what do spherocytes look like

A
  • small, round RBC

- no central pallor

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4
Q

Spherocytes are prone to sequestration and subsequent accelerated destruction where

A

in spleen

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5
Q

what are some clinical features of hereditary spherocytosis

A
  1. hemolytic anemia
  2. jaundince
  3. splenomegaly
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6
Q

First trimester use of Valproate is a significant risk factor for what

A

neural tube defects

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7
Q

What can reduce risk of neural tube defect

A

periconceptional folate ( B9) supplementation

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8
Q

Lithium can cause what fetal problems

A

Ebstein anomaly

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9
Q

findings of hillier adenopathy, pulmonary infiltrates, and non-caveating lung granulomas in an african american female has what

A

sarcoidosis

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10
Q

Th1 type CD4+ helper T cell make what cytokines

A

IL-2

IFN-gamma

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11
Q

Th2 type CD4+ helper T cell make what cytokines

A

IL-4

IL-5

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12
Q

COPD can cause hypoxia sufficient to stimulate

A

increased erythropoietin production by cortical cells of kidney

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13
Q

FRC increased or decreased in COPD

A

increased

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14
Q

So in biostats, if something asks for the probability, what is it most likely looking for

A

positive or negative predictive value

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15
Q

positive and negative predictive value changes with what

A

prevalence

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16
Q

how is Lesch-Nyhan inherited

A

X-linked recessive

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17
Q

Lesch-Nyhan is a deficiency in what

A

hypoxantine-guanine phosphoribosyltransferase (HGPRT)

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18
Q

Define N-myc

A

transcription factor

  • Binds DNA
  • gain of function
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19
Q

During skeletal muscle contraction, calcium is released from sarcoplasmic reticulum and binds to what

A

Troponin C

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20
Q

name the dopaminergic pathways in the brain

A
  1. mesolimbinc and mesocortical pathways
  2. nigrostriatal pathway
  3. tuberoinfundibular pathway
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21
Q

role of mesolimbic and mesocortical pathway

A

regulate cognition and behavior

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22
Q

role of nigrostriatal pathway

A

coordination of voluntary movements

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23
Q

role of tuberoinfundibular pathway

A

inhibit prolactin secretion

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24
Q

What drug can disrupt the tuberoinfundibular pathway

A

D2 receptor blocking antipsychotics

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25
Q

arcuate fasciculus connects what

A

broca and wernicke

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26
Q

Disruption of hypothalamospinal tract can cause

A

ipsilateral horner sindrome

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27
Q

What drug inhibits IL-2 signal transduction ( prevents response to IL-2)

A

Sirolimus (Rapamycin)

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28
Q

MOA for Sirolimus

A
  • binds to FKBP in cytoplams
  • complex binds mTOR
  • blocks IL-2
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29
Q

MOA for Bortezomib

A

binds and inhibits 26S proteasome

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30
Q

MOA for Mycophenolate

A
  • reversibly inhibits IMP dehydrogenase

- preventing purine synthesis

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31
Q

MOA for Rituximab

A

antibody against CD20 antigen ( b lymphocyte)

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32
Q

When is Beta-hCG detected in serum during pregnancy

A

8 days after fertilization

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33
Q

When is Beta-hCH detected in mother urine during pregnancy

A

14 days after fertilization

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34
Q

A result is considered statistically significant if the 95% confidence interval does not cross the null value, which corresponds to what p-value

A

less than 0.05

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35
Q

What lab technique can be used to determine the carrier status of a prospective parent who has no history of sickle cell anemia

A

hemoglobin electrophoresis

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36
Q

Which cell is responsible for dense deposition of extracellular matrix and collagen in atherosclerotic plaque

A

Smooth muscle cells

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37
Q

Patient with swollen gums, scattered ecchymosis and hyperkeratosis is what vitamin deficient?

A

C

38
Q

Vitamin C is necessary for hydroxylation of?

A

proline and lysine residues in pro-collagen

39
Q

During aerobic exercise, increases skeletal muscle production of what where in the circulation system? decreases?

A

CO2 in mixed venous blood

- decreased oxygen content in venous blood

40
Q

What does chromatin cells release? what stimulus do chromatin cells respond to

A
  • catecholamines

- acetylcholine

41
Q

What causes medial fragment of fractured clavicle to displace superiorly

A
  • sternocleidomastoid muscle
42
Q

What causes inferior displacement of lateral fragment of clavicle?

A

weight of arm and pectorals major muscle

43
Q

Which antibody does not cross the placenta

A

IgM

44
Q

Which antibody does cross the placenta

A

IgG

45
Q

With maternal blood types A and B do erythroblastosis fetalis and hemolytic disease of the newborn occur? why?

A

no

  • antibody A or B are IgM
  • does not cross the placenta
46
Q

With maternal blood type O do erythroblastosis fettles and hemolytic disease of the newborn occur? why

A

yes

  • antibodies are predominantly IgG
  • cross placenta
47
Q

Hypo-acetylated histones bind to what? what happens

A

DNA

- prevent transcription of genes

48
Q

Role of histone acetylation

A
  • relaxes DNA coiling

- allowing for transcription

49
Q

In huntington disease, abnormal huntingtin causes what process in the genome? This causes what

A

histone deacetylation

- silencing genes necessary for neuronal survival

50
Q

Crescent formation on light microscopy is diagnostic of what disease

A

rapidly progressive glomerulonephritis

51
Q

The crescents in rapidly progressive glomerulonephritis consist of what

A
  • fibrin
  • glomerular parietal cells
  • monocytes
  • macrophages
52
Q

What is the cause of open-angle glaucoma

A

elevated intraocular pressure

53
Q

Where does Timolol, betaxolol, and carteolol work on the eye

A
  • decrease humor synthesis at ciliary epithelium
54
Q

How does Acetazolamide work at the eye

A
  • decreases aqueous humor at the ciliary epithelium
55
Q

How do Prostaglandin F2 alpha and cholinomimetics work at the eye

A
  • decrease intraocular pressure by increasing outlaw of aqueous humor
56
Q

Who produces aqueous humor in the eye

A

epithelial cells of ciliary body

57
Q

Essential fructosuria , what goes wrong

A

fructokinase deficiency

58
Q

How does fructose get metabolized in fructosuria

A

fructose –> via hexokinase –> fructose-6-phosphate

- enters glycolysis

59
Q

Fructose is normal phosphorylated by what? making what

A
  • fructokinase

- fructose-1-phosphate

60
Q

what are symptoms for fructokinase deficiency

A

asymptomatic

61
Q

What is wrong in fructose intolerance

A
  • aldolase B deficiency

- build up of toxic fructose-1-phosphate

62
Q

Define Sciatica

A

nonspecific term for lo back pain that radiates down the leg due to compression of lumosacral nerve root
- S1 nerve root in most common

63
Q

Characterize S1 radioculopathy

A
  • pain and sensory loss down posterior thigh and calf to the lateral aspect of foot
  • weakness on thigh extension
  • absent ankle jerk reflex
64
Q

L2 or L3 radiculopathy characterize

A
  • pain radiating down anterior thigh with weakness on hip flexion
65
Q

Acute bacterial arthritis in sexually active young adults is commonly caused by what

A

Neisseria gonorhoeae

66
Q

Neisseria gonorrhoaea is facultative intracellular cells seen in what type of cell

A

neutrophils

67
Q

Someone with low body weight, intense fear of becoming fat, and distorted body image

A

Anorexia nervosa

68
Q

lanugo

A

fine, soft hair covering body/limb

69
Q

When do you see lanugo

A

anorexia nervosa

70
Q

At age 3, a child is expected to do what

A
  • play imaginatively in parallel
  • speak in simple sentences
  • copy a circle
  • use utensils
  • ride a tricycle
71
Q

An increase in estrogen activity, as seen in pregnancy or post-menopausal estrogen replacement therapy, increases levels of what molecule?

A

Thyroxine-binding globulin

- increase total thyroid hormone

72
Q

why does feedback control remain normal in increase thyroxine-binding globulin production from increase estrogen

A

level of free thyroid hormone remains normal

73
Q

What are signs of patella fracture

A
  • acutely swollen knee
  • focal petella tenderness
  • inability to extend the knee against gravity
  • palpable gap in extensor mechanism
74
Q

What is the patellar reflex

A
  • L3, 4 kick the door
75
Q

What are 2 common ways to get a patella fracuture

A
  • direct blow

- excessive force

76
Q

young, asymptomatic patient with a soft systolic ejection murmur at the right intercostal space most likely has what heart problem

A

bicuspid aortic valve

77
Q

What causes overflow incontinence

A

impaired detrusor contractility or bladder outlet obstruction

78
Q

Diabetic autonomic neuropathy is common in type 1 diabetics and can cause what bladder problems and how

A
  • overflow incontinence

- inability to sense a full bladder and incomplete emptying

79
Q

What is gastroparesis? who is it usually seen in

A
  • delayed gastric emptying

- diabetic neuropathy

80
Q

What can confirm inadequate bladder emptying in overflow incontinence ?

A
  • increased postvoid residual (PVR) testing with ultrasound or catheterization
81
Q

Another name for Neurofibromatosis type I

A

Recklinghausen disease

82
Q

What is wrong in Neurofibromatosis type I

A

mutation in NF1 tumor suppressor gene

83
Q

Neurofibromatosis type I have cutaneous neurofibromas comprised of what? embryologically derived from

A
  • Schwann cells

- neural crest

84
Q

In Males, LH stimulates what

A

-release of testosterone from Leydig cells of the testes

85
Q

in males, FSH stimulates what

A
  • release of inhibit B from Sertoli cells in seminiferous tubules
86
Q

What has a negative feedback on LH in males

A

testosterone

87
Q

What has a negative feedback on FSH in males

A

inhibin B

88
Q

What is the main adverse effect seen with nitrate therapy

A
  • headaches and cutaneous flushing along with lightheadedness
  • hypotension due to systemic vasodilation
89
Q

what cell cannot use ketones as an energy source? and why?

A

erythrocytes due to lack of mitochondria

90
Q

what is N-formyl-tetrahydrofolate another name?

A

foiling acid

leucovorin

Uworld (63 decks)

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